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Health Sciences TEAS Study Guide > TEAS > Flashcards

TEAS Flashcards

1
Q

in anatomical position, the elbow is proximal to the wrist but distal to:

a. the fingers
b. the shoulder
c. the carpals
d. the radius

A

the shoulder

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2
Q

the mouth is ____ to the nose.

a. superior
b. lateral
c. distal
d. medial
e. inferior

A

inferior

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3
Q

the ____ plane divides the body into superior and inferior sections.

a. frontal
b. sagittal
c. oblique
d. transverse

A

transverse

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4
Q

the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment by the body is called:

a. physiology
b. homeostasis
c. a feedback mechanism
d. metabolism
e. isotonic

A

homeostasis

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5
Q

the stomach and intestines are covered by what serous membrane?

a. parietal pleura
b. visceral pleura
c. parietal pericardium
d. visceral peritoneum
e. parietal peritoneum

A

visceral peritoneum

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6
Q

in ____ there is an equal sharing of electrons resulting in a molecule that is electrically neutral.

a. ionic bonding
b. nonpolar covalent bonding
c. polar covalent bonding
d. hydrogen bonding

A

nonpolar covalent bonding

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7
Q

if the pH of urine is determined to be 4.8, the urine is ____.

a. acidic
b. basic
c. neutral

A

acidic

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8
Q

____ are complex molecules that consist of chains of amino acids which have folded or twisted forming a fibrous or globular structure.

a. lipids
b. proteins
c. carbohydrates
d. nucleic acids

A

proteins

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9
Q

phospholipids have a(n) ____ or “water-loving” group and have long hydrocarbon tails that are ____.

a. hydrophilic, hydrophobic
b. basic, acidic
c. hydrophobic
d. acidic, basic

A

hydrophilic, hydrophobic

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10
Q

which of the following bases would you NOT find in a DNA molecule?

a. adenine
b. cytosine
c. guanine
d. thymine
e. uracil

A

uracil

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11
Q

the movement of substances across the membrane following their concentration gradient with the aid of a protein carrier molecule is called:

a. simple diffusion
b. carrier-mediated or facilitated diffusion
c. phagocytosis
d. active transport
e. solute pumping

A

carrier-mediated or facilitated diffusion

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12
Q

these organelles have double membrane and are responsible for the production of ATP in the presence of oxygen.

a. ribosomes
b. mitochondria
c. lysosomes
d. centrioles
e. peroxisomes

A

mitochondria

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13
Q

these organelles are the site of protein synthesis and are often found associated with endoplasmic reticulum.

a. ribosomes
b. mitochondria
c. lysosomes
d. centrioles
e. peroxisomes

A

ribosomes

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14
Q

the process by which DNA information is copied in preparation for cell division (mitosis) is:

a. replication
b. transcription
c. translation
d. mitosis

A

replication

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15
Q

mitosis is for ________ and results in cells which are ________.

a. growth and repair; genetically different
b. growth and repair; genetically identical
c. production of sperm and eggs; genetically identical
d. production of mitochondria; genetically identical
e. differentiation and specialization of cells; genetically different

A

growth and repair; genetically identical

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16
Q

tissue comprised of many layers of cells with the surface cells being thin and flat would be classified as:

a. simple squamous
b. pseudostratified columnar
c. simple cuboidal
d. stratified squamous
e. simple columnar

A

stratified squamous

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17
Q

tissue which protects, supports and stores most of the body’s calcium would be classified as:

a. dense regular connective tissue
b. adipose
c. blood
d. bone

A

bone

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18
Q

irregular dense connective tissue and blood vessels are found in which layer(s) of the skin?

a. epidermis
b. dermis
c. subcutaneous layer (hypodermis)
d. all of the above

A

dermis

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19
Q

which layer of the epidermis is the innermost and contains cells which are mitotically active?

a. stratum basale (germinativum)
b. stratum spinosum
c. stratum granulosum
d. stratum lucidum
e. stratum corneum

A

stratum basale (germinativum)

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20
Q

the dark pigment in skin cells which protects against harmful UV irradiation in sunlight is:

a. melanin
b. collagen
c. keratin
d. elastin

A

melanin

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21
Q

which of the following bone cells digests or breakdowns bone matrix?

a. osteoblasts
b. osteoclasts
c. osteocytes
d. osteoprogenitor cells

A

osteoclasts

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22
Q

the function of the epiphyseal plate in long bones is to:

a. allow bones to increase in length
b. provide nourishment to the osteocytes
c. allow more flexibility in a long bone
d. allow bones to increase in width

A

allow bones to increase in length

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23
Q

by definition, a diarthrosis is a joint which is

a. immovable
b. slightly movable
c. freely movable
d. triaxial

A

freely movable

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24
Q

a suture is a joint in which the articulating bones fit closely together and the joint space is filled with fibrous connective tissue. a suture is an example of a(n) ________ joint.

a. synarthrotic
b. amphiarthrotic
c. diarthrotic
d. none of the above

A

synarthrotic

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25
Q

the type(s) of muscle tissue that is both striated and involuntary is:

a. skeletal
b. smooth
c. cardiac
d. both smooth and cardiac

A

cardiac

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26
Q

the thin filament of the sarcomere consists mostly of:

a. myosin
b. tropomyosin
c. troponin
d. actin

A

actin

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27
Q

calcium can be thought of as the “go” signal for muscle contraction. it is stored in which organelle of muscle fibers?

