TEAS Flashcards
in anatomical position, the elbow is proximal to the wrist but distal to:
a. the fingers
b. the shoulder
c. the carpals
d. the radius
the shoulder
the mouth is ____ to the nose.
a. superior
b. lateral
c. distal
d. medial
e. inferior
inferior
the ____ plane divides the body into superior and inferior sections.
a. frontal
b. sagittal
c. oblique
d. transverse
transverse
the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment by the body is called:
a. physiology
b. homeostasis
c. a feedback mechanism
d. metabolism
e. isotonic
homeostasis
the stomach and intestines are covered by what serous membrane?
a. parietal pleura
b. visceral pleura
c. parietal pericardium
d. visceral peritoneum
e. parietal peritoneum
visceral peritoneum
in ____ there is an equal sharing of electrons resulting in a molecule that is electrically neutral.
a. ionic bonding
b. nonpolar covalent bonding
c. polar covalent bonding
d. hydrogen bonding
nonpolar covalent bonding
if the pH of urine is determined to be 4.8, the urine is ____.
a. acidic
b. basic
c. neutral
acidic
____ are complex molecules that consist of chains of amino acids which have folded or twisted forming a fibrous or globular structure.
a. lipids
b. proteins
c. carbohydrates
d. nucleic acids
proteins
phospholipids have a(n) ____ or “water-loving” group and have long hydrocarbon tails that are ____.
a. hydrophilic, hydrophobic
b. basic, acidic
c. hydrophobic
d. acidic, basic
hydrophilic, hydrophobic
which of the following bases would you NOT find in a DNA molecule?
a. adenine
b. cytosine
c. guanine
d. thymine
e. uracil
uracil
the movement of substances across the membrane following their concentration gradient with the aid of a protein carrier molecule is called:
a. simple diffusion
b. carrier-mediated or facilitated diffusion
c. phagocytosis
d. active transport
e. solute pumping
carrier-mediated or facilitated diffusion
these organelles have double membrane and are responsible for the production of ATP in the presence of oxygen.
a. ribosomes
b. mitochondria
c. lysosomes
d. centrioles
e. peroxisomes
mitochondria
these organelles are the site of protein synthesis and are often found associated with endoplasmic reticulum.
a. ribosomes
b. mitochondria
c. lysosomes
d. centrioles
e. peroxisomes
ribosomes
the process by which DNA information is copied in preparation for cell division (mitosis) is:
a. replication
b. transcription
c. translation
d. mitosis
replication
mitosis is for ________ and results in cells which are ________.
a. growth and repair; genetically different
b. growth and repair; genetically identical
c. production of sperm and eggs; genetically identical
d. production of mitochondria; genetically identical
e. differentiation and specialization of cells; genetically different
growth and repair; genetically identical
tissue comprised of many layers of cells with the surface cells being thin and flat would be classified as:
a. simple squamous
b. pseudostratified columnar
c. simple cuboidal
d. stratified squamous
e. simple columnar
stratified squamous
tissue which protects, supports and stores most of the body’s calcium would be classified as:
a. dense regular connective tissue
b. adipose
c. blood
d. bone
bone
irregular dense connective tissue and blood vessels are found in which layer(s) of the skin?
a. epidermis
b. dermis
c. subcutaneous layer (hypodermis)
d. all of the above
dermis
which layer of the epidermis is the innermost and contains cells which are mitotically active?
a. stratum basale (germinativum)
b. stratum spinosum
c. stratum granulosum
d. stratum lucidum
e. stratum corneum
stratum basale (germinativum)
the dark pigment in skin cells which protects against harmful UV irradiation in sunlight is:
a. melanin
b. collagen
c. keratin
d. elastin
melanin
which of the following bone cells digests or breakdowns bone matrix?
a. osteoblasts
b. osteoclasts
c. osteocytes
d. osteoprogenitor cells
osteoclasts
the function of the epiphyseal plate in long bones is to:
a. allow bones to increase in length
b. provide nourishment to the osteocytes
c. allow more flexibility in a long bone
d. allow bones to increase in width
allow bones to increase in length
by definition, a diarthrosis is a joint which is
a. immovable
b. slightly movable
c. freely movable
d. triaxial
freely movable
a suture is a joint in which the articulating bones fit closely together and the joint space is filled with fibrous connective tissue. a suture is an example of a(n) ________ joint.
a. synarthrotic
b. amphiarthrotic
c. diarthrotic
d. none of the above
synarthrotic
the type(s) of muscle tissue that is both striated and involuntary is:
a. skeletal
b. smooth
c. cardiac
d. both smooth and cardiac
cardiac
the thin filament of the sarcomere consists mostly of:
a. myosin
b. tropomyosin
c. troponin
d. actin
actin
calcium can be thought of as the “go” signal for muscle contraction. it is stored in which organelle of muscle fibers?
