Teach Me ObGyn Flashcards

1
Q

When is a baby defined as small for gestational age (SGA)?

A

an infant with a birth weight <10th centile for its gestational age
Severe SGA – a birth weight < 3rd centile

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2
Q

What is fetal growth restriction?

A

when a pathological process has restricted genetic growth potential

can present with features of fetal compromise including reduced liquor volume (LV) or abnormal doppler studies

likelihood of FGR is higher in a severe SGA fetus.

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3
Q

What is classed as a low birth weight?

A

an infant with a birth weight <2500g

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4
Q

What can cause a baby to be SGA?

A

Normal (Constitutionally) Small:
ethnicity, sex, and parental height may contribute

Placenta Mediated Growth Restriction
(conditions that affect the transfer of nutrients across the placenta):
Pre-eclampsia, maternal smoking /alcohol, anaemia, malnutrition, infection

Non-Placenta Mediated Growth Restriction:
Growth is affected by fetal factors such as a chromosomal or structural anomaly, an error in metabolism or fetal infection

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5
Q

What may suggest a constitutionally small v growth restricted baby on investigation?

A

The ratio of head circumference (HC) and AC:
a symmetrically small fetus is more likely to be constitutionally small whilst an asymmetrically small fetus is more likely to be caused by placental insufficiency

Placental insufficiency can result in impaired fetal kidney function which will result in reduced amniotic fluid volume

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6
Q

Short term complications of fetal growth restriction?

A

Fetal death or stillbirth
Birth asphyxia
Neonatal hypothermia
Neonatal hypoglycaemia

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7
Q

Risk factors for SGA?

A

Previous SGA baby
Smoking
Older mother (over 35 years)
Obesity, Diabetes
Existing hypertension , Pre-eclampsia
Multiple pregnancy
Low pregnancy‑associated plasma protein‑A (PAPPA)
Antepartum haemorrhage
Antiphospholipid syndrome

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8
Q

What can be used for surveillance of SGA?

A

Women are booked for serial growth scans with umbilical artery doppler if they have:

Three or more minor risk factors
One or more major risk factors
Issues with measuring the symphysis fundal height (e.g. large fibroids or BMI > 35)

If UAD is normal induction can be offered at 37 weeks

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9
Q

List some complications of SGA

A

stillbirth, birth asphyxia, hypothermia, obesity and cancer

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10
Q

When is a baby defined as large for gestational age (LGA)?

A

an estimated fetal weight above the 90th centile during pregnancy is considered large for gestational age

OR when the weight of the newborn is more than 4.5kg at birth

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11
Q

What can cause macrosomia?

A

Constitutional, Male baby, Overdue
Previous macrosomia
Maternal diabetes
Maternal obesity or rapid weight gain

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12
Q

What are the risks of macrosomia to the mother ?

A

Shoulder dystocia
Failure to progress
Perineal tears
Instrumental delivery or caesarean
Postpartum haemorrhage
Uterine rupture (rare)

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13
Q

What are the risks of macrosomia to the baby ?

A

Birth injury (Erbs palsy, clavicular fracture, fetal distress and hypoxia)
Neonatal hypoglycaemia
Obesity in childhood and later life
Type 2 diabetes in adulthood

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14
Q

How should an LGA baby be investigated?

A

Ultrasound to exclude polyhydramnios and estimate the fetal weight
Oral glucose tolerance test for gestational diabetes

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15
Q

How can risk be reduced when delivering an LGA baby?

A

Delivery on a consultant lead unit
Delivery by an experienced midwife or obstetrician
Access to an obstetrician and theatre if required
Active management of the third stage (delivery of the placenta)
Early decision for caesarean section if required
Paediatrician attending the birth

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16
Q

In Rhesus D negative women, the administration of anti-D immunoglobulin should be considered following any sensitising event:

A

Invasive obstetric testing (e.g amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling)
Antepartum haemorrhage (APH)
Ectopic pregnancy
ECV
Fall or abdominal trauma
Intrauterine death, miscarriage, termination of pregnancy
Delivery

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17
Q

There are two main blood tests that should be considered following a rhesus sensitising event:

A

Maternal blood group and antibody screen – determines ABO and RhD blood groups, and detects any antibodies directed against RBC surface antigens

Feto-maternal haemorrhage test (Kleihauer test) - assesses how much fetal blood has entered the maternal circulation. If there has been a sensitising event after 20 weeks gestation, this test is used to determine how much anti-D immunoglobulin should be administered

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18
Q

The WHO classify prematurity as:

A

Under 28 weeks: extreme preterm
28 – 32 weeks: very preterm
32 – 37 weeks: moderate to late preterm

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19
Q

In women with a history of preterm birth (or an USS demonstrating a cervical length < 25mm before 24 weeks) there are two options of trying to delay birth:

