Tech 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What are the 5 JESIP principles?
A
Co-ordinate, Co-locate, Communicate, Joint understand of risk, Shared Situational Awareness.
2
Q
What is the description of a control measure?
A
“Action taken to reduce the likelihood of exposure to a hazard from a given risk, or to reduce the exposure of the impact”
3
Q
What are the behaviours of a successful incident commander?
A
Being Self-Aware, demonstrating and fostering trust, 2-way communication, understanding the use of the authority, setting expectations and standards, safety leadership, values and support people.
4
Q
What are the barriers of communication?
A
Language difference, communication network failure, poor listening skills, body language does not reflect the message.
5
Q
What is a description of a risk?
A
Something that has the likelihood that a hazard will actually cause its adverse effects, together with a measure of the severity of the harm.
6
Q
How many span of control should an incident commander not exceed?
A
5.
7
Q
What is the safe person concept?
A
The right person with the right equipment doing the right job at the right time.
8
Q
What 7 elements make up the IIMARCH briefing model?
A
Information, Intent, Method, Administration, Risk assessment,Communications, Humanitarian issues.
9
Q
What 5 things may be caused by stress?
A
impaired decision-making, impaired performance, poor communication,lack of teamwork, inactive leadership.
10
Q
What are the 6 key objectives of an incident commander?
A
Comply with relevant legislation, manage an incident safely, collaborate and co-operate with other emergency responders,encourage innovation, instil confidence, motivate and inspire others.
11
Q
What are the 2 tactical modes?
A
Offensive and Defensive.
12
Q
What are the 2 types of stress described within the fire and rescue service?
A
Chronic and Acute.
13
Q
Once a formal handover of a command at an incident has taken place , who must be informed?
A
Brigade control and the incident ground.
14
Q
What is the definition on of the “Major Incident”?
A
“An event or situation with a range of serious consequences which requires special arrangement to be implemented by one or more emergency responder agencies”.
15
Q
What are the 3 types of briefing given on the incident ground?
A
Command, Task and Tactical.
16
Q
Name 3 core behaviours of an incident commander?
A
Compassion, Togetherness and Accountability.
17
Q
What are the 9 protected characteristics?
A
Age, Disability, Gender reassignment, Marriage and Civil partnership, Pregnancy and Maternity, Race, Religion or Belief, Sex, and Sexual orientation. (Equality Act 2010).
18
Q
Which act requires employers to ensure the health, safety and welfare at work of their employees?
A
Health and Safety at work Act 1974.
19
Q
What 7 elements make up the METHANE message?
A
Major Incident/Emergency services/Types of incident/Hazards/Access/Numbers of casualties/Exact location.
20
Q
When at an incident does a Sub.O take over from a LFF?
A
When the incident involves 2 or more pumps.
21
Q
What is the description of a Hazard?
A
An event or situation that has the potential to cause harm.
22
Q
What is a good handover or briefing?
A
Detailed guidance on the agreed safe systems of work.
Clear and effective instruction in the risk critical environment of an operational incident.
Feedback and confirmation of understanding as a two-way process.
Agreement of suitable means of communication.
23
Q
What are the elements of an effective handover?
A
Information about the task or event,
Information about resources,
Information about risk and benefit,
Objectives,
Plan,
Communication,
Controlling,
Information on progress.
24
Q
What are an effective incident commanders leadership attributes?
A
Valuing and supporting others.
Displaying and installing confidence.
Demonstrating and fostering trust.
Fostering open two-way communication.
The use of authority and styles of leadership.
Setting expectations and standards.
Safety leadership.
Competence.
25
What are verbal barriers?
Inappropriate language,
Inability of hear or understand,
Noise, or Understanding,
Adverse weather conditions,
Distraction due to high levels of activity,
Poor listening skills.
26
What are stress indicators?
Impaired decision-making,
Impaired communication,
Impaired teamwork,
Impaired performance,
Impaired leadership.
27
What are 6 hierarchy of control measures?
Discipline, Reduce the risk, PPE,
Eliminate the risk, Control the risk, Isolate the risk.
28
When can a Station Officer undertake the Monitoring Officer role?
When a Sub O is the Incident Commander.
29
Definition of “Tactical Withdrawal?
Tactical withdrawal is the removal of personnel from a specific area of potential danger in a safe and planned manner.
30
What would you give your crew/team confidence in you as IC/manager?
By exhibiting confidence and having a can-do attitude, Being self-aware, displaying and instilling confidence, Demonstrating and fostering trust, Fostering two-way communication, Understand the use of authority, Setting expectations and standards, Safety leadership, Values and support people, Competence.