a. mitochondria
b. sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. golgi apparatus
d. T tubules
sarcoplasmic reticulum
in muscles, the sarcomere refers to what structure?
a. a motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates
b. a group of muscle fibers surrounded by the perimysium
c. the functional or contractile unit of the muscle fiber
d. the striations of muscle fibers
the functional or contractile unit of the muscle fiber
the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction states that the sarcomere ________ as ________ slides past the thick filaments.
a. shortens; myosin
b. lengthens; myosin
c. shortens; actin
d. lengthens; actin
shortens, actin
at the neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine is released by what structure?
a. sarcomere
b. mitochondria
c. motor neuron
d. muscle fiber
motor neuron
during strenuous exercise, there may not be enough oxygen available to completely break down sugars leading to anaerobic conditions. as a result, what accumulates in the muscle?
a. ATP
b. Glucose
c. Oxygen
d. Lactic acid
lactic acid
what part of a neuron conducts the action potential away from the cell body?
a. dendrites
b. axons
c. axon terminals
d. Nodes of Ranvier
axons
which glial cell is responsible for the formation of myelin sheaths in the central nervous system (CNS)?
a. astrocytes
b. Schwann cells
c. oligodendrocytes
d. satellite cells
oligodendrocytes
which glial cell can be referred to as a “feeder cell” because it monitors exchanges between the blood and the neurons of the central nervous system (CNS)?
a. astrocytes
b. Schwann cells
c. ependymal cells
d. microglia
astrocytes
in neurons, a graded potential that results in an increase in the positivity of the resting membrane potential (going from -70 mV to -30 mV, for example) is called:
a. an action potential
b. a hyperpolarization
c. a depolarization
d. a repolarization
an action potential
which of the following channels open resulting in depolarization and the generation of the action potential?
a. the voltage-gated sodium channel
b. the voltage-gated potassium channel
c. the sodium-potassium pump
d. potassium leakage channel
e. chemically gated ion channel
the voltage-gated sodium channel
although the spinal cord ends near the L1-L2 vertebrae, the spinal nerve roots continue down the spine to exit at their appropriate level. this bundle of long fibers found in the lumber and sacral region is referred to as the:
a. filum terminale
b. cauda equina
c. ganglia
d. plexus
cauda equina
the spinal cord has two enlargements located in the cervical and lumbar levels where there is more gray matter than other levels of the spinal cord. why?
a. to supply nerves to the upper and lower limbs
b. to control the heart and blood vessels
c. to allow the integration of sensory information with memories
d. the spinal cord is compressed by other structures at thoracic and sacral levels
to supply nerves to the upper and lower limbs
which of the following structures contains only sensory (afferent fibers)?
a. dorsal foot
b. ventral root
c. dorsal ramus
d. ventral ramus
dorsal foot
which of the following meninges is the innermost and is characterized as being “delicate”?
a. pia mater
b. arachnoid
c. dura mater
pia mater
what part of the brain is responsible for muscle tone, muscle coordination and controlling postural muscles?
a. brainstem
b. cerebellum
c. diencephalon
d. cerebrum
cerebellum
which of the following hormones are secreted by the pituitary and stimulate the gonads?
a. follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone
b. glucagon and insulin
c. calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
d. oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
e. epinephrine and norepinephrine
follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone
the final relay center which sends sensory impulses to the cortical areas of cerebrum is the:
a. thalamus
b. hypothalamus
c. epithalamus
d. amygdala
thalamus
the cerebral cortex has shallow depressions in the gray matter called the:
a. gryi
b. sulci
c. fissures
d. ciasma
sulci
the largest band of commissural fibers which connect the left and right hemispheres of the brain and are easily seen in a sagittal section is the:
a. corpus callosum
b. basal nuclei
c. limbic system
d. cerebral aqueduct
e. hypothalamus
corpus callosum
the primary (somato) sensory cortex is located on the postcentral gyrus in which lobe of the brain?
a. frontal
b. parietal
c. occipital
d. temporal
e. insula
parietal
the ____ is sometimes called the fight and flight system and is the part of the autonomic nervous system which increases the heart rate and inhibits the digestive system.