a. mitochondria
b. sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. golgi apparatus
d. T tubules

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

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28
Q

in muscles, the sarcomere refers to what structure?

a. a motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates
b. a group of muscle fibers surrounded by the perimysium
c. the functional or contractile unit of the muscle fiber
d. the striations of muscle fibers

A

the functional or contractile unit of the muscle fiber

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29
Q

the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction states that the sarcomere ________ as ________ slides past the thick filaments.

a. shortens; myosin
b. lengthens; myosin
c. shortens; actin
d. lengthens; actin

A

shortens, actin

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30
Q

at the neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine is released by what structure?

a. sarcomere
b. mitochondria
c. motor neuron
d. muscle fiber

A

motor neuron

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31
Q

during strenuous exercise, there may not be enough oxygen available to completely break down sugars leading to anaerobic conditions. as a result, what accumulates in the muscle?

a. ATP
b. Glucose
c. Oxygen
d. Lactic acid

A

lactic acid

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32
Q

what part of a neuron conducts the action potential away from the cell body?

a. dendrites
b. axons
c. axon terminals
d. Nodes of Ranvier

A

axons

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33
Q

which glial cell is responsible for the formation of myelin sheaths in the central nervous system (CNS)?

a. astrocytes
b. Schwann cells
c. oligodendrocytes
d. satellite cells

A

oligodendrocytes

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34
Q

which glial cell can be referred to as a “feeder cell” because it monitors exchanges between the blood and the neurons of the central nervous system (CNS)?

a. astrocytes
b. Schwann cells
c. ependymal cells
d. microglia

A

astrocytes

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35
Q

in neurons, a graded potential that results in an increase in the positivity of the resting membrane potential (going from -70 mV to -30 mV, for example) is called:

a. an action potential
b. a hyperpolarization
c. a depolarization
d. a repolarization

A

an action potential

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36
Q

which of the following channels open resulting in depolarization and the generation of the action potential?

a. the voltage-gated sodium channel
b. the voltage-gated potassium channel
c. the sodium-potassium pump
d. potassium leakage channel
e. chemically gated ion channel

A

the voltage-gated sodium channel

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37
Q

although the spinal cord ends near the L1-L2 vertebrae, the spinal nerve roots continue down the spine to exit at their appropriate level. this bundle of long fibers found in the lumber and sacral region is referred to as the:

a. filum terminale
b. cauda equina
c. ganglia
d. plexus

A

cauda equina

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38
Q

the spinal cord has two enlargements located in the cervical and lumbar levels where there is more gray matter than other levels of the spinal cord. why?

a. to supply nerves to the upper and lower limbs
b. to control the heart and blood vessels
c. to allow the integration of sensory information with memories
d. the spinal cord is compressed by other structures at thoracic and sacral levels

A

to supply nerves to the upper and lower limbs

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39
Q

which of the following structures contains only sensory (afferent fibers)?

a. dorsal foot
b. ventral root
c. dorsal ramus
d. ventral ramus

A

dorsal foot

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40
Q

which of the following meninges is the innermost and is characterized as being “delicate”?

a. pia mater
b. arachnoid
c. dura mater

A

pia mater

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41
Q

what part of the brain is responsible for muscle tone, muscle coordination and controlling postural muscles?

a. brainstem
b. cerebellum
c. diencephalon
d. cerebrum

A

cerebellum

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42
Q

which of the following hormones are secreted by the pituitary and stimulate the gonads?

a. follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone
b. glucagon and insulin
c. calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
d. oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
e. epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone

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43
Q

the final relay center which sends sensory impulses to the cortical areas of cerebrum is the:

a. thalamus
b. hypothalamus
c. epithalamus
d. amygdala

A

thalamus

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44
Q

the cerebral cortex has shallow depressions in the gray matter called the:

a. gryi
b. sulci
c. fissures
d. ciasma

A

sulci

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45
Q

the largest band of commissural fibers which connect the left and right hemispheres of the brain and are easily seen in a sagittal section is the:

a. corpus callosum
b. basal nuclei
c. limbic system
d. cerebral aqueduct
e. hypothalamus

A

corpus callosum

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46
Q

the primary (somato) sensory cortex is located on the postcentral gyrus in which lobe of the brain?

a. frontal
b. parietal
c. occipital
d. temporal
e. insula

A

parietal

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47
Q

the ____ is sometimes called the fight and flight system and is the part of the autonomic nervous system which increases the heart rate and inhibits the digestive system.

a. sympathetic division
b. parasympathetic division
c. sensory division
d. somatic motor division

A

sympathetic division

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48
Q

in the automatic nervous system, most parasympathetic postganglionic fibers release the neurotransmitter called:

a. acetylcholine
b. norepinephrine
c. serotonin
d. glutamate

A

acetylcholine

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49
Q

hormones act on certain cells in the body because those cells have:

a. blood vessels which deliver the hormone to them
b. ducts which carry the hormone to them
c. cellular activities which control the hormone
d. receptors which bind to the hormone
e. a resting membrane potential