A

Prophylactic vaginal progesterone: putting a progesterone suppository in the vagina to discourage labour
Prophylactic cervical cerclage: putting a suture in the cervix to hold it closed

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20
Q

Where preterm labour is suspected or confirmed there are several options for improving the outcomes:

A

Tocolysis with nifedipine: nifedipine is a CCB that suppresses labour

Maternal corticosteroids: can be offered before 35 weeks gestation to reduce neonatal morbidity and mortality

IV Magnesium sulphate: can be offered before 34 weeks gestation and helps protect the baby’s brain

Delayed cord clamping or cord milking: can increase the circulating blood volume and haemoglobin in the baby

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21
Q

Define post-term and post-dates pregnancy

A

Post-term pregnancy refers to a pregnancy extending past 42 weeks gestation (term refers to the 37-42 week gestation period)

Post-dates pregnancy refers to a pregnancy extending past the estimated delivery date (EDD), also known as due date at 40 weeks gestation.

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22
Q

Risk factors for prolonged pregnancy?

A

Nulliparity
Maternal age >40
Previous prolonged pregnancy / fam hx
High BMI

23
Q

Complications of prolonged pregnancy?

A

increased risk of stillbirth

increased potential for placental insufficiency = higher risk of fetal acidaemia and meconium aspiration in labour, and the need for instrumental or caesarean delivery

24
Q

Define fetal lie

A

the relationship between the long axis of the fetus and the mother.
Longitudinal, transverse or oblique

25
Q

Define fetal presentation
What is the most common presentation?

A

the fetal part that first enters the maternal pelvis

Cephalic vertex presentation is the most common and is considered the safest

Other presentations include breech, shoulder, face and brow

26
Q

Define fetal position

A

the position of the fetal head as it exits the birth canal.
Usually the fetal head engages in the occipito-anterior position (the fetal occiput facing anteriorly) – this is ideal for birth

27
Q

Define polyhydramnios

A

the presence of amniotic fluid >95th centile

28
Q

What can cause polyhydramnios?

A

Usually idiopathic

Macrosomia – larger babies produce more urine

Maternal diabetes – especially if poorly controlled

Maternal ingestion of lithium – leads to fetal diabetes insipidus

Any condition that prevents the fetus from swallowing – e.g. oesophageal atresia, muscular dystrophies, congenital diaphragmatic hernia

Duodenal atresia – ‘double bubble’ sign on ultrasound scan

Anaemia

Fetal hydrops

Genetic or chromosomal abnormalities

29
Q

What groups can secondary causes of headaches in pregnancy be split into?

A

Hypertensive
Vascular
SOL

30
Q

What can cause hypertensive headaches in pregnancy?

A

Pre-eclampsia and eclampsia:
worsening bilateral pulsatile headache, pain can be worse with exercise and doesn’t improve with mild analgesics, visual disturbance may be present, along with other signs of end organ damage or seizures

Posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome:
progressive headache, reduced consciousness, visual disturbance, seizures, vomiting and focal neurology

31
Q

Vascular causes of headaches in pregnancy?

A

Ischaemic stroke

Subarachnoid haemorrhage
- risk of SAH is around 20 times higher in the postnatal period compared to the general population

Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis

Reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome
- recurrent, sudden, severe headache starting in the first week postnatally

32
Q

Management of primary headaches in pregnancy?

A

Conservative – minimise triggers, physical activity, regular sleeping patterns, healthy diet, acupuncture, yoga

Analgesia – paracetamol is the safest option in pregnancy, with codeine and tramadol as second-line options

Prophylaxis – propranolol is first-line for migraine prevention with amitriptyline as an alternative

33
Q

How long should LMWH be given for in women with confirmed VTE in pregnancy?

A

anticoagulation should be maintained throughout the pregnancy, until 6-12 weeks post-partum. Women should be advised to omit their dose 24 hours before any planned induction of labour or caesarean section

34
Q

What are the pros and cons of VBAC (vaginal birth after C section) versus elective repeat C section?

A

VBAC has a shorter hospital stay and recovery
1 in 200 women experience scar rupture

35
Q

How should a VBAC be managed?

A

hospital setting with facilities for emergency caesarean
Continuous CTG monitoring.
beware that additional analgesic requirements during the labour may indicate impeding uterine rupture
Avoid induction where possible
Be cautious with augmentation (increased risk of uterine scar rupture)
After 39 weeks an elective repeat caesarean is recommended delivery method.

36
Q

Contraindications to VBAC?

A

Absolute – classical caesarean scar, previous uterine rupture and any other contraindications for vaginal birth that apply to the clinical scenario (for example placenta praevia)

Relative – complex uterine scars or >2 prior lower segment Caesarean sections

37
Q

Clinical features of shoulder dystocia?