a. sympathetic division
b. parasympathetic division
c. sensory division
d. somatic motor division
sympathetic division
in the automatic nervous system, most parasympathetic postganglionic fibers release the neurotransmitter called:
a. acetylcholine
b. norepinephrine
c. serotonin
d. glutamate
acetylcholine
hormones act on certain cells in the body because those cells have:
a. blood vessels which deliver the hormone to them
b. ducts which carry the hormone to them
c. cellular activities which control the hormone
d. receptors which bind to the hormone
e. a resting membrane potential
receptors which bind to the hormone
the hormones responsible for the regulation of calcium levels in the blood are:
a. follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone
b. glucagon and insulin
c. calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
d. oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
e. epinephrine and norepinephrine
calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
the function of hemoglobin is to:
a. protect the DNA of erythrocytes
b. produce red blood cells
c. produce antibodies
d. carry oxygen
e. trigger the cascade of clotting reactions
carry oxygen
a person’s ABO blood type is determined by antigens present on the:
a. red blood cells
b. platelets
c. white blood cells
d. gamma
e. blood vessels walls
red blood cells
in the negative feedback loop that controls the rate of erythropoiesis, the trigger for increasing RBC production is:
a. decreased number of erythrocytes
b. increased levels of carbon dioxide in the red bone marrow
c. increased levels of carbon dioxide in the cerebrospinal fluid
d. decreased levels of oxygen in the kidney
e. decreased solute concentration of blood circulating in the hypothalamus
decreased levels of oxygen in the kidney
the substance that forms the network of threads in a blood clot is:
a. fibrinogen
b. thrombin
c. prothrombin
d. fibrin
e. prothrombin activator (prothrombinase)
fibrin
the most numerous white blood cell which is characterized by a nucleus with 3-5 lobes and functions as a phagocyte is a(n):
a. neutrophil
b. eosinophil
c. basophil
d. monocyte
e. lymphocyte
neutrophil
the blood cell which contains a nucleus nearly as large as the cell and is involved with antibody production and mediates the immune response is a(n):
a. neutrophil
b. eosinophil
c. basophil
d. monocyte
e. lymphocyte
lymphocyte
the bicuspid (mitral) valve is located between the
a. right ventricle and the aorta
b. right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk
c. left atrium and the left ventricle
d. right and left atria
e. right and left ventricles
left atrium and the left ventricle
the layer of the heart wall responsible for its pumping action is the:
a. fibrous pericardium
b. serous pericardium
c. epicardium
d. myocardium
e. endocardium
myocardium
all deoxygenated blood returning from the body flows into the:
a. right atrium
b. right ventricle
c. coronary sinus
d. left atrium
e. left ventricle
right atrium
the thickest wall chamber of the heart which pumps blood to the body is the:
a. right atrium
b. left atrium
c. right ventricle
d. left ventricle
left ventricle
the “pacemaker” of the heart which is located in the right atrial wall near the opening of the superior vena cava is the:
a. AV (atrioventricular) node
b. SA (sinoatrial) node
c. Purkinje fibers
d. AV (atrioventricular) bundle (bundle of His)
e. gap junction of the atrial cells
SA (sinoatrial) node
the chamber that receives blood from the lungs by way of the pulmonary veins is the
a. right ventricle
b. left ventricle
c. right atrium
d. left atrium
left atrium
which of the following correctly describes the usual pathway for blood leaving the left ventricle?
a. aorta, artery, arteriole, capillary, venule, vein, vena cava
b. aorta, arteriole, artery, venule, capillary, vein, vena cava
c. arteriole, aorta, artery, capillary, vein, venule, vena cava
d. vena cava, vein, venule, capillary, arteriole, artery, aorta
e. vena cava, venule, vein, capillary, artery, arteriole, aorta
aorta, artery, arteriole, capillary, venule, vein, vena cava
the force exerted by blood on the blood vessel wall which is measured relative to the force needed to hold up a column of mercury is commonly referred to as the:
a. blood pressure
b. pulse pressure
c. resistance
d. autoregulatory mechanism
e. pulse
blood pressure
which of the following correctly describes the blood found in the hepatic portal vein? the blood:
a. is oxygenated, low in nutrients and is traveling away from the liver
b. is oxygenated but high in nutrients and is traveling to the liver
c. is oxygenated, low in nutrients and is traveling away from the liver
d. has been filtered by the Kupffer cells in the sinusoids
e. is oxygenated, high in nutrients and is traveling to the liver
is deoxygenated, low in nutrients and is traveling away from the liver
the tunica media of a blood vessel is made of:
a. smooth muscle
b. cardiac muscle
c. skeletal muscle
d. endothelium
e. dense connective tissue
smooth muscle
what blood vessels have one way valves?
a. arteries
b. arterioles
c. veins
d. capillaries
e. all of these except capillaries
veins
blood pressure would be highest in which of the following vessels?
a. internal jugular vein
b. common carotid artery
c. inferior vena cava
d. right subclavian vein
e. blood pressure is the same in all vessels
common carotid artery
lymph is ____ that has been collected by lymphatic capillaries:
a. plasma
b. serum
c. cytosol
d. interstitial fluid
e. intestinal juice
interstitial fluid
T cells are involved in ____ as B cells are involved in ____:
a. nonspecific cellular defenses; immunity
b. anti-body mediated (humoral) immunity; cell-mediated immunity homeostatic imbalances
c. the inflammatory response; anti-body mediated (humoral) immunity
d. cell mediated immunity; anti-body mediated (humoral) immunity
e. homeostatic imbalances; cellular defenses
cell mediated immunity; anti-body mediated (humoral) immunity
which of the following correctly lists the structures according to the sequences of fluid (lymph) flow?