A

receptors which bind to the hormone

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50
Q

the hormones responsible for the regulation of calcium levels in the blood are:

a. follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone
b. glucagon and insulin
c. calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
d. oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
e. epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

calcitonin and parathyroid hormone

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51
Q

the function of hemoglobin is to:

a. protect the DNA of erythrocytes
b. produce red blood cells
c. produce antibodies
d. carry oxygen
e. trigger the cascade of clotting reactions

A

carry oxygen

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52
Q

a person’s ABO blood type is determined by antigens present on the:

a. red blood cells
b. platelets
c. white blood cells
d. gamma
e. blood vessels walls

A

red blood cells

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53
Q

in the negative feedback loop that controls the rate of erythropoiesis, the trigger for increasing RBC production is:

a. decreased number of erythrocytes
b. increased levels of carbon dioxide in the red bone marrow
c. increased levels of carbon dioxide in the cerebrospinal fluid
d. decreased levels of oxygen in the kidney
e. decreased solute concentration of blood circulating in the hypothalamus

A

decreased levels of oxygen in the kidney

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54
Q

the substance that forms the network of threads in a blood clot is:

a. fibrinogen
b. thrombin
c. prothrombin
d. fibrin
e. prothrombin activator (prothrombinase)

A

fibrin

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55
Q

the most numerous white blood cell which is characterized by a nucleus with 3-5 lobes and functions as a phagocyte is a(n):

a. neutrophil
b. eosinophil
c. basophil
d. monocyte
e. lymphocyte

A

neutrophil

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56
Q

the blood cell which contains a nucleus nearly as large as the cell and is involved with antibody production and mediates the immune response is a(n):

a. neutrophil
b. eosinophil
c. basophil
d. monocyte
e. lymphocyte

A

lymphocyte

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57
Q

the bicuspid (mitral) valve is located between the

a. right ventricle and the aorta
b. right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk
c. left atrium and the left ventricle
d. right and left atria
e. right and left ventricles

A

left atrium and the left ventricle

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58
Q

the layer of the heart wall responsible for its pumping action is the:

a. fibrous pericardium
b. serous pericardium
c. epicardium
d. myocardium
e. endocardium

A

myocardium

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59
Q

all deoxygenated blood returning from the body flows into the:

a. right atrium
b. right ventricle
c. coronary sinus
d. left atrium
e. left ventricle

A

right atrium

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60
Q

the thickest wall chamber of the heart which pumps blood to the body is the:

a. right atrium
b. left atrium
c. right ventricle
d. left ventricle

A

left ventricle

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61
Q

the “pacemaker” of the heart which is located in the right atrial wall near the opening of the superior vena cava is the:

a. AV (atrioventricular) node
b. SA (sinoatrial) node
c. Purkinje fibers
d. AV (atrioventricular) bundle (bundle of His)
e. gap junction of the atrial cells

A

SA (sinoatrial) node

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62
Q

the chamber that receives blood from the lungs by way of the pulmonary veins is the

a. right ventricle
b. left ventricle
c. right atrium
d. left atrium

A

left atrium

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63
Q

which of the following correctly describes the usual pathway for blood leaving the left ventricle?

a. aorta, artery, arteriole, capillary, venule, vein, vena cava
b. aorta, arteriole, artery, venule, capillary, vein, vena cava
c. arteriole, aorta, artery, capillary, vein, venule, vena cava
d. vena cava, vein, venule, capillary, arteriole, artery, aorta
e. vena cava, venule, vein, capillary, artery, arteriole, aorta

A

aorta, artery, arteriole, capillary, venule, vein, vena cava

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64
Q

the force exerted by blood on the blood vessel wall which is measured relative to the force needed to hold up a column of mercury is commonly referred to as the:

a. blood pressure
b. pulse pressure
c. resistance
d. autoregulatory mechanism
e. pulse

A

blood pressure

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65
Q

which of the following correctly describes the blood found in the hepatic portal vein? the blood:

a. is oxygenated, low in nutrients and is traveling away from the liver
b. is oxygenated but high in nutrients and is traveling to the liver
c. is oxygenated, low in nutrients and is traveling away from the liver
d. has been filtered by the Kupffer cells in the sinusoids
e. is oxygenated, high in nutrients and is traveling to the liver

A

is deoxygenated, low in nutrients and is traveling away from the liver

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66
Q

the tunica media of a blood vessel is made of:

a. smooth muscle
b. cardiac muscle
c. skeletal muscle
d. endothelium
e. dense connective tissue

A

smooth muscle

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67
Q

what blood vessels have one way valves?

a. arteries
b. arterioles
c. veins
d. capillaries
e. all of these except capillaries

A

veins

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68
Q

blood pressure would be highest in which of the following vessels?

a. internal jugular vein
b. common carotid artery
c. inferior vena cava
d. right subclavian vein
e. blood pressure is the same in all vessels