31
What is the voltage that the electric gloves be used up to and below?
Max permitted working voltage: 3,300V.
32
When crews are working within the defined risk area what Tactical mode would be declared?
Tactical mode Oscar.
33
Building Regulations state that FF shafts and fixed installations should be in stalled at which height?
6 floors/18Metres high to make provisions for firefighting and firefighter access.
34
define a “Major Incident”.
“An Event of situation with a range of serious consequences, which requires special arrangements to be implemented by one or more emergency responders agencies.
35
In the mnemonic METHANE what does the A stand for?
M - Major incident declared.
E - Emergency incident.
T - Type of incident.
H - Hazards present or suspected.
A - Access -routes that are safe to use.
N - Number, type, severity of casualties.
E - Emergency services present and those required.
36
What would be the evacuation of all personnel mean you have instigated?
Emergency evacuation.
37
What and who does incoming officers and appliances report to on arrival at incident?
Appliance commanders and senior officers are to report to the ICP, hand in their nominal roll boards and gather information on the incident from the CPO.
38
When can the monitoring officer make decisions on behalf of the OIC?
The monitoring Officer should not make any command decisions on the behalf of the OIC unless they are risk critical. The OIC must immediately be informed of any such actions taken by the MO.
39
Who has overall responsibility for risk critical decision on the fire ground?
The Incident commander.
40
When should you send an informative?
An initial informative message should be sent within 20 minutes of arrival at an incident, or as soon as possible after the first assistance message has been sent. For incidents with less than 8 appliances in attendance further informative messages are to be sent every 30 minutes; at 8 pump incidents and above further informative messages can be sent once every 60 minutes.
41
What information is written on an indemnity form?
show the address of the incident, the name and address of the person/organisation receiving the service and the rate of charge. A brief description of the service rendered is to be entered on the form. A detailed description of the action taken, including the substances involved.
42
Who does the Sector commander report to?
A Sector commander of an operational sector will report directly to the incident commander or operations commander, if appointed.
43
When can a sprinkler or drencher be turned off at the main stop valve?
As soon as he/she is satisfied that the operated sprinklers or drenchers can be dispensed with, the Incident commander of the fire should order the valve controlling the installation affected too be closed, the booster pump switched off and the drain valve opened.
44
What are the 4 categories of incident response?
Normal, enchanted reduced batched, normal enhanced, reduced batched.
45
Who can declare a major incident?
A major incident may be declared by a single blue light service, jointly or by other Category 1 and 2 responders organisations.
46
3 stages of incident.
Initial assessment.
Containing.
Under control.
47
When can fire surrounded message be sent?
For 6 pump fires and above or 13 main jet a have been used.
48
DRM or WRM how many litres or time?
Wet rising mains are designed to supply 1500 litres per minute for 45 minutes as a minimum.
49
How are inner and outer cordons demarked?
Inner cordon boundary will be marked using the Yellow barrier tape with ‘Hazard Zone - Do Not Cross’ written in black.
Outer cordon boundary will be designated using the white barrier tape, marked in red with ‘Fire service - Do Not Cross’.
50
Definition of safe system of work?
A safe system of work is a procedure that results from a systematic examination of a working process, and the production of a risk assessment, designed to control hazards and risk by elimination or some other suitable method.
51
Where don you write FSG information?
Control information forms and FSG information board.
52
When do we use guidelines?
Guidelines are only to be used on the instructions of the IC.
Where no other suitable means exist for tracing the way out of a risk area, such as when hose lines are submerged or tangled, or premise layout is complex.
To enter high expansion foam.
53
What is the CAP test?
The wetting test in conjunction with a thermal imaging camera (TIC) is known as the cylinder assessment process (CAP).
This test is the recognised way of checking if decomposition is taking place within the cylinder. If decomposition were taking place the heat given off by the reaction would warm the cylinder shell above ambient temperature.
54
What are the 3 types of cordon?
The inner cordon is established around the immediate scene of operations in order to restrict or even to exclude access to an area of hazard.
The outer cordon is generally wider, separating the public from areas used by the Emergency Services for support activities.
The traffic cordon is set up by the police at or beyond the outer cordon to prevent unauthorised vehicle access to the surrounding area.
55
When are BA stage 2 entry control procedures implemented?
Stage 2 BA entry control should be used to meet the demands of larger and/or more complex incidents.
The entry control point supervisor (ESP) must be appointed when Stage 2 entry control procedures are used, this rank must be a minimum of LFF.
Stage 2 procedures are to be used when any of the following apply:
*More than 1 ECP is required.
