TCOLE practice questions Flashcards

1
Q

A person commits an offense if the person operates, or owner permits, on a public highway a motor vehicle that has attached to it a number plate or registration issued for a different vehicle. An offense under this is a misdemeanor punishable by fine only not to exceed __________.

A

$200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The Penal Code states that a person commits “Arson” if they start a fire or cause an explosion with the intent to destroy or damage a __________, ___________, or ____________.

habitation, property, livestock

building, structure, property

habitation, building, vehicle

house, office, animal

A

habitation, building, vehicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A person rents a lawn mower from a rental agency for a period of 30 days. Forty-five days later the subject has still not returned the lawn mower as agreed in the contract. What offense, if any, did the subject commit?

Burglary

Theft

No offense has occurred

Theft of Service

A

Theft of Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A steady yellow light is

a. a warning alerting the operator to proceed cautiously
b. a warning to vehicular traffic that the related green movement is being terminated and that a red light will soon be exhibited
c. an indication that the operator must bring the vehicle to a full stop before entering the crosswalk on the near side of the intersection
d. a warning that the operator may not enter the intersection
e. none of the above

A

A warning to vehicular traffic that the related green movement is being terminated and that a red light will soon be exhibited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What Amendment gives rise to the reasonableness factor in determining the legality of a use of force? (17.4.2)
Select one:
a. 1st
b. 4th
c. 5th
d. 6th
e. 8th

A

b. 4th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

According to Sec. 46.01 of the Penal Code, the definition of a location restricted knife is a knife with a __________.
Select one:

a. blade over 5 inches
b. lock blade
c. blade 5 1/2 inches or over
d. blade over 5 1/2 inches

A

blade over 5 1/2 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A person commits an offense only if he __________ engages in conduct.
Select one:
a. responsibly
b. performs and
c. voluntarily
d. first

A

voluntarily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Holding a person for a person for a limited time, but who, as yet, is not answerable to a criminal offense defines: (7.1.8)
Select one:
a. Probable cause
b. Reasonable suspicion
c. Suspicion
d. Temporary Detention
e. An arrest

A

Temporary Detention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Documents that involve seizure of property or person or evictions may only be served by __________. (14)
Select one:

a. a Sheriff or Constable and their deputies
b. a Constable
c. a Sheriff
d. Attorneys
e. Any of the above

A

A Sheriff or Constable and their deputies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The width between the boundary lines of a publicly maintained way any part of which is open to the public for vehicular travel is a __________. (22)
Select one:

a. freeway
b. road
c. lane
d. highway
e. roadway

A

Highway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

__________ is a route of exposure to hazardous material by being cut or abraded by a contaminated object. (42)
Select one:

a. Inhalation
b. Absorption
c. Injection
d. Ingestion

A

Injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

According to the Transportation Code, a turn signal lamp mounted on the rear of a vehicle shaft shall emit __________ light. (22)
Select one:

a. red or amber
b. amber or yellow
c. red or yellow
d. red or white

A

Red or Amber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

According to Sec. 43.04 of the Penal Code, a person who knowingly manages a prostitution enterprise that uses two or more prostitutes would be charged with __________. (8)
Select one:

a. Promotion of prostitution
b. Aggravated promotion of prostitution
c. Prostitution
d. Compelling prostitution

A

Aggravated promotion of prostitution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

__________ and dump mean to discharge, deposit, inject, spill, leak, or place litter on or into land or water. (22)
Select one:

a. Litter
b. Trash
c. Drop
d. Dispose

A

Dispose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

This court has the power and authority to grant and issue and cause the issuance of writs of habeas corpus, and, in criminal law matters, the writs of mandamus, procedendo, prohibition, and certiorari. (7)
Select one:

a. Municipal Courts
b. Court of Criminal Appeals
c. Districts Courts
d. Civil Courts

A

Court of Criminal Appeals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is not an exception to the requirement for an arrest warrant? (10)
Select one:

a. Any offense reported by a credible citizen
b. Any offense occurring in the officer’s view
c. On the verbal order of a magistrate
d. On probable cause to believe a violation of a protective order has occurred

A

Any offense reported by a credible citizen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

According to Sec. 31.04 of the Penal Code, a person commits an offense if with intent to avoid payment he intentionally or knowingly secures performance of the service by deception, threat or false token. What is this offense? (8)
Select one:

a. Fraudulent Theft
b. Theft of Service
c. Theft by Extortion
d. Theft by Deception