a. lymphatic capillaries, interstitial spaces, blood capillaries, lymphatic vessels, lymphatic ducts, subclavian veins
b. blood capillaries, lymphatic vessels, interstitial spaces, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic ducts, subclavian veins
c. blood capillaries, interstitial spaces, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic ducts, lymphatic vessels, subclavian veins
d. blood capillaries, interstitial spaces, lymphatic vessels, lymphatic ducts, lymphatic capillaries, subclavian veins
e. blood capillaries, interstitial spaces, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic vessels, lymphatic ducts, subclavian veins
blood capillaries, interstitial spaces, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic vessels, lymphatic ducts, subclavian veins
a substance capable of triggering the immune system and provoking an immune response is called a(n):
a. antibody
b. major histocompatibility complex
c. hapten
d. plasma cell
e. antigen
antigen
the immune cells which play a central role by directing the immune response by releasing cytokines which stimulate the cell-mediated immunity, antibody mediated immunity as well as non-specific defenses.
a. Helper T cells
b. Cytotoxic T cells
c. plasma cells
d. antigen presenting cells
e. memory cells
Helper T cells
during a secondary (immune) response, which of the following would not likely occur?
a. the release of antibodies by plasma cells
b. a quick response to the presence of a non-self antigen
c. a high fever and muscle aches as the immune system struggles to respond to the presence of the antigen for the second time
d. involvement of cell mediated immunity
e. enhanced activity of helper T cells
a high fever and muscle aches as the immune system struggles to respond to the presence of the antigen for the second time
which of the following lists the structures in the correct order of air flow?
a. trachea, laryngopharynx, nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx
b. nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, trachea, larynx
c. nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, larynx, trachea
d. oropharynx, laryngopharynx, nasopharynx, larynx, trachea
e. nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, trachea
nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, larynx, trachea
Boyle’s law states that as gas volume:
a. increases, gas pressure increases
b. decreases, gas pressure decreases
c. increases, gas pressure decreases
d. decreases, gas pressure does not change
increases, gas pressure decreases
the movement of the air in and out of the lungs is:
a. pulmonary ventilation
b. external respiration
c. internal respiration
d. gas transport
pulmonary ventilation
the function of the epiglottis is to:
a. hold the pharynx open during speech
b. produce surfactant
c. close off the nasal cavity during swallowing
d. cover the larynx when swallowing
e. vibrate to produce sound as air passes over it
cover the larynx when swallowing
the function of surfactant is to:
a. prevent the walls of the alveoli from sticking together
b. act as phagocytes
c. trap small particles and pathogens
d. allow the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide
e. transport carbon dioxide
prevent the walls of the alveoli from sticking together
the most important chemical regulator of respiration is:
a. oxygen
b. carbon dioxide
c. bicarbonate ion
d. sodium ion
e. hemoglobin
carbon dioxide
during inhalation the size of the thoracic cavity ________; during exhalation the size of the thoracic cavity ________.
a. increases, decreases
b. decreases, increases
c. increases, increases
d. decreases, decreases
increases, decreases
chewing and mixing food with digestive juices are examples of which of the following processes?
a. ingestion
b. mechanical processing
c. chemical digestion
d. absorption
e. excretion (defecation)
mechanical processing
chemical enzymes such as salivary amylase break chemical bonds in ingest molecules so that smaller molecules;
a. can move comfortably through the GI tract
b. can easily be swallowed
c. can be suspended in the digestive juices for easy hydrolysis
d. can be absorbed in the body and can be used for fuel or raw materials
e. can be excreted from the body during defecation
can be absorbed in the body and can be used for fuel or raw materials
the rhythmic wave of contraction that pushes food through the GI tract is known as:
a. segmentation
b. haustral churning
c. peristalsis
d. deglutition
e. defecation
peristalsis
the portion of the small intestine which receives the acidic chyme from the stomach and secretions from the liver and gallbladder is the:
a. pylorus
b. cecum
c. ileum
d. jejunum
e. duodenum
duodenum
mass peristalsis results in feces moving into the:
a. ascending colon and activating the defecation reflex
b. cecum and activating the defecation reflex
c. sigmoid colon and rectum and activating the defecation reflex
d. ileum and activating the gastrolienal reflex
e. duodenum and activating the enterogastric reflex
sigmoid colon and rectum and activating the defecation reflex
the structure which carries the bolus of food from the pharynx to the stomach is the:
a. larynx
b. esophagus
c. ileum
d. jejunum
e. duodenum
esophagus
digestion of which of the following would be affected the most of the liver secretions were prevented from entering the GI tract?