A

Difficulty in delivery of the fetal head or chin

Failure of restitution – the fetal head remains in the occipital-anterior position after delivery by extension and therefore does not ‘turn to look to the side’

‘Turtle Neck‘ sign – the fetal head retracts slightly back into the pelvis, so that the neck is no longer visible, akin to a turtle retreated into its shell

38
Q

What are the key points of postpartum contraception to remember?

A

Women become fertile 21 days after delivery

Progesterone-only methods and the copper coil are all safe immediately after delivery and during breastfeeding

Women who are not breastfeeding should wait 3 weeks to start combined hormonal contraception, those who are breastfeeding should wait 6 weeks

Contraception is needed from 5 days of ectopic pregnancy management, miscarriage or abortion

39
Q

What is a Bartholin’s cyst?

A

a fluid-filled sac within one of the Bartholin’s glands of the vagina

the Bartholin’s glands are located deep to the posterior aspect of the labia majora (at 4 and 8 o’clock) and secrete mucus to lubricate the vagina

cysts can can cause vulvar pain (particularly when walking and sitting), and superficial dyspareunia

40
Q

How are Bartholin’s cysts managed?

A

Word Catheter or marsupialisation

41
Q

What is Lichen Sclerosus?

A

chronic inflammatory skin disease of the anogenital region in women

presents with white atrophic patches on the skin, itching

bimodal incidence, peaking in prepubescent girls and post-menopausal women

can progress to squamous cell carcinoma

42
Q

How should Lichen Sclerosus be managed?

A

immunosuppression

topical steroids, such as clobetasol propionate

43
Q

Give some tubal causes of infertility in women

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
Endometriosis
Previous sterilisation

44
Q

Give some uterine and peritoneal causes of infertility in women?

A

Endometriosis
Previous pelvic surgery (formation of adhesions, including intrauterine)
Uterine fibroids
Uterine anomalies
Cervical factors

45
Q

Investigations for a woman struggling with infertility?

A

Mid-luteal phase progesterone – to assess ovulation
Chlamydia screening
Testing for susceptibility to rubella
Serum progesterone in women with prolonged irregular menstrual cycles
Gonadotrophins in women with irregular menstrual cycles
Thyroid function tests if the symptoms are suggestive

46
Q

What tubal patency tests are available?

A

if no comorbid conditions:
Hysterosalpingography – screens for tubal occlusion

If comorbid conditions (including pelvic inflammatory disease and endometriosis):
Diagnostic laparoscopy and dye

47
Q

How do CMV infections present in pregnancy?

A

usually asymptomatic in immunocompetent individuals.

can occasionally produce a mild flu-like illness.

in some patients, it can cause a mononucleosis syndrome (similar to Epstein-Barr); resulting in fever, splenomegaly and impaired liver function.

48
Q

How can CMV in pregnancy be investigated and managed?

A

viral serology for CMV specific IgM and IgG is performed

Mx:
referred to a fetal medicine specialist
Fetal CMV infection can be diagnosed prenatally via amniocentesis and PCR
If fetal CMV infection is confirmed, there is no effective therapy, and termination of pregnancy can be offered. If the woman wishes to continue the pregnancy, serial ultrasound scanning should be performed to assess for manifestations of congenital CMV.

49
Q

Neonates born following an intrauterine CMV infection can have several problems:

A

Intrauterine growth restriction
Hepatosplenomegaly
Thrombocytopaenic purpura
Jaundice
Microencephaly
Chorioretinitis

50
Q

How can parvovirus B19 be investigated and managed in pregnancy?

A

Ix: viral serology can be performed:
Parvovirus specific IgM = recent infection
Parvovirus specific IgG = past infection and therefore immunity

The main risk of fetal parvovirus infection is fetal hydrops – the abnormal accumulation of fluid in two or more fetal compartments.

Mx is typically:
Serial ultrasound scans and Doppler assessment
Starting 4 weeks post infection or at 16 weeks.
Repeated every 1-2 weeks, until 30 weeks gestation.
If there is evidence of fetal hydrops on ultrasound, the patient should be referred to tertiary centre for intrauterine erythrocyte transfusion.

51
Q

How should rubella be investigated in pregnancy?

A

In women where rubella infection is suspected, ELISA can be performed to measure rubella specific IgG and IgM:

IgM antibody – present in acute infection.
IgG antibody – present following infection or vaccination.

52
Q

Congenital rubella syndrome describes the neonatal manifestation of infection with the rubella virus during pregnancy. What features may be present at birth?

A

Sensorineural deafness

Cardiac Defects:
Pulmonary Stenosis, Patent Ductus Arteriosus, Ventricular Septal Defect

Ophthalmic Defects:
Retinopathy, Congenital Cataracts

Central Nervous System Abnormalities:
Learning disabilities, Microencephaly

53
Q

What are the late onset features of congenital rubella syndrome?

A

Diabetes mellitus
Thyroiditis
Growth Hormone Abnormalities
Behavioural Disorders