A

Theft of Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In determining whether your actions were reasonable and not an intrusion into a citizens fourth amendment rights, the courts will judge by reference to the “Reasonableness Standard.” This standard will look at which of the following? (28)
Select one:

a. Individual facts and circumstances
b. Extent of the injuries
c. Whether the force was used to maintain or gain control or to harm
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Vehicle, engine, parking unit too close to scene, radio volume too loud, seat belts/pop the buckle are __________.
Select one:

a. Distractions
b. Telltale noises
c. Detractors
d. Interference

A

Telltale noises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

__________ means a person who claims an equitable or legal ownership interest in property. (11)
Select one:

a. Interest holder
b. Stake holder
c. Owner
d. Property owner

A

Owner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The seizure of persons or property so that they will come under the custody and control of the court; the process occurs by virtue of a writ, summons or other judicial order. This is the meaning of _________. (14)
Select one:

a. Rules of Civil Procedure
b. Pleadings
c. Default Judgment
d. Attachment

A

Attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

One of the effects that a hazardous material event has on the environment is __________. (42)
Select one:

a. expense to governmental entities
b. panic of the public
c. exposure to carcinogens
d. temporary damage to the water system

A

Temporary damage to the water system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

An adult who exposes his/her genitals, knowing that a 13-year old child is present, with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person, should be filed on for __________. (8)
Select one:

a. Sexual abuse of a child
b. Indecency with a child
c. Public Lewdness
d. Indecent Exposure

A

Indecency with a child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

FITT stands for Frequency, Intensity, Time and __________. (3)
Select one:

a. Tension
b. Track
c. Type
d. Treatment

A

Type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

__________ means one who does not retain a lawyer but, instead, appears on one’s own behalf in court. (9)
Select one:

a. Ad litem
b. Ex Parte
c. In Re
d. Pro Se

A

Pro Se

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The professional behavior with peace officers and others in the criminal justice system needs to come closer to “ideal” ethical behavior than may be possible in ____________. (1)
Select one:

a. Private Life
b. Real Life
c. Police Work
d. None of the above

A

Private Life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The acronym “CYMBAL” is not used for describing cars in detail.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a written statement that is filed and presented on behalf of the State of Texas by a district attorney that charges a person with an offense that may be prosecuted according to law is called a/an __________. (10)
Select one:

a. indictment
b. information
c. complaint
d. attachment

A

Information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

All requests for assistance must be channeled through the proper civil authority, to the __________ via the Texas Department of Public Safety. (36)
Select one:

a. Governor
b. State senate
c. President
d. Secretary of state

A

Governor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Unless revocation is required, the commission may suspend a license or certificate for violating any provision of the Texas Occupations Code, Chapter 1701 or commission rule. Select one:
True
False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If the person is alive but is incapable of refusal, a specimen may be taken by a authorized person. Select one:
True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A person driving a pickup truck backs up in a parking lot without first looking and collides into another vehicle worth $18,000 causing $1,000 worth of damage. What offense has occurred? (8)
Select one:

a. Reckless Damage or Destruction
b. Criminal Mischief - Misd. B
c. Criminal Mischief - Misd. A
d. Criminal Mischief - Felony
e. None of the above

A

Reckless Damage or Destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

__________ is an act or omission forbidden by law and punishable by a fine, imprisonment, or even death. (32)
Select one:

a. Crime
b. Misconduct
c. Atrocity
d. Felony

A

Crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The health-related components are more important to wellness and quality of life than are the skill-related components linked to __________ performance. (3)
Select one:

a. skill
b. motor
c. weight control
d. fitness

A

Motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A __________ is a substance with a chemical structure substantially similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II or Penalty Group 1, 1-A, 2, or 2-A. (15)
Select one:

a. Controlled substance
b. Controlled substance analogue
c. Monitored substance
d. Monitored materials

A

Controlled substance analogue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the part of a shotgun used to manually reciprocate the action? (41)
Select one:

a. Forearm
b. Pump
c. Handle
d. Front grip

A

Forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

__________ means the bona fide holder of a perfected lien or a perfected security interest in property. (11)
Select one:

a. Interest holder
b. Owner
c. Stake holder
d. Property owner

A

Interest Holder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does Ethology mean? (39)
Select one:

a. The study of canine aggression
b. The scientific and objective study of animal behavior
c. The study of alcoholic beverages
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

The study and objective study of animal behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with Licensing? (4)
Select one:

a. 211
b. 215
c. 217
d. 218

A

217

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with Administration? (4)
Select one:

a. 211
b. 215
c. 217
d. 218

A

211

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A juvenile may be taken into custody for which of the following reasons? (33)
Select one:

a. He is a known perpetrator of heinous crimes
b. His/her attitude towards the laws of the State and Municipalities are pursuant to the provisions of the Family Code
c. Pursuant to the laws of arrest of the Penal Code and probable cause that the child has engaged in delinquent conduct
d. The juvenile’s parents are aware of the child’s misconduct
e. A juvenile cannot be taken into custody