a. carbohydrates
b. nucleic acids
c. proteins
d. lipids
e. all of these would be unaffected
lipids
the functional units of the kidney are:
a. renal pyramids
b. renal papillae
c. nephrons
d. villi
e. acini
nephrons
which of the following lists the nephron regions in the correct order of fluid flow?
a. glomerular capsule, distal convoluted tubule, nephron loop, proximal convoluted tubule
b. proximal convoluted tubule, nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule, glomerular capsule
c. glomerular capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule
d. nephron loop, glomerular capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule
glomerular capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule
the movement of a filtrate from a high pressure capillary bed into the renal tubule:
a. glomerular filtration
b. tubular reabsorption
c. renal autoregulation mechanisms
d. tubular secretion
e. excretion
tubular secretion
which of the following correctly describes the pathway urine follows exiting the body:
a. renal calyx, ureter, renal pelvic, urethra and bladder
b. renal pelvis, renal calyx, ureter, urethra, bladder
c. renal pelvis, ureter, renal calyx, urethra, bladder
d. renal calyx, renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, urethra
e. renal pelvis, renal calyx, ureter, bladder, urethra
renal calyx, renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, urethra
the structure which carries the urine from the kidney to the bladder is the:
a. ureter
b. urethra
c. renal pelvis
d. renal pyramid
e. renal calyx
ureter
typically, the glomerular filtrate:
a. and urine do not contain glucose
b. contains glucose but the urine does not
c. does not contain glucose but the urine does
d. contains glucose, red blood cells and white blood cells
contains glucose but the urine does not
the tightly coiled tube hugging the testes that stores sperm is the:
a. epididymis
b. sustentacular cells
c. vas deferens
d. bulbourethral gland
e. interstitial cells
epididymis
which of the following structures allow spermatogenesis to occur at a temperature cooler than the body:
a. epididymis
b. interstitial cells
c. vas deferens
d. scrotum
e. prostate glands
scrotum
which of the following is a pathway sperm would take leaving the body
a. testis, seminal vesicles, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra
b. seminal vesicles, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, testis, prostate gland
c. prostate glands, seminal vesicles, vas deferens, testis, epididymis
d. testis, epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicle, prostate gland
e. testis, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra
testis, epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicle, prostate gland
the part of the female reproductive system that is shed during menstruation is the:
a. myometrium
b. mucosa of the vagina
c. tunica albuginea
d. endometrium
e. germinal epithelium
endometrium
the site of fertilization is the ________, and the site of implantation is the ________.
a. uterus, uterine tubes
b. uterine tubes, uterus
c. uterus, uterus
d. uterine tubes, vagina
e. uterus, vagina
uterine tubes, uterus
which of the following is the pathway an unfertilized oocyte (egg) would follow?
a. uterus, uterine tubes, ovary, vagina
b. vagina, uterus, uterine tubes, ovary
c. ovary, uterus, uterine tubes, vagina
d. uterus, ovary, vagina, uterine tubes
e. ovary, uterine tubes, uterus, vagina
ovary, uterine tubes, uterus, vagina
enzymes are known as biological ________.
a. organelles
b. codons
c. catalysts
d. hormones
catalysts
in which of the following directions is DNA read?
a. left to right
b. top to bottom
c. 5’ to 3’
d. 3’ to 5’
3’ to 5’
a segment of DNA that encodes for a particular protein is known as a(n) ________.
a. gene
b. codon
c. intron
d. chromatid
gene
a chromosome is a collection of ________.
a. chromatids
b. proteins
c. histones
d. genes
genes
Mendel’s first Law, the Law of Segregation, refers to the inheritance of a single trait and can be predicted using a(n) ________ cross.
a. monohybrid
b. dihybrid
c. unihybrid
d. polyhybrid
monohybrid
phenotype refers to ________.
a. pattern of alleles
b. physical appearance
c. gene arrangement
d. dominant
physical appearance
having 2 recessive alleles would be called ________.
a. heterozygous recessive
b. heterozygous dominant
c. homozygous recessive
d. homozygous dominant
homozygous recessive
a Tt pea plant is crossed to a Tt plant. what is the expected ratio of phenotypes for offspring from the cross?
a. 3 tall: 1 dwarf
b. 1 tall: 1 dwarf
c. 1 tall: 3 dwarf
d. 2 tall: 1 dwarf
3 tall; 1 dwarf
a cross is made between a pea plant that is RrYy and one the is rrYy. what is the predictive outcome of the seed phenotypes?