A

common carotid artery

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69
Q

lymph is ____ that has been collected by lymphatic capillaries:

a. plasma
b. serum
c. cytosol
d. interstitial fluid
e. intestinal juice

A

interstitial fluid

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70
Q

T cells are involved in ____ as B cells are involved in ____:
a. nonspecific cellular defenses; immunity
b. anti-body mediated (humoral) immunity; cell-mediated immunity homeostatic imbalances
c. the inflammatory response; anti-body mediated (humoral) immunity
d. cell mediated immunity; anti-body mediated (humoral) immunity
e. homeostatic imbalances; cellular defenses

A

cell mediated immunity; anti-body mediated (humoral) immunity

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71
Q

which of the following correctly lists the structures according to the sequences of fluid (lymph) flow?

a. lymphatic capillaries, interstitial spaces, blood capillaries, lymphatic vessels, lymphatic ducts, subclavian veins
b. blood capillaries, lymphatic vessels, interstitial spaces, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic ducts, subclavian veins
c. blood capillaries, interstitial spaces, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic ducts, lymphatic vessels, subclavian veins
d. blood capillaries, interstitial spaces, lymphatic vessels, lymphatic ducts, lymphatic capillaries, subclavian veins
e. blood capillaries, interstitial spaces, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic vessels, lymphatic ducts, subclavian veins

A

blood capillaries, interstitial spaces, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic vessels, lymphatic ducts, subclavian veins

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72
Q

a substance capable of triggering the immune system and provoking an immune response is called a(n):

a. antibody
b. major histocompatibility complex
c. hapten
d. plasma cell
e. antigen

A

antigen

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73
Q

the immune cells which play a central role by directing the immune response by releasing cytokines which stimulate the cell-mediated immunity, antibody mediated immunity as well as non-specific defenses.

a. Helper T cells
b. Cytotoxic T cells
c. plasma cells
d. antigen presenting cells
e. memory cells

A

Helper T cells

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74
Q

during a secondary (immune) response, which of the following would not likely occur?

a. the release of antibodies by plasma cells
b. a quick response to the presence of a non-self antigen
c. a high fever and muscle aches as the immune system struggles to respond to the presence of the antigen for the second time
d. involvement of cell mediated immunity
e. enhanced activity of helper T cells

A

a high fever and muscle aches as the immune system struggles to respond to the presence of the antigen for the second time

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75
Q

which of the following lists the structures in the correct order of air flow?

a. trachea, laryngopharynx, nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx
b. nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, trachea, larynx
c. nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, larynx, trachea
d. oropharynx, laryngopharynx, nasopharynx, larynx, trachea
e. nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, trachea

A

nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, larynx, trachea

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1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Boyle’s law states that as gas volume:

a. increases, gas pressure increases
b. decreases, gas pressure decreases
c. increases, gas pressure decreases
d. decreases, gas pressure does not change

A

increases, gas pressure decreases

77
Q

the movement of the air in and out of the lungs is:

a. pulmonary ventilation
b. external respiration
c. internal respiration
d. gas transport

A

pulmonary ventilation

78
Q

the function of the epiglottis is to:

a. hold the pharynx open during speech
b. produce surfactant
c. close off the nasal cavity during swallowing
d. cover the larynx when swallowing
e. vibrate to produce sound as air passes over it

A

cover the larynx when swallowing

79
Q

the function of surfactant is to:

a. prevent the walls of the alveoli from sticking together
b. act as phagocytes
c. trap small particles and pathogens
d. allow the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide
e. transport carbon dioxide

A

prevent the walls of the alveoli from sticking together

80
Q

the most important chemical regulator of respiration is:

a. oxygen
b. carbon dioxide
c. bicarbonate ion
d. sodium ion
e. hemoglobin

A

carbon dioxide

81
Q

during inhalation the size of the thoracic cavity ________; during exhalation the size of the thoracic cavity ________.

a. increases, decreases
b. decreases, increases
c. increases, increases
d. decreases, decreases

A

increases, decreases

82
Q

chewing and mixing food with digestive juices are examples of which of the following processes?

a. ingestion
b. mechanical processing
c. chemical digestion
d. absorption
e. excretion (defecation)

A

mechanical processing

83
Q

chemical enzymes such as salivary amylase break chemical bonds in ingest molecules so that smaller molecules;

a. can move comfortably through the GI tract
b. can easily be swallowed
c. can be suspended in the digestive juices for easy hydrolysis
d. can be absorbed in the body and can be used for fuel or raw materials
e. can be excreted from the body during defecation

A

can be absorbed in the body and can be used for fuel or raw materials

84
Q

the rhythmic wave of contraction that pushes food through the GI tract is known as:

a. segmentation
b. haustral churning
c. peristalsis
d. deglutition
e. defecation

A

peristalsis

85
Q

the portion of the small intestine which receives the acidic chyme from the stomach and secretions from the liver and gallbladder is the:

a. pylorus
b. cecum
c. ileum
d. jejunum
e. duodenum

A

duodenum

86
Q

mass peristalsis results in feces moving into the:

a. ascending colon and activating the defecation reflex
b. cecum and activating the defecation reflex
c. sigmoid colon and rectum and activating the defecation reflex
d. ileum and activating the gastrolienal reflex
e. duodenum and activating the enterogastric reflex

A

sigmoid colon and rectum and activating the defecation reflex

87
Q

the structure which carries the bolus of food from the pharynx to the stomach is the:

a. larynx
b. esophagus
c. ileum
d. jejunum
e. duodenum

A

esophagus

88
Q

digestion of which of the following would be affected the most of the liver secretions were prevented from entering the GI tract?