*More than 6 wearers are deployed into the risk area at any one time.
*The incident and structures involved are complex and/or the increased deployment of BA, plus the increased risks associated with BA operations, demand a greater degree of control and supervision.
*BA operations are likely to be protracted.
*Guidelines are required.
*The risks presented to BA demand a higher level of BA emergency provision, involving the need for BA emergency teams.
*EDBA is required.
*BA telemetry repeater(s) or leaky feeder ie deployed.
*Confirmed basement fire (where size and layout indicate Stage 2 is appropriate)
*BA emergency team(s) have been committed.
*When chemical protective clothing wearers are out of the line of sight of ECP.
*When committing BA crews for Hi-X foam.
*When other agencies are being committed in BA.
56
What would be instigated if you evacuate all personnel in a controlled manner from the risk area to a place of safety?
Tactical withdrawal is the removal of personnel from a specific area of potential danger in a safe and planned manner.
Planned evacuation - A pre-determined strategy for a premise to secure the removal of any persons in or around the premises to a place of safety.
57
What is the minimum initial hazard zone for an asbestos incident?
Setting up a minimum 25m restricted zone around the incident - greater if weather conditions and nature of the incident dictates.
58
What does the symbol of a Red triangle and ! Mean on the MDT?
Yankee Hazard/Explosives.
59
Your EPD begins to sound with an intermittent double beep what should you do?
Withdraw from the incident until EPD stops sounding.
60
In what circumstances should OIC establish an ICP?
an initial command pump (ICP) will be established as soon as possible whenever more than one pumping appliance is in attendance. Headlights and blue beacons should remain on to identify it. An incident command wallet (ICW) should be set up at/or near ICP. a command pump operator should be designated.
61
What does a H in a Yellow box with a X through it mean on the MDT?
An inoperable fire hydrant that will not supply water for firefighting.
62
The recipients of a briefing should understand clearly, what should they do to confirm understanding?
Repeat the briefing back.
63
You are the OIC at an incident involving Ducting, In what circumstances should the ducting/inspection panels be opened?
Inspection and access panels should be identified, the IC must ensure that entire length of the ducting or flue is thoroughly checked for fire spread.
these may only be opened on the instruction of the IC, appropriate extinguishing media must be in position to cover possible fire spread.
Where it is necessary to cut into the ducting to apply firefighting media similar control measures should be applied.
64
How long should an LPG cylinder be cooled if directly affected by flames?
Once the fire has been extinguished, crews should continue to cool the cylinder(s) until it is returned to ambient temperature as assessed with a TIC.
65
You are OIC at a gas leak. The gas has ignited, what general operational tactics should be employed?
Where a natural gas leak has ignited, the flames should not be extinguished but surrounding risks should be protected by lashing jets in place and evacuating the area until the gas supply has been isolated.
66
What is the Hot zone defined as at an MTFA incident?
Hot zone: where the attackers are known or believed to be present and/or there is an immediate threat to life.
67
At what following situations should respirators not be used?
Oxygen deficient atmospheres.
Toxic gases.
Flammable atmosphere.
Confirmed space.
Incidents involving confined spaces.
68
A running call is received to a lock out; however, it is ascertained that there is no danger to life of life-threatening circumstances, what should you do?
If there is no danger of fire or life threatening circumstances , the incident commander is to decline to render a service and withdraw from the incident as quickly and tactfully as possible, explaining the Brigade’s policy for handling requests for effecting entry for person locked out.
69
Which of the following pieces of info should not be given out to the media?
The names of the people involved in the incident - including those who have been rescued, injured or died. Requests for that information should be directed to the police and/or the Communications Department.
The names of Brigade personnel who have been injured or killed at incidents. Any such enquiry must always be referred to the Communications Department.
Any operational difficulties including failure of water supply or problems with equipment, accidents involving fire appliances or any difficulties which may be the subject of a subsequent injury.
Detailed information about the contents of the building.
Incident information at government premises.
Buildings subject to diplomatic immunity such as embassies or royal residences should be referred to the Communications Department or duty press officer (if the incident occurs out of office hours).
Any information on disciplinary matters, industrial relations, Brigade policies or initiatives, equipment, appliances, buildings.
70
If a building utilities phased evac where would it normally begin?
Floor of origin of fire (High-rise premises built prior to 2006 may be managed to the design category of the fire floor and the floor above as the initial evacuation). people with reduced mobility, wherever they are in the building, wi;ll be evacuated with those on the fire floor.
71
In what circumstances would curfews be able to be committed beyond the fire floor in a high rise?
When all the benefits have been properly assessed and balanced against a risk assessment.