a. 9 round, yellow: 3 round, green: 3 wrinkled, yellow: 1 wrinkled, green
b. 3 round, yellow: 3 round, green: 1 wrinkled, yellow: 1 wrinkled, green
c. 3 round, yellow: 1 round, green, 3 wrinkled, yellow: 1 wrinkled, green
d. 1 round, yellow: 1 round, green: 1 wrinkled, yellow: 1 wrinkled, green
3 round, yellow: 1 round, green, 3 wrinkled, yellow: 1 wrinkled, green
the F2 phenotypes of a dihybrid cross show a repeated outcome of 9:3:4 dominant to recessive phenotypes across several experiments. this ration should be considered which of the following?
a. expected monohybrid ratio
b. expected dihybrid ratio
c. non-inheritable trait being observed
d. non-Mendelian ratio being observed
non-Mendelian ration being observed
non-Mendelian inheritance includes which of the following?
a. multiple alleles
b. co-dominance
c. dominance-recessive relation between 2 alleles
d. A and B
e. all of the above
A and B
the nucleus of an atom contains which of the following?
a. protons
b. neutrons
c. electrons
d. A and B
e. all of the above
A and B
neutrons have a ________ charge.
a. positive
b. negative
c. neutral
d. variable
neutral
the numbers of neutrons in different atoms of the same element can vary, and these atoms are called ________.
a. epitopes
b. isotopes
c. cations
d. anions
isotopes
the atomic number of an atom refers to the number of _________.
a. proton
b. electrons
c. neutrons
d. all of the above
proton
the valence of an atom is the ________.
a. first orbital of electrons
b. last orbital of electrons
c. first orbital of protons
d. last orbital of protons
last orbital of electrons
an ion that is positively charged is called a(n) ________.
a. cation
b. anion
c. isotope
d. positope
cation
a chemical bond in which electron pairs are shared between atoms is called a(n) ________ bond.
a. ionic
b. covalent
c. hydrogen
d. peptide
covalent
ionic bonds form between cations and ________.
a. isotopes
b. protons
c. anions
d. neutrons
anions
the fundamental constituent of matter that retains the properties of an element is called the ________.
a. mass
b. valence
c. atom
d. energy
mass
the passive movement of substances from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration is known as ________.
a. facilitated diffusion
b. osmosis
c. diffusion
d. evaporation
diffusion
density is defined as the amount of ________ per volume.
a. energy
b. mass
c. gravity
d. polarity
mass
which of the following phase changes requires the addition of heat?
a. freezing
b. condensation
c. melting
d. deposition
melting
the temperature at which the liquid and gas phases of a substance have the same density is known as the ________.
a. boiling point
b. sublimation point
c. phase point
d. critical point
critical point
the transition of liquid to gas is called ________.
a. boiling
b. evaporation
c. condensation
d. sublimation
evaporation
which of the following states of matter has the lowest molecular motion?
a. solid
b. liquid
c. gas
d. colloid
solid
a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without undergoing permanent chemical change is known as a(n) ________.
a. metal
b. acid
c. base
d. catalyst
catalyst
a molecule which contains both carbon and hydrogen is known as a(n) ________ molecule.
a. organic
b. inorganic
c. salt
d. amine
organic
an acid disassociates into free ________ molecules in solution.
a. hydrogen
b. hydroxyl
c. phosphate
d. carbon
hydrogen
which of the following substances contains an ionic bond?
a. CO
b. NO2
c. SO4
d. NaCI
NaCl
Which of the following compounds is organic?
a. H20
b. H2CO4
c. CO2
d. C6H12O6
C6H12O6
a chemical compound that is formed from the reaction of an acid with a base forming a cation is called a(n) ________.
a. metal
b. buffer
c. enzyme
d. salt
salt
the reactants in a chemical reaction are found on what side of the arrow?
a. left
b. right
c. both sides
left
what is the metric unit used to measure volume?
a. meter
b. liter
c. gram
liter
what does the prefix milli mean?
a. 1000
b. 100
c. 0.01
d. 0.001
d. 0.001
one kilometer contains ____ meters
a. 10
b. 100
c. 1000
d. 10000
1000
how many liters are in 1 centiliter?
a. 10
b. 0.1
c. 0.01
d. 0.001
0.01
10 decagrams are ________ kilograms?
a. 10
b. 0.1
c. 0.01
d. 0.001
0.1
which of the following is the term used to describe a specific experimental condition that is changed to measure its effect?
a. data
b. variable
c. control
d. bias
variable
data measured based on observation and experimentation is called ________ data.
a. empirical
b. bias
c. physical
empirical
which of the following is most appropriate for measuring the weight of an adult?
a. grams
b. kilograms
c. milligrams
d. micrograms
kilograms
which of the following is the most appropriate for measuring the volume of a swimming pool?