A

Pursuant to the laws of arrest of the Penal Code and probable cause that the child has engaged in delinquent conduct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which is an advantage of a rear approach to a suspect? (31)
Select one:

a. Observation of all movements
b. Suspect can be taken off balance
c. Element of surprise
d. Hyper alertness

A

Element of surprise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

__________ is believing something did not happen, or that it was no as bad as it actually was. (20)
Select one:

a. Ignorance
b. Shock
c. Disbelief
d. Denial

A

Denial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A juvenile can be finger printed regardless of age if arrested for a Class B misdemeanor offense or above for the purpose of __________. (33)
Select one:

a. immediate comparison with latent fingerprints
b. providing a complete report to the juvenile court
c. keeping up with juvenile offenders on a local basis
d. locating missing children

A

immediate comparison with latent fingerprints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The __________ Code is the statutory authority for the Commission to establish rules that law enforcement agencies and officers must follow. (4)
Select one:

a. Government
b. Penal
c. Occupations
d. Education

A

Occupations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

__________ involves person-to-person contact, good public/community relations, better mobility in crowded areas, visibility increases in a crowd. (35)
Select one:

a. Foot patrol
b. Automobile patrol
c. Mounted patrol
d. Motorcycle patrol

A

Mounted Patrol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

One does not need to present anything to the driver’s license office before the communication impediment notice is included on the license or card.

Answer:

a. True; If a person seems like they cannot hear, they can get a communication impediment notice on their license

b. True; They will perform a hearing test at the driver’s license office if one asks

c. False; One needs to have a note from a physician stating they are hard of hearing

d. False; One needs a written statement from a physician (form DL-101)

A

d. False; One needs a written statement from a physician (form DL-101)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A person commits an offense of Unlawfully Carrying a Weapon if he intentionally, knowingly or recklessly carries on or about his person a __________. (8)
Select one:

a. Firearm
b. Handgun
c. Knife
d. All the above

A

Handgun

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The six major categories of drugs does not include __________. (15)
Select one:

a. Stimulants
b. Hallucinogens
c. Dilutants
d. Narcotics

A

Dilutants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

__________ is a motor vehicle designed, used, or maintained primarily to transport property. (22)
Select one:

a. Truck
b. Bus
c. Tractor
d. Caravan

A

Truck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The watch/ward system of police worked well in Texas. (2)
Select one:
True
False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Violators receiving citations for speeding must be given a court date at least __________ days from the date of the offense. (22)
Select one:

a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10
e. 15

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the following is not considered marihuana? (15)
Select one:

a. The female plant
b. The seeds
c. The oil or cake made from the seeds of the plant
d. All of the above are considered marihuana

A

The oil or cake made from the seeds of the plant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Primitive people recognized few, if any, obligations to those outside his tribe. But modern man in his shrinking world must recognize his obligations to __________ in general. (1)
Select one:

a. Humanity
b. People
c. Citizens
d. Sergeants

A

Humanity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The data collected as a result of the reporting requirements of this article shall not constitute prima facie evidence of __________. (6)
Select one:

a. Unreasonable Force
b. Racial Profiling
c. Bias
d. Violent Crime

A

Racial Profiling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

__________ is the cap which holds down all the other areas in the wellness pyramid. (3)
Select one:

a. Self-responsibility
b. Weight control
c. Nutrition
d. Exercise

A

Self-responsibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

__________ is a defendant’s written reply to a plaintiff’s petition. (14)
Select one:

a. Return
b. Instanter
c. Answer
d. Judgment

A

Answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

A blood specimen must be taken __________. (23)
Select one:

a. at a police station
b. in a hospital
c. in a sanitary place
d. at the location of the stop

A

In a sanitary place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which of the following factors most generally contributes to the mental and emotional injury to a child and is punishable under P.C. 22.04? (8)
Select one:

a. punishment
b. act of abuse
c. omission or neglect
d. spanking

A

omission or neglect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When dealing with an explosive device, radios __________. (35)
Select one:

a. Should be turned off within 1000 ft of search area
b. Should be turned off within 500 ft of search area
c. Should be turned off within 100 ft of search area
d. Can be used to communicate with emergency services

A

Should be turned off within 500 ft of search area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Proactive anticipation, recognition, and appraisal of a crime risk and the action needed to remove or reduce that risk is crime __________. (35)
Select one:

a. prevention
b. reduction
c. recognition
d. prosecution

A

Prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which of the following crimes justifies the use of deadly force to prevent the “imminent commission” of the offense? (28)
Select one:

a. theft during the nighttime
b. criminal mischief during the nighttime
c. robbery
d. burglary
e. deadly force is justified in all of the above