a. carbohydrates
b. nucleic acids
c. proteins
d. lipids
e. all of these would be unaffected

A

lipids

89
Q

the functional units of the kidney are:

a. renal pyramids
b. renal papillae
c. nephrons
d. villi
e. acini

A

nephrons

90
Q

which of the following lists the nephron regions in the correct order of fluid flow?

a. glomerular capsule, distal convoluted tubule, nephron loop, proximal convoluted tubule
b. proximal convoluted tubule, nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule, glomerular capsule
c. glomerular capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule
d. nephron loop, glomerular capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule

A

glomerular capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule

91
Q

the movement of a filtrate from a high pressure capillary bed into the renal tubule:

a. glomerular filtration
b. tubular reabsorption
c. renal autoregulation mechanisms
d. tubular secretion
e. excretion

A

tubular secretion

92
Q

which of the following correctly describes the pathway urine follows exiting the body:

a. renal calyx, ureter, renal pelvic, urethra and bladder
b. renal pelvis, renal calyx, ureter, urethra, bladder
c. renal pelvis, ureter, renal calyx, urethra, bladder
d. renal calyx, renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, urethra
e. renal pelvis, renal calyx, ureter, bladder, urethra

A

renal calyx, renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, urethra

93
Q

the structure which carries the urine from the kidney to the bladder is the:

a. ureter
b. urethra
c. renal pelvis
d. renal pyramid
e. renal calyx

A

ureter

94
Q

typically, the glomerular filtrate:

a. and urine do not contain glucose
b. contains glucose but the urine does not
c. does not contain glucose but the urine does
d. contains glucose, red blood cells and white blood cells

A

contains glucose but the urine does not

95
Q

the tightly coiled tube hugging the testes that stores sperm is the:

a. epididymis
b. sustentacular cells
c. vas deferens
d. bulbourethral gland
e. interstitial cells

A

epididymis

96
Q

which of the following structures allow spermatogenesis to occur at a temperature cooler than the body:

a. epididymis
b. interstitial cells
c. vas deferens
d. scrotum
e. prostate glands

A

scrotum

97
Q

which of the following is a pathway sperm would take leaving the body

a. testis, seminal vesicles, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra
b. seminal vesicles, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, testis, prostate gland
c. prostate glands, seminal vesicles, vas deferens, testis, epididymis
d. testis, epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicle, prostate gland
e. testis, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra

A

testis, epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicle, prostate gland

98
Q

the part of the female reproductive system that is shed during menstruation is the:

a. myometrium
b. mucosa of the vagina
c. tunica albuginea
d. endometrium
e. germinal epithelium

A

endometrium

99
Q

the site of fertilization is the ________, and the site of implantation is the ________.

a. uterus, uterine tubes
b. uterine tubes, uterus
c. uterus, uterus
d. uterine tubes, vagina
e. uterus, vagina

A

uterine tubes, uterus

100
Q

which of the following is the pathway an unfertilized oocyte (egg) would follow?

a. uterus, uterine tubes, ovary, vagina
b. vagina, uterus, uterine tubes, ovary
c. ovary, uterus, uterine tubes, vagina
d. uterus, ovary, vagina, uterine tubes
e. ovary, uterine tubes, uterus, vagina

A

ovary, uterine tubes, uterus, vagina

101
Q

enzymes are known as biological ________.

a. organelles
b. codons
c. catalysts
d. hormones

A

catalysts

102
Q

in which of the following directions is DNA read?

a. left to right
b. top to bottom
c. 5’ to 3’
d. 3’ to 5’

A

3’ to 5’

103
Q

a segment of DNA that encodes for a particular protein is known as a(n) ________.

a. gene
b. codon
c. intron
d. chromatid

A

gene

104
Q

a chromosome is a collection of ________.

a. chromatids
b. proteins
c. histones
d. genes

A

genes

105
Q

Mendel’s first Law, the Law of Segregation, refers to the inheritance of a single trait and can be predicted using a(n) ________ cross.

a. monohybrid
b. dihybrid
c. unihybrid
d. polyhybrid

A

monohybrid

106
Q

phenotype refers to ________.

a. pattern of alleles
b. physical appearance
c. gene arrangement
d. dominant

A

physical appearance

107
Q

having 2 recessive alleles would be called ________.

a. heterozygous recessive
b. heterozygous dominant
c. homozygous recessive
d. homozygous dominant

A

homozygous recessive

108
Q

a Tt pea plant is crossed to a Tt plant. what is the expected ratio of phenotypes for offspring from the cross?

a. 3 tall: 1 dwarf
b. 1 tall: 1 dwarf
c. 1 tall: 3 dwarf
d. 2 tall: 1 dwarf

A

3 tall; 1 dwarf

109
Q

a cross is made between a pea plant that is RrYy and one the is rrYy. what is the predictive outcome of the seed phenotypes?