a. centiliters
b. liters
c. kiloliters
d. nanoliters
kiloliters
which of the following can lead to emphysema, which is a severe respiratory problem?
a. high salt diet
b. alcohol consumption
c. smoking cigarettes
d. sleep deprivation
smoking cigarettes
the element that makes something happen is called the ____.
a. cause
b. effect
c. sequence
d. nominal
cause
an educated guess that serves as a starting point for further testing is called the ________.
a. variable
b. control
c. hypotheis
d. theory
hypothesis
the variable measured in an experiment as a possible effect is called the ________ variable.
a. dependent
b. independent
c. control
d. review
dependent
a researcher wants to test the hypothesis that soy based diets are superior to whole wheat based diets for reproduction in mice. which of the following describes how the researcher should test this hypothesis?
a. record the number of pups born from a single mouse on soy diet vs. the number of pups born from a single mouse on whole wheat diet
b. count the pups born from 10 separate mice reared on soy vs. a single mouse on whole wheat
c. compare the pups born from 10 mice on soy diet vs. 10 mice on whole wheat diet
d. record the pups from 1 mouse on soy diet vs. 10 mice on whole wheat diet
compare the pups born from 10 mice on soy diet vs. 10 mice on whole wheat diet
a negative control is used in an experiment for what purpose?
a. a group where a response is expected
b. a group where no response is expected
c. a group to detect bias
a group where no response is expected
when 2 closely related bacteria are placed in a culture in the same initial numbers, bacterium A increased in numbers while bacterium B declined in numbers. the growth difference in the numbers most likely indicates that the energy consumption efficiency of bacterium A is ________ bacterium B.
a. less than
b. less variable than
c. greater than
d. more variable than
greater than
a researcher collects data on subjects in an experiment over the course of 1 month. every day at 10:00 am, every subject takes 3 pills (A, B, C) to help lose weight. the following data are collected:
client # initial wt. (lbs.) final wt. (lbs)
1 250 245
2 275 195
3 322 250
4 377 200
a. pill A is effective in weight loss
b. weight went down for all subjects
c. the pill regimen is effective for the subjects
d. 10:00 am is the correct time to take pills for weight loss
weight went down for all subjects
(page 31 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- This passage is primarily about
A. Methods of estimating unemployment rates in the 1930s
B. The effect of unemployment on United States families
C. President Franklin D. Roosevelt’s presidency
D. The creation of President Roosevelt’s FERA program
(page 31 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- Which of the following is a logical conclusion of the passage?
A. The FERA program helped some people during the Great Depression.
B. The FERA program was not managed well.
C. President Roosevelt did not care about people.
D. The FERA system was unpopular.
(page 31 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- Which of the following is the purpose of this selection?
A. Entertain
B. Inform
C. Persuade
D. Compare/Contrast
(page 32 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- Which of the following is an example of a FERA program benefit.
A. It helped President Roosevelt get re-elected.
B. It helped Harry Hopkins become a well-known person.
C. It helped feed people and provide emergency rent.
D. It helped people get a college education.
(page 32 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- The quotation from De Quincey indicates that the memory
A. always operates at peak efficiency
B. breaks down under great strain
C. improves if it is used often
D. becomes unreliable if it tires
(page 32 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- What are the process steps (in order) De Quincey recommends to help people remember names?
A. Say you will remember, hear the name, same you will listen carefully, repeat the name.
B. Say you will listen carefully, hear the name, repeat the name, say you will remember it.
C. Hear the name, say you will remember it, say you will listen, repeat the name.
D. Repeat the name, hear the name, say the name, say you will listen.
(page 32 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- The passage suggests that people remember names best when they
A. meet new people
B. are intelligent
C. decide to do so
D. are interested in people
(page 33 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- We can conclude from the information in this passage that
A. Women today are highly successful in winning equal rights.
B. Only pioneer women have been considered equal to men.
C. Historically, women have only achieved equality through force.
D. Historically, the principle of equality alone has not been enough to secure women equal rights.
(page 33 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- The purpose of the passage is to present
A. a personal observation
B. a solution to a problem
C. factual information
D. an opinion
(page 34 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- According to the passage, what is the first step in the scientific process?
A. Gather information
B. Form a hypothesis
C. Repeat
D. Ask questions, make observations
(passage 34 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- The sentences in parenthesis within the passage are
A. Examples to explain
B. Things to avoid during the process
C. Summaries of the previous statement
D. Opinions about the previous statement
(page 35 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- The passage uses the following mode of development:
A. Comparison and Contrast
B. Cause and Effect
C. Narration and Classification
D. Definition and Process
(page 35 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- How are the two sentences related?
A. They contradict each other.
B. They present problems and solutions.
C. They establish a contrast.
D. They repeat the same idea.
(page 35 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- What does the second sentence do?