A

Deadly force is justified in all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Who can arrest without warrant to prevent the consequences of theft? (10)
Select one:

a. Anybody
b. Only Peace Officers
c. Only Civilians
d. Only Magistrates
e. Only officers of the court

A

Anyone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What does “CYMBAL” stand for? (36)

Select one:

a. Color, year, model, body-style, and license
b. Car, year, model, body-style, and license
c. Color, year, model, body-style, and length
d. Car, year, model, body-style, and length

A

Color, year, model, body-style, and license

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

When someone is having a seizure, what do you not want to do to help them? (40)
Select one:

a. Hold the person
b. Place on floor or ground
c. Protect the person from embarrassment
d. Position head for drainage

A

Hold the person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

A person removes a $450 price tag from a retail item, replaces it with a $200 price tag and pays the lower price. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of __________. (8)
Select one:

a. fraudulent destruction, removal, or concealment of writing
b. misapplication of fiduciary property
c. false statement to obtain property or credit
d. securing execution of document by deception

A

fraudulent destruction, removal, or concealment of writing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Peter has been terminated from the Post Office. In anger, he calls and states that there is a letter bomb in the mail. This causes evacuation of the Post Office and the alert of the fire department and bomb squad. What offense has been committed? (8)
Select one:

a. Terroristic Threat
b. False Alarm or Report
c. Disorderly Conduct
d. Interference with Duties of Public Servants
e. Retaliation

A

Terroristic Threat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The range of the crisis reaction includes all of the following except __________. (20)
Select one:

a. shock
b. panic
c. control
d. guilt
e. hostility

A

Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Potential problems in conducting crime scene searches include all of the following except __________. (32)
Select one:

a. physical characteristics of the crime scene
b. potential hazards
c. physical condition of crime scene technicians
d. potential for recovery of evidence

A

Physical condition of crime scene technicians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

__________ means a substance, other than a device or a component, part, or accessory of a device recognized in the official united pharmacopoeia, official homeopathic pharmacopoeia of the states, official national formulary or a supplement to pharmacopoeia or the formulary. (15)
Select one:

a. Narcotic
b. Drug
c. Marijuana
d. Marihuana

A

Drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

A judge of this court must be an attorney. (7)
Select one:

a. Municipal
b. Constitutional County Court
c. Statutory County Court at Law
d. All judges must be attorneys
e.

A

Statutory County Court at Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

A couple is on a date at a party located on a public beach. The female becomes intoxicated and falls asleep. The female wakes up to discover her date performing oral sex on her. She is very upset and calls the police. What offense has occurred? (8)
Select one:

a. Public Lewdness
b. Assault - Contact
c. Sexual Assault
d. Aggravated Sexual Assault
e. None of the above

A

Sexual Assault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

If a person dies while in the custody of a peace officer, a written report of the cause of death must be filed with __________. (9)
Select one:

a. The medical examiner’s office
b. The justice of the peace in that precinct
c. The district attorney’s office
d. The attorney general’s office

A

The district attorney’s office

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Who has the authority to appoint Railroad Peace Officers? (9)
Select one:

a. Executive Director of TCOLE
b. Director of the Department of Public Safety
c. Owner of the railroad company employing the officers
d. Director of the Texas Railroad Association

A

Director of the Department of Public Safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

All law enforcement agencies are required to report cases of missing children under the age of __________ reported to their agency to the National Crime Information Center. (18)
Select one:

a. 14
b. 18
c. 21
d. 25

A

21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

A warm-up exercise program should last about __________. (3)
Select one:

a. 5 to 10 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 20 minutes
e. 30 minutes

A

5 to 10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

An individual or a corporation, association, limited liability company, or other entity or organization governed by the Business Organizations Code best describes __________. (8)
Select one:

a. Individual
b. Person
c. Actor
d. None of the above

A

Person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Physical balance is the position that allows you the ability to move while maintaining balance, strength and __________. (31)
Select one:

a. advantage
b. awareness
c. appropriate strategy
d. attitude

A

Advantage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

A person may not be prosecuted for or convicted of an offense (other than perjury, aggravated perjury, or traffic offenses) that he/she committed when __________. (8)
Select one:

a. younger than 18 years of age
b. younger than 17 years of age, unless juvenile court waives jurisdiction
c. younger than 18 years of age, unless juvenile court waives jurisdiction
d. younger than 15 years of age, unless juvenile court waives jurisdiction