72
What is the minimum rank for an inner cordon controller and assistant at a major incident?
Minimum role Station Officer as a inner cordon controller (ICC), and an assistant (firefighter. Or above) for each entry/exit point.
73
When an IBC of foam has been used and other remain on site, who is responsible for the unused IBC’s to be removed?
At the end of an incident, the IC will arrange (via LFB Control) for the IBC and equipment to be collected and returned to the appropriate BFU station.
74
How should be boundary between inner and outer cordon be mark?
Yellow barrier tape with ‘Hazard Zone’ - ‘Do not Cross’ written in black.
75
In addition to their review role, what other role can ORT undertake at incidents?
ORT officers can also act as an Operational tactical advisor on the incident ground.
76
What does a plain orange rectangle placard mean on a vehicle?
vehicles carrying dangerous goods are required to have a plain orange plate fixed to the front and rear of the transport unit.
77
You attend an incident in a tunnel under construction, can you commit crews into a pressurised atmosphere?
No LFB personnel should not enter pressurised atmosphere.
78
You attend an incident with security dogs running loose and no one on site, what should you do?
The attendance of the police with a dog handler must be requested to assist in dealing with the removal of the animal from the incident.
79
Which of the following applies when siting an appliance at a terrorist incident?
Not in direct line of sight.
Away from glass.
Away from secondary hazards (parked vehicles, garages etc.)
Behind hard cover.
Upwind if any suspicion of chemical or biological agent.
Beware secondary devices.
request police - if not in attendance.
80
You are in attendance at Level 1 water incident, what circumstances can FF enter the water?
To perform a rescue following a risk assessment going to level 2 water operations - Operations where firefighters may have to commit to water (still or moving) to affect a rescue. This includes all incidents involving people in the water and any other incident beyond the limitations of level 1.
81
You attend an incident at a sub-station with a unconscious casualty, what is the minimum safe approach distance?
5m.
82
What term is given to the area where a bridgehead should be set-up?
Bridgehead is to enable an incident to be dealt with by establishing a control point with suitable resources and emergency provision in a safe area as close as practical to the risk area. In a residential high rise building it is normally located 2 floors below the fire floor. it is a location rather than a sector on its own but is located within the lobby sector.
83
With the exception of local incident info where in the first instance should all media enquiries be referred to?
All media should be directed to the LFB Command Unit at the incident, unless the nLFB Command Unit is inside a cordon.
84
What is the minimum number of personnel that should be sent to the bridge-head/
A Minimum of 4 personnel.
85
You are the IC at a compartment fire, in what circumstances if any can you use Hose-reel jet instead of a 45mm jet?
Where information gathering confirms there is known small fire the IC may consider that hose reels or hand-portable equipment as an alternative.
86
In fires involving derived fuels, why is it important to contain FF water run-offs?
Water run-offs from fire-fighting run-off may contain contaminants and should be contained, wherever possible, to avoid environmental pollution of water courses.
87
According to the fire service Act 2004, which of the following can we lawfully do?
Extinguishing or prevention the fire or protecting life or property (if they reasonably believe a fire to have broken out or about to break out), rescuing people or protecting them from serious harm (if they reasonably believe a road traffic accident has occurred). Discharging any function conferred on the fire and rescue authority in relation to the emergency (if they reasonably believe an emergency of another kind to occurred), or prevention or limiting damage to property resulting from action taken as mentioned above.
Enter premises or a place, by force if necessary, without the consent of the owner or occupier of the premises or place
Close a highway, stop and regulate traffic. Or restrict the access of persons to premises or place.
88
What are the flashpoint or fire-point of a flammable liquid?
Flashpoint: The lowest temperature at which a flame can propagate in the vapour above the liquid.
Firepoint: A higher temperature than flashpoint, the temperature at which the vapour continues to burn after being ignited.
89
Where should smoke blockers be deployed?
The smoke blocker must only be used to protect the stairwell in a high rise building from products of combustion.
90
What is the definition of explosives?
Any material that is capable of undergoing a self-contained and self-sustained exothermic chemical reaction at a rate that is sufficient to produce substantial pressure.
91
Explosive hazards are identified as?
Yankee Hazard.
92
How far away can a radio controlled explosive be detonated from?
60 metres.
93
How will crews identify Yankee hazard on the MDT?
7.2D.
ORD.
Fire safety
Local authority
HSE
94
What is the sign for a Yankee hazard on the MDT
Red triangle with black exclamation mark.
95
On arrival where should the appliance be sited?
At a suitable distance from the known explosive hazard.
96
What information must the IC obtain upon arrival about the explosives?