A. It makes a contrast.
B. It restates an idea found in the first.
C. It states an effect.
D. It gives an example.
(page 35 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- How do the two sentences relate?
A. They express roughly the same idea.
B. They contradict each other.
C. They present problems and solutions.
D. They establish a contrast.
(page 36 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- Which words best describe the author’s attitude toward the “edible insect initiative”?
A. awe and amazement
B. interest and support
C. disgust and distaste
D. fear and apprehension
(page 36 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- Which of the following statements best supports the argument in this paragraph?
A. Bugs require a fraction of the water and land space that cows need.
B. Fried crickets taste wonderful.
C. Americans eat too much beef.
D. You should consider expanding your diet to include eating tarantulas.
(page 37 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- Morse left the art world and helped to invent the telegraph because he
A. was tired of painting
B. wanted to communicate with people far away
C. loved his wife
D. was fascinated by science
(page 37 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- Using Morse Code, select the answer below that spells “Help”.
A. . -. – –..
B. …. .- - ..-
C. …. . .-.. .–.
D. … — ..-. .–
(page 38 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- Which of the following best captures the author’s main purpose?
A. To convince readers that the state budget cuts are a bad idea.
B. To inform readers that out-of-state travel will require approval.
C. To ask for ideas about how to cut expenses.
D. To alert readers that budget cuts are being implemented for the current and following year.
(page 38 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- The tone of the memo can best be described as
A. Serious
B. Mocking
C. Comedic
D. Ironic
- Joanna gave an especially ‘lucid’ argument to support her request for a raise.
A. hurried
B. foolish
C. strong
D. clear
- ‘Photography’, when literally translated, means ___________.
A. light writing
B. recording on film
C. a realistic drawing
D. artistic interpretation
- The two nations began ‘bilateral’ talks, hoping to make a peace treaty between them.
A. one-sided
B. between two sides
C. mediated
D. emergency
- The lawyer asked for a ‘transcript’ of a court case to review what had been said during the trial.
A. court order
B. audio recording
C. written copy
D. video recording
- The geysers in Yellowstone National Park are ‘geothermal’.
A. heated from a distance
B. very high
C. contain hot water
D. heated from deep inside the earth
(page 39 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- Which statement below expresses the implied main idea of this passage?
A. There are benefits to non-traditional job schedules.
B. Working conditions are much different from those of a generation ago.
C. An increasing number of workers are choosing part-time employment
D. Some people prefer working at home.
(page 39 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- The word “flextime” means
A. Working a part-time job.
B. Choosing when to arrive and leave work as long as the hours are met.
C. Working from home.
D. Sharing a job with another person.
(page 40 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- Which of the following is the main idea in this passage?
A. People who are weight-conscious will have pleasing figures.
B. Both fat and thin people should lose weight.
C. Advertisers are encouraging our weight consciousness.
D. Beware of false advertising.
(page 40 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- Which word from the passage has a negative connotation?
A. thin
B. writers
C. model
D. dictators
(chart page 41)
31. Which of the occupations
commands the highest salary?
A. Veterinary assistants
B. Veterinarians
C. Nonfarm animal caretakers
D. Pet Store Owners
(chart page 41)
32. This information from the U.S.
Census Bureau is an example of what
type of source information?
A. A research study
B. A secondary source
C. A primary source (survey)
D. A primary source (focus group)
(chart page 41)
33. The chart uses all of the following text features, EXCEPT
A. images
B. table of contents
C. text color
D. headings and sub-headings
(page 42 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- Which of the following statements
is accurate based on the timeline?
A. The Early Woodland Adena era
covered roughly 400 years.
B. The Archaic era began around
11,000 BC
C. The Paleoindians built conical
earthen mounds.
D. Rock art paintings began in the
Sahara in Africa around the same time
as the Archaic era for Native
Americans in Ohio
(page 42 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- The timeline is presented
according to which type of
organization plan.
A. Chronological order
B. Spatial order
C. Emphatic order
D. Parallel order
(page 42 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- During the Archaic period, Ohio Native Americans gathered and processed food by all of the methods
below, EXCEPT
A. Growing their own plants
B. Hunting and fishing
C. Using pottery to store and cook food
D. Moving to different location
(page 43 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- The passage suggests that the wheel is an important invention because it
A. is one of the world’s oldest inventions
B. forms the basis of so many later inventions
C. can be traced to many ancient cultures
D. is one the world’s most famous inventions
(page 43 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- Which of the following best describes the mode of this passage?
A. Expository
B. Descriptive
C. Persuasive
D. Narrative
(page 43 questions https://libguides.sinclair.edu/ld.php?content_id=42437124 )
- The passage implies that Franzen’s criticism of the Oprah Book Club was motivated primarily by
A. pride
B. anger
C. insensitivity
D. ignorance