A

Younger than 15 years of age, unless juvenile court waives jurisdiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The single most common factor in suicidal behavior or death by suicide is that the individual is experiencing __________. (29)
Select one:

a. Hallucinations
b. Depression
c. Substance abuse
d. Insanity

A

Depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

An officer responds to a call, finding a man shooting at other people. The officer is justified in using Deadly Force. However, when he returns fire, the officer recklessly kills an innocent third person. The officer may be filed on for __________. (8)
Select one:

a. Criminal Negligent Homicide
b. Manslaughter
c. Deadly Conduct
d. Murder
e. No Offense

A

Manslaughter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which of the following is an example of Weaponless Strategies? (31)
Select one:

a. Mace
b. Stun gun
c. Baton
d. Come along

A

Come along

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which of these is not a cartridge component? (41)
Select one:

a. Powder
b. Bullet
c. Wad
d. Case

A

Wad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

According to the Occupations Code, a person licensed as a peace officer must complete 40 hours of legislatively required continuing education training once every __________. (4)
Select one:

a. 12 months
b. 24 months
c. 36 months
d. 48 months

A

24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Which of the following is not an element of an offense? (8)
Select one:

a. Forbidden conduct
b. Required culpability
c. Effective consent
d. Any required result
e. Negation of any exception

A

Effective Consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

__________ means the kind of control which one person exercises over another, not to confine him within his certain limits, but to subject him to the general authority and of the person claiming such right. (10)
Select one:

a. Arrest
b. Constructive custody
c. Articuble suspicion
d. Restraint

A

Restraint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

According to CCP Art. 14.02, a peace officer may arrest, without warrant, when a felony or breach of the peace has been committed in the presence or within the view of a magistrate, and such magistrate __________ the arrest of the offender. (10)
Select one:

a. gives written orders for
b. physically makes
c. signs a warrant for
d. verbally orders

A

Verbally orders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Of the many requisites of an arrest warrant, which of those listed is not a requisite? (10)
Select one:

a. The date the warrant is issued.
b. The issuing magistrate’s signature.
c. The name of the person whose arrest is ordered, if it be known.
d. It must name the offense.

A

The date the warrant is issued

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Which of the following is not an “authorized emergency vehicle” in accordance with the Transportation Code? (22)
Select one:

a. Police vehicles

b. Private vehicles operated by volunteer fire fighters while answering a fire alarm

c. A vehicle operated by an employee of the blood bank transporting the daily supply of fresh blood to a local hospital under normal circumstances.

d. The operator of a vehicle owned by an eye bank while making an emergency delivery of eye tissue to the airport.
e.None of the above

A

A vehicle operated by an employee of the blood bank transporting the daily supply of fresh blood to a local hospital under normal circumstances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

PC 32.51 describes what category of theft? (8)
Select one:

a. Identity theft
b. Fraud
c. Blackmail
d. Extortion

A

Identity Theft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

When doing a physical search _______________. (31)
Select one:

a. Scan the suspect to search for weapons
b. Pay attention to every detail
c. Let your hands do the searching
d. None of these

A

Let your hands do the searching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

When considering your verbal communication skills, beware of __________, which states that your words and actions are contagious. (27)
Select one:

a. command presence
b. uniform presence
c. intellectual contagion
d. emotional contagion

A

Emotional contagion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the minimum number of rounds required for shotgun proficiency? (41)
Select one:

a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 50

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

All divorce degrees have the following statement in them that gives an officer limited authority to ask for the return of children when the person granted custody wants them returned and the other party has refused to do so. “Notice to any peace officer of the State of Texas: You may use __________ to enforce the terms of child custody specified in this order.” (14)
Select one:

a. reasonable force
b. necessary force
c. any amount of force
d. reasonable efforts

A

Reasonable efforts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

A driver may operate a vehicle on an improved shoulder to the right of the main traveled portion of the roadway __________. (22)
Select one:

a. to stop, stand or park

b. to accelerate prior to entering the main traveled portion of the roadway

c. to decelerate prior to making a right turn

d. at any time to avoid a collision

e. all of the above

A

all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

__________ is the altering of a vehicle’s identity by placing the serial number of a total loss car onto a stolen car. (32)
Select one:

a. Plate swap
b. VIN swap
c. Salvage switch
d. Totaled switch

A

Salvage switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Fitness is the condition of the body that enables an individual to use his/her body in activities requiring strength, muscular endurance, cardiovascular endurance, flexibility, coordination, agility, power, balance, speed, and accuracy, without __________. (3)
Select one:

a. undo experience of fatigue and exhaustion
b. loss of breath when chasing a fleeing suspect
c. stress related to job fatigue
d. being exhausted from overworking

A

Undo experience of fatigue and exhaustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

A person is observed in a crowded parking lot masturbating. What offense has occurred? (8)
Select one:

a. Homosexual Conduct
b. Disorderly Conduct - Exposure
c. Public Lewdness
d. Indecent Exposure
e. None of the above