a. 9 round, yellow: 3 round, green: 3 wrinkled, yellow: 1 wrinkled, green
b. 3 round, yellow: 3 round, green: 1 wrinkled, yellow: 1 wrinkled, green
c. 3 round, yellow: 1 round, green, 3 wrinkled, yellow: 1 wrinkled, green
d. 1 round, yellow: 1 round, green: 1 wrinkled, yellow: 1 wrinkled, green

A

3 round, yellow: 1 round, green, 3 wrinkled, yellow: 1 wrinkled, green

110
Q

the F2 phenotypes of a dihybrid cross show a repeated outcome of 9:3:4 dominant to recessive phenotypes across several experiments. this ration should be considered which of the following?

a. expected monohybrid ratio
b. expected dihybrid ratio
c. non-inheritable trait being observed
d. non-Mendelian ratio being observed

A

non-Mendelian ration being observed

111
Q

non-Mendelian inheritance includes which of the following?

a. multiple alleles
b. co-dominance
c. dominance-recessive relation between 2 alleles
d. A and B
e. all of the above

A

A and B

112
Q

the nucleus of an atom contains which of the following?

a. protons
b. neutrons
c. electrons
d. A and B
e. all of the above

A

A and B

113
Q

neutrons have a ________ charge.

a. positive
b. negative
c. neutral
d. variable

A

neutral

114
Q

the numbers of neutrons in different atoms of the same element can vary, and these atoms are called ________.

a. epitopes
b. isotopes
c. cations
d. anions

A

isotopes

115
Q

the atomic number of an atom refers to the number of _________.

a. proton
b. electrons
c. neutrons
d. all of the above

A

proton

116
Q

the valence of an atom is the ________.

a. first orbital of electrons
b. last orbital of electrons
c. first orbital of protons
d. last orbital of protons

A

last orbital of electrons

117
Q

an ion that is positively charged is called a(n) ________.

a. cation
b. anion
c. isotope
d. positope

A

cation

118
Q

a chemical bond in which electron pairs are shared between atoms is called a(n) ________ bond.

a. ionic
b. covalent
c. hydrogen
d. peptide

A

covalent

119
Q

ionic bonds form between cations and ________.

a. isotopes
b. protons
c. anions
d. neutrons

A

anions

120
Q

the fundamental constituent of matter that retains the properties of an element is called the ________.

a. mass
b. valence
c. atom
d. energy

A

mass

121
Q

the passive movement of substances from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration is known as ________.

a. facilitated diffusion
b. osmosis
c. diffusion
d. evaporation

A

diffusion

122
Q

density is defined as the amount of ________ per volume.

a. energy
b. mass
c. gravity
d. polarity

A

mass

123
Q

which of the following phase changes requires the addition of heat?

a. freezing
b. condensation
c. melting
d. deposition

A

melting

124
Q

the temperature at which the liquid and gas phases of a substance have the same density is known as the ________.

a. boiling point
b. sublimation point
c. phase point
d. critical point

A

critical point

125
Q

the transition of liquid to gas is called ________.

a. boiling
b. evaporation
c. condensation
d. sublimation

A

evaporation

126
Q

which of the following states of matter has the lowest molecular motion?

a. solid
b. liquid
c. gas
d. colloid

A

solid

127
Q

a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without undergoing permanent chemical change is known as a(n) ________.

a. metal
b. acid
c. base
d. catalyst

A

catalyst

128
Q

a molecule which contains both carbon and hydrogen is known as a(n) ________ molecule.

a. organic
b. inorganic
c. salt
d. amine

A

organic

129
Q

an acid disassociates into free ________ molecules in solution.

a. hydrogen
b. hydroxyl
c. phosphate
d. carbon

A

hydrogen

130
Q

which of the following substances contains an ionic bond?

a. CO
b. NO2
c. SO4
d. NaCI

A

NaCl

131
Q

Which of the following compounds is organic?

a. H20
b. H2CO4
c. CO2
d. C6H12O6

A

C6H12O6

132
Q

a chemical compound that is formed from the reaction of an acid with a base forming a cation is called a(n) ________.

a. metal
b. buffer
c. enzyme
d. salt

A

salt

133
Q

the reactants in a chemical reaction are found on what side of the arrow?

a. left
b. right
c. both sides

A

left

134
Q

what is the metric unit used to measure volume?

a. meter
b. liter
c. gram

A

liter

135
Q

what does the prefix milli mean?

a. 1000
b. 100
c. 0.01
d. 0.001

A

d. 0.001

136
Q

one kilometer contains ____ meters

a. 10
b. 100
c. 1000
d. 10000

A

1000

137
Q

how many liters are in 1 centiliter?

a. 10
b. 0.1
c. 0.01
d. 0.001

A

0.01

138
Q

10 decagrams are ________ kilograms?

a. 10
b. 0.1
c. 0.01
d. 0.001

A

0.1

139
Q

which of the following is the term used to describe a specific experimental condition that is changed to measure its effect?

a. data
b. variable
c. control
d. bias

A

variable

140
Q

data measured based on observation and experimentation is called ________ data.

a. empirical
b. bias
c. physical

A

empirical

141
Q

which of the following is most appropriate for measuring the weight of an adult?

a. grams
b. kilograms
c. milligrams
d. micrograms

A

kilograms

142
Q

which of the following is the most appropriate for measuring the volume of a swimming pool?