Type
Quantity
Location
Storage
Involvement
Site plans
Fixed installations
Safety control measures
Separation
97
When explosives are confirmed involved, what must the IC do?
Send “Priority Message” “Explosives confirmed involved”.
98
Maximum storage amount of explosives permitted.
Fireworks domestic shop 250kg in ISOI container.
Gun enthusiast 20kg of black powder.
99
Hazard zones for fireworks/explosives are?
200 metres for 250kg (small car)
600 metres for 251kg - 2000kg and military explosives HD1
100 metres for explosives over 2000kg
100
Who can advise the IC?
HMEPO
101
When dealing with IED explosives, who takes the lead?
Police.
102
What distance must radios not be used in from the explosive materials?
60 metres.
103
What distance can’t radios not be used for military explosives?
600 metres
104
What can identify a vehicle carrying explosives?
Orange plate fixed to front and rear.
105
What is tactical withdrawal?
the removal of personnel from a specific area of potential danger in a safe and planned manner.
106
Who can implement a tactical withdrawal?
The IC.
Operations commander.
sector commander.
Safety officer.
107
What is Emergency Evacuation?
The immediate and controlled withdrawal of all personnel from the scene of operations.
108
Who can implement the emergency withdrawal?
IC
Sector commander
Operations commander
safety Officer.
109
Can a firefighter implement a emergency withdrawal?
Yes. When its not practically possible to pass the information to the IC and unsafe conditions are detected.
IC must be informed ASAP.
110
What actions will be taken for a Emergency Evacuation?
Short blast on their whistle Thunderer
BA crews via telemetry board
Radio.
111
What tactical mode is the IC in when completing a Emergency Evacuation?
Offensive, as some personnel will still be in the hazard zone.
112
What must be done after Emergency Evacuation?
A Roll call.
113
What is Firefighter Emergency?
When any fire service personnel or personnel working under the control of LFB are unaccounted for and/or in need of rescue.
114
What message should be sent for a Firefighter Emergency?
From……At address Firefighter Emergency, tactical mode, Oscar.
115
When will a Roll Call be taken?
Any time during an incident.
After any tactical withdrawal or Firefighter Emergency.
116
Where can asbestos be formally found?
Cement roofing.
Artex
Pipe installation.
117
What is ACM?
Asbestos Containing Material.
118
What is the PDA for firefighter emergency?
6 Pumps including 3PL with 3 station Officers in charge.
2 FRU.
FIT
CU
LAS
Press Liaison
FSO
3 SC
Group Manager
DAC
SAI
119
What is the minimum restriction zone for asbestos?
25m around the incident.
120
When asbestos is suspected or involved, what should be done?
Send a “Priority Message” to control. “Asbestos Reported”.
121
What should crews wear when working in the hazard zone?
Full PPE, BA, GTS if not firefighting.
122
Who can the IC can advise from?
HMEPO.
SA.
123
What Can’t Personnel do at an asbestos incident?
Smoke, Eat or Drink until Decontaminated.
124
Who must the IC leave the Incident with?
Control must be handed over to the Local authority.
125
What are the UK’s threat Levels?
Low.
Moderate.
Substantial.
Severe.
Critical.
126
What is NILO?
National Inter-Agency Liaison Officer.
127
MTA stand for what?
Marauding Terrorist Attack.
128
In the LFB, what can the NILO advise on?
Conventional Terrorism
CBRN Terrorism
Firearms Incident
Public Disorder
Crisis Management
129
What is MTA?
Terror attack using weapons to inflict large number of casualties.
130
what information should be passed over to control, if crews find themselves in a terrorist incident?
Number and location of terrorist
Weapons been used
description of terrorist.
131
What is an IED?
Improvised Explosive Device.
132
What steps should be followed?
Steps 1, 2, 3, plus.
133
What should OIC be cautious of when attending IED incidents?
Secondary Devices.
134
What are the 3 types of warning for a Bomb threat?
No warning, device actuated.
Warning given, device actuated.
Warning given, device not actuated made safe.
135
Are LFB to be used for searching for suspect devices?
No, unless they are on Fire station or premises personnel are attached to.
136
What are the cordons for IED’s?
Suitcase - 100m
Cars. - 200m
Lorry. - 400m
(Any doubt 400m)
137
How should appliances be sited when attending IED’s?
Facing away from IED with windows open under direction of police.
Not in direct sight.
Away from glass.
Away from secondary hazards such as cars, garages.
Behind covers.
Uphill if chemicals are suspected.
138
What is an EOD officer?
Explosive Ordinance Officer.