A

Indecent Exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the minimum number of rounds required for handgun proficiency? (41)
Select one:

a. 100
b. 10
c. 50
d. 20

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

False beliefs not based on factual information is the definition of __________. (29)
Select one:

a. Psychosis
b. Borderline
c. Insanity
d. Delusional

A

Delusional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

You can frisk if there is __________ that the suspect may be in possession of a weapon. (10)
Select one:

a. reasonable fear
b. mere justification
c. reasonable evidence
d. mere suspicion

A

Reasonable Fear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

To drive any vehicle or combination of vehicles, with gross weight exceeding 26,001 lbs. and towed vehicle exceeding 10,000 lbs., requires a __________. (22)
Select one:

a. Class A CDL drivers license
b. Class B CDL drivers license
c. Class C drivers license
d. Class M drivers license
e. Class P CDL drivers license

A

Class A CDL drivers license

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Communication is __________. (25)
Select one:

a. a suggestion
b. the nonverbal intention
c. the transfer of meaning
d. mental pictures

A

The transfer of meaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Warning shots were discussed in which of the following court cases? (41)
Select one:

a. Tennessee v. Garner
b. Carroll v. US
c. Jones v. Wittenberg University
d. Florida v. Royer

A

Jones v. Wittenberg University

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

When encountering someone on the CSCAL list, an officer must immediately contact the Department of Family and Protective Services on the department’s dedicated law-enforcement telephone number for statewide intake. (19)
Select one:

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

A person makes some checks and uses one to purchase a pizza worth $15 delivered to his residence. What offense has occurred? (8)
Select one:

a. Theft
b. Theft by Check
c. Forgery
d. Issuance of Bad Check
e. None of the above

A

Forgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

There are four (4) main causes of abuse: (17)

Cultural
Sex role stereotypes
Lack of control
______________________
Select one:

a. Learned behavior
b. Aggression
c. History of abuse
d. Male supremacy

A

Learned behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

A person is visiting at a relative’s residence. The person notices a revolver worth $600 in a drawer in the end table in the living room. When the relative leaves the room for a moment, the person steals the revolver. What offense has occurred? (8)
Select one:

a. Theft - Misdemeanor
b. Theft - Firearm
c. Burglary - Building
d. Burglary - Habitation
e. None of the above

A

Theft - Firearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

__________ is a court approved method of delivering a court document to an uncooperative defendant. (14)
Select one:

a. Affidavit
b. Affidavit of Service
c. Alias Citation
d. Alternate Service

A

Alternate Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Only a person with a __________ or proprietary interest in the place to be searched may give consent. (10)
Select one:

a. Extreme
b. Possessory
c. Sudden
d. Well-known

A

Possessory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with School Marshals? (4)
Select one:

a. 227
b. 229
c. 218
d. 223

A

227

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

When conducting firearms training, a target should be used that __________. (41)
Select one:

a. Must be a rectangle
b. Is at least 3 foot X 4 foot
c. Is capable of being scored
d. Is obtuse

A

Is capable of being scored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

The federal statute dealing with identity theft is a part of which federal act? (12)
Select one:

a. Identity Theft and Assumption Deterrence Act
b. Credit Reporting and Abuse Act
c. Electronic Funds Transfer Act
d. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act

A

Identity Theft and Assumption Deterrence Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Insanity is __________. (29)
Select one:

a. An extreme foolishness or irrationality

b. A diminished capacity and inability to tell right from wrong

c. Condition that either substantially impacts a person’s thought, perception of reality, emotional process, or grossly impairs a person’s behavior

d. Behavior that shows a lack of good sense or judgement

A

A diminished capacity and inability to tell right from wrong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

The Central Nervous System is the command center while the Parasympathetic Nervous System is responsible for? (3)
Select one:

a. Fine motor skills, & higher thinking
b. Broad motor skills, & autonomic responses
c. Rest, digestion, & nutrients
d. Feelings, emotion, & creativity

A

Rest, digestion & nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Select all common types of police reports. (24)

Select one or more:

a. Arrest reports

b. Incident reports

c. Offense reports

d. Supplemental reports

A

Arrest reports, incident reports, offense reports, supplemental reports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

A person who falsely, fraudulently, or willfully permits another to violate this subtitle is guilty of the violation. (8)
Select one:

a. Inchoate offense
b. Immature acquisition
c. Premature acquisition
d. Inchoate infraction