a. centiliters
b. liters
c. kiloliters
d. nanoliters

A

kiloliters

143
Q

which of the following can lead to emphysema, which is a severe respiratory problem?

a. high salt diet
b. alcohol consumption
c. smoking cigarettes
d. sleep deprivation

A

smoking cigarettes

144
Q

the element that makes something happen is called the ____.

a. cause
b. effect
c. sequence
d. nominal

A

cause

145
Q

an educated guess that serves as a starting point for further testing is called the ________.

a. variable
b. control
c. hypotheis
d. theory

A

hypothesis

146
Q

the variable measured in an experiment as a possible effect is called the ________ variable.

a. dependent
b. independent
c. control
d. review

A

dependent

147
Q

a researcher wants to test the hypothesis that soy based diets are superior to whole wheat based diets for reproduction in mice. which of the following describes how the researcher should test this hypothesis?

a. record the number of pups born from a single mouse on soy diet vs. the number of pups born from a single mouse on whole wheat diet
b. count the pups born from 10 separate mice reared on soy vs. a single mouse on whole wheat
c. compare the pups born from 10 mice on soy diet vs. 10 mice on whole wheat diet
d. record the pups from 1 mouse on soy diet vs. 10 mice on whole wheat diet

A

compare the pups born from 10 mice on soy diet vs. 10 mice on whole wheat diet

148
Q

a negative control is used in an experiment for what purpose?

a. a group where a response is expected
b. a group where no response is expected
c. a group to detect bias

A

a group where no response is expected

149
Q

when 2 closely related bacteria are placed in a culture in the same initial numbers, bacterium A increased in numbers while bacterium B declined in numbers. the growth difference in the numbers most likely indicates that the energy consumption efficiency of bacterium A is ________ bacterium B.

a. less than
b. less variable than
c. greater than
d. more variable than

A

greater than

150
Q

a researcher collects data on subjects in an experiment over the course of 1 month. every day at 10:00 am, every subject takes 3 pills (A, B, C) to help lose weight. the following data are collected:
client # initial wt. (lbs.) final wt. (lbs)
1 250 245
2 275 195
3 322 250
4 377 200

a. pill A is effective in weight loss
b. weight went down for all subjects
c. the pill regimen is effective for the subjects
d. 10:00 am is the correct time to take pills for weight loss

A

weight went down for all subjects

151
Q

(page 31 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. This passage is primarily about

A. Methods of estimating unemployment rates in the 1930s
B. The effect of unemployment on United States families
C. President Franklin D. Roosevelt’s presidency
D. The creation of President Roosevelt’s FERA program

A
152
Q

(page 31 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. Which of the following is a logical conclusion of the passage?

A. The FERA program helped some people during the Great Depression.
B. The FERA program was not managed well.
C. President Roosevelt did not care about people.
D. The FERA system was unpopular.

A
153
Q

(page 31 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. Which of the following is the purpose of this selection?

A. Entertain
B. Inform
C. Persuade
D. Compare/Contrast

A
154
Q

(page 32 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. Which of the following is an example of a FERA program benefit.

A. It helped President Roosevelt get re-elected.
B. It helped Harry Hopkins become a well-known person.
C. It helped feed people and provide emergency rent.
D. It helped people get a college education.

A
155
Q

(page 32 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. The quotation from De Quincey indicates that the memory

A. always operates at peak efficiency
B. breaks down under great strain
C. improves if it is used often
D. becomes unreliable if it tires

A
156
Q

(page 32 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. What are the process steps (in order) De Quincey recommends to help people remember names?

A. Say you will remember, hear the name, same you will listen carefully, repeat the name.
B. Say you will listen carefully, hear the name, repeat the name, say you will remember it.
C. Hear the name, say you will remember it, say you will listen, repeat the name.
D. Repeat the name, hear the name, say the name, say you will listen.

A
157
Q

(page 32 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. The passage suggests that people remember names best when they

A. meet new people
B. are intelligent
C. decide to do so
D. are interested in people

A
158
Q

(page 33 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. We can conclude from the information in this passage that

A. Women today are highly successful in winning equal rights.
B. Only pioneer women have been considered equal to men.
C. Historically, women have only achieved equality through force.
D. Historically, the principle of equality alone has not been enough to secure women equal rights.

A
159
Q

(page 33 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. The purpose of the passage is to present

A. a personal observation
B. a solution to a problem
C. factual information
D. an opinion

A
160
Q

(page 34 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. According to the passage, what is the first step in the scientific process?

A. Gather information
B. Form a hypothesis
C. Repeat
D. Ask questions, make observations

A
161
Q

(passage 34 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. The sentences in parenthesis within the passage are

A. Examples to explain
B. Things to avoid during the process
C. Summaries of the previous statement
D. Opinions about the previous statement

A
162
Q

(page 35 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. The passage uses the following mode of development:

A. Comparison and Contrast
B. Cause and Effect
C. Narration and Classification
D. Definition and Process

A
163
Q

(page 35 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. How are the two sentences related?

A. They contradict each other.
B. They present problems and solutions.
C. They establish a contrast.
D. They repeat the same idea.

A
164
Q

(page 35 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. What does the second sentence do?