A

Inchoate offense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

A person who attempts to commit or conspires to commit an act declared by this subtitle to be an offense is guilty of the offense. (8)
Select one:

a. Offense by officer
b. General offense
c. Offense by owner
d. Inchoate offense

A

Inchoate offense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is the minimum number of rounds required for fully automatic weapon proficiency? (41)
Select one:

a. 30
b. 50
c. 100
d. 25

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Which of the following public officials is not a magistrate? (7)
Select one:

a. Recorders of incorporated cities
b. District Attorneys
c. Justices of the Peace
d. Supreme Court justices

A

District Attorneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

There are varying definitions of professionalism. Its earliest meaning comes from __________. (1)
Select one:

a. Those professing the vows of religious order
b. An occupation which one professes to be skilled in
c. A vocation or occupation requiring advanced training
d. One who is engaged in one of the learned or skilled professions

A

Those professing the vows of religious order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

__________ includes an individual who is an unborn child, the failure to be born alive. (8)
Select one:

a. Life
b. Birth
c. Death
d. Fetus

A

Death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Of the following methods of searching, which one is considered most effective for outside searches? (32)
Select one:

a. strip
b. point to point
c. spiral
d. quadrant
e. exterior

A

Strip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

__________ is an offense so designated by law or punishable by fine, by confinement in jail, or by both fine and confinement in jail. (8)
Select one:

a. Misdemeanor
b. Felony
c. Burglary
d. Crime

A

Misdemeanor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Conduct merely affording a person the opportunity to commit an offense does not constitute entrapment. (8)

Select one:

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

__________ is the state or quality of mind or spirit that enables one to face danger with self-possession, confidence, and resolution, bravery and valor. (1)
Select one:

a. Courage
b. Respect
c. Moral Courage
d. Physical Courage

A

Courage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Substance abuse in itself __________ cause the violence. (17)
Select one:

a. Enhances
b. Incites
c. Creates
d. Does not

A

Does not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

The FTC provides law enforcement with an identity theft investigative cyber-tool called __________. (12)
Select one:

a. Internet Sentinel
b. Cyber Sentinel
c. Consumer Sentinel
d. Fraud Sentinel

A

Consumer Sentinel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Which of the following is not an objective of the Criminal Code of Procedure? (9)
Select one:

a. Insure a speedy trial.
b. Adopt measures to prevent crimes.
c. Arrest violators without warrant.
d. Remove all possibility of escape

A

Arrest violators without warrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Pursuant to rule 106 of the Texas Rules of the court a citation may be served __________. (14)
Select one:

a. In person
b. By certified mail
c. By publication
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Short rapid blasts are used to __________. (34)
Select one:

a. tell drivers to start
b. tell driver to stop
c. tell driver to yield
d. give a warning signal

A

Give a warning signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What does the E in LEAPS stand for? (29)
Select one:

a. Exit
b. Emerge
c. Empathize
d. Ease

A

Empathize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

The first rung on the use of force ladder is __________. (28)
Select one:

a. officer presence.
b. uniform presence.
c. police presence.
d. professional presence.

A

Professional presence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

__________ means a substance, including a drug, an adulterant, and a dilatant, listed in Schedules I through V or Penalty Group 1, 1-A, 2, 2-A, 3, or 4. The term includes the aggregate weight of any mixture, solution, or other substance containing a controlled substance. (15)
Select one:

a. Controlled substance analogue
b. Controlled substance
c. Monitored substance
d. Monitored materials

A

Controlled substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Some examples of moral courage include __________. Select all that apply. (1)
Select one or more:

a. Refusing gratuities
b. Participating in a cover up
c. Facing a barricaded suspect
d. Refusing to participate in ethnic or gender-based humor

A

Refusing gratuities
Refusing to participate in ethnic or gender-based humor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

A juvenile processing office may detain a child for not longer than __________ hours. (33)
Select one:

a.6
b.5
c.4
d.3

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

The three basic concepts of weaponless strategies are __________. Select all that apply. (31)
Select one or more:

a. Self-control
b. Balance
c. Awareness
d. Readiness

A

Self-control
Balance
Awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Which of the following may cause an offense of robbery to be upgraded to aggravated robbery? (8)
Select one:

a. threatens or places a 45 year old person in fear of imminent bodily injury or death

b. causes bodily injury to another

c. uses or exhibits a deadly weapon

d. implies that a weapon is in his pocket of a jacket, but never exhibits the weapon

e. both c & d

A

Uses or exhibits a deadly weapon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