A. It makes a contrast.
B. It restates an idea found in the first.
C. It states an effect.
D. It gives an example.

A
165
Q

(page 35 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. How do the two sentences relate?

A. They express roughly the same idea.
B. They contradict each other.
C. They present problems and solutions.
D. They establish a contrast.

A
166
Q

(page 36 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. Which words best describe the author’s attitude toward the “edible insect initiative”?

A. awe and amazement
B. interest and support
C. disgust and distaste
D. fear and apprehension

A
167
Q

(page 36 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. Which of the following statements best supports the argument in this paragraph?

A. Bugs require a fraction of the water and land space that cows need.
B. Fried crickets taste wonderful.
C. Americans eat too much beef.
D. You should consider expanding your diet to include eating tarantulas.

A
168
Q

(page 37 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. Morse left the art world and helped to invent the telegraph because he

A. was tired of painting
B. wanted to communicate with people far away
C. loved his wife
D. was fascinated by science

A
169
Q

(page 37 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. Using Morse Code, select the answer below that spells “Help”.
    A. . -. – –..
    B. …. .- - ..-
    C. …. . .-.. .–.
    D. … — ..-. .–
A
170
Q

(page 38 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. Which of the following best captures the author’s main purpose?

A. To convince readers that the state budget cuts are a bad idea.
B. To inform readers that out-of-state travel will require approval.
C. To ask for ideas about how to cut expenses.
D. To alert readers that budget cuts are being implemented for the current and following year.

A
171
Q

(page 38 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. The tone of the memo can best be described as

A. Serious
B. Mocking
C. Comedic
D. Ironic

A
172
Q
  1. Joanna gave an especially ‘lucid’ argument to support her request for a raise.

A. hurried
B. foolish
C. strong
D. clear

A
173
Q
  1. ‘Photography’, when literally translated, means ___________.

A. light writing
B. recording on film
C. a realistic drawing
D. artistic interpretation

A
174
Q
  1. The two nations began ‘bilateral’ talks, hoping to make a peace treaty between them.

A. one-sided
B. between two sides
C. mediated
D. emergency

A
175
Q
  1. The lawyer asked for a ‘transcript’ of a court case to review what had been said during the trial.

A. court order
B. audio recording
C. written copy
D. video recording

A
176
Q
  1. The geysers in Yellowstone National Park are ‘geothermal’.

A. heated from a distance
B. very high
C. contain hot water
D. heated from deep inside the earth

A
177
Q

(page 39 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. Which statement below expresses the implied main idea of this passage?

A. There are benefits to non-traditional job schedules.
B. Working conditions are much different from those of a generation ago.
C. An increasing number of workers are choosing part-time employment
D. Some people prefer working at home.

A
178
Q

(page 39 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. The word “flextime” means

A. Working a part-time job.
B. Choosing when to arrive and leave work as long as the hours are met.
C. Working from home.
D. Sharing a job with another person.

A
179
Q

(page 40 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. Which of the following is the main idea in this passage?

A. People who are weight-conscious will have pleasing figures.
B. Both fat and thin people should lose weight.
C. Advertisers are encouraging our weight consciousness.
D. Beware of false advertising.

A
180
Q

(page 40 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. Which word from the passage has a negative connotation?

A. thin
B. writers
C. model
D. dictators

A
181
Q

(chart page 41)
31. Which of the occupations
commands the highest salary?

A. Veterinary assistants
B. Veterinarians
C. Nonfarm animal caretakers
D. Pet Store Owners

A
182
Q

(chart page 41)
32. This information from the U.S.
Census Bureau is an example of what
type of source information?

A. A research study
B. A secondary source
C. A primary source (survey)
D. A primary source (focus group)

A
183
Q

(chart page 41)
33. The chart uses all of the following text features, EXCEPT

A. images
B. table of contents
C. text color
D. headings and sub-headings

A
184
Q

(page 42 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. Which of the following statements
    is accurate based on the timeline?

A. The Early Woodland Adena era
covered roughly 400 years.
B. The Archaic era began around
11,000 BC
C. The Paleoindians built conical
earthen mounds.
D. Rock art paintings began in the
Sahara in Africa around the same time
as the Archaic era for Native
Americans in Ohio

A
185
Q

(page 42 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. The timeline is presented
    according to which type of
    organization plan.

A. Chronological order
B. Spatial order
C. Emphatic order
D. Parallel order

A
186
Q

(page 42 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. During the Archaic period, Ohio Native Americans gathered and processed food by all of the methods
    below, EXCEPT

A. Growing their own plants
B. Hunting and fishing
C. Using pottery to store and cook food
D. Moving to different location

A
187
Q

(page 43 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. The passage suggests that the wheel is an important invention because it

A. is one of the world’s oldest inventions
B. forms the basis of so many later inventions
C. can be traced to many ancient cultures
D. is one the world’s most famous inventions

A
188
Q

(page 43 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. Which of the following best describes the mode of this passage?

A. Expository
B. Descriptive
C. Persuasive
D. Narrative

A
189
Q

(page 43 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )

  1. The passage implies that Franzen’s criticism of the Oprah Book Club was motivated primarily by

A. pride
B. anger
C. insensitivity
D. ignorance

A

Health Sciences TEAS Study Guide (1 decks)

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