A/an __________ has profit still as an underlying motive, but this type may be more interested in getting money for drugs. (32)
Select one:

a. Professional Thief

b. Robber

c. Unskilled Thief

d. Burglar

A

Unskilled Thief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Which of the following is considered a risk factor in the physical process of arrest? (31)
Select one:

a. Officer’s equipment

b. Supportive spectators

c. Weather conditions

d. V formation

A

Supportive spectators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

The major classifications of drugs include narcotics, depressants, stimulants and __________. (15)
Select one:

a. opiates
b. amphetamines
c. dilatants
d. hallucinogens

A

Hallucinogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

The condition of the body which enables an individual to use his/her body in activities requiring balance, speed and power, without undue fatigue or exhaustion best describes __________. (3)
Select one:

a. wellness
b. optimal well-being
c. dynamic strength
d. physical fitness
e. body composition

A

Physical fitness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

__________ means that cases are referred first to the court. (7)
Select one:

a. Appellate jurisdiction
b. Deferred adjudication
c. Original jurisdiction
d. Original court

A

Original Jurisdiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

A flashing red signal is __________. (22)
Select one:

a. a stop sign

b. a warning, or caution, signal alerting the operator to proceed with caution

c. not an official traffic control device in the state of Texas

d. none of the above

A

A stop sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

The portion of the law which has the purpose of preventing harm to society best defines __________. (7)
Select one:

a. Civil Law
b. Tort
c. Criminal Law
d. Correctional System
e. Court

A

Criminal Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Tegradol, lithium, Depakote control moodswings are are used as __________. (29)
Select one:

a. Antidepressants
b. Mood stabilizers
c. Anti-anxiety drugs
d. Anti-psychotics

A

Mood stabilizers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Which two courts are the only courts that have concurrent jurisdiction in some offenses? (7)
Select one:

a. County Courts and County Courts at Law
b. Municipal and Justice Courts
c. District and Criminal District Courts
d. Courts of Appeals and Court of Criminal Appeals

A

Municipal and Justice Courts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

A peace officer who is outside his/her territorial jurisdiction is authorized to make warrantless arrests for __________. (10)
Select one:

a. any offense which is committed within his/her presence or view, but he/she must, immediately after the arrest call the police

b. any offense which is committed within his/her presence or view

c. only felonies

d. any felony or a violation of any of the disorderly conduct statues committed within his/her presence or view, but then he/she shall call the local police immediately after the arrest

e. any criminal offense

A

any felony or a violation of any of the disorderly conduct statues committed within his/her presence or view, but then he/she shall call the local police immediately after the arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Which of the following is a traffic condition that affects safe vehicle operation? (34)
Select one:

a. Driver
b. Pedestrians
c. Road
d. Weather

A

Pedestrians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Which of the following would be classified as a Short Barrel Firearm? (8)
Select one:

a. Rifle with a 16 inch barrel
b. Shotgun with an 18 inch barrel
c. Shotgun with a 17 inch barrel
d. Shotgun or rifle with an overall length of 26 inches
e. Handgun with a 2 inch barrel

A

Shotgun with a 17 inch barrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

A person commits an offense if the person possesses an open container or consumes an alcoholic beverage on a public street, public alley, or public sidewalk within __________ feet of the property line of a facility that the person knows is a public or private school that provides all or any part of kindergarten through twelfth grade. (16)
Select one:

a. 100
b. 200
c. 500
d. 1000

A

1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

A peace officer’s duty in handling a family dispute is to __________. (17)
Select one:

a. give legal advice to parties
b. suggest solutions based on the officer’s personal experience at home
c. ensure that the disputants separate to avoid conflict
d. keep the peace and attempt to find a solution to the problem

A

Keep the peace and attempt to find a solution to the problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

__________ and poor ventilation increase the likelihood of being exposed while at a hazardous materials site. (42)
Select one:

a. Heat
b. Light
c. Rain
d. Ice

A

Heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Which of the following is a component of the Wellness Pyramid? (3)
Select one:

a. Strength
b. Dynamic Strength
c. Tobacco cessation
d. Flexibility
e. All of the above

A

Tobacco cessation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

__________ means a government or governmental subdivision or agency, trust, partnership, or two or more persons having a joint or common economic interest. (8)
Select one:

a. Crew
b. Group
c. Division
d. Association

A

Association

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

An operator of a motor vehicle shall allow __________ between themselves and the vehicle in front of them. (22)
Select one:

a. 15 feet
b. 25 feet
c. 50 feet
d. two car lengths
e. None of the above

A

None of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

According to the HSC 481.121, possession of Marihuana: A person commits an offense if the person intentionally or knowingly possesses a __________ quantity of marihuana. (15)
Select one:

a. Sizable
b. Measurable
c. Significant
d. Usable

A

Usable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Which of the following Texas courts has jurisdiction over all the misdemeanors involving official misconduct? (7)
Select one:

a. Court of Criminal Appeals
b. County Court
c. Justice Court
d. District Court
e. all of the above courts

A

District Court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Which of the following best describes the three major groups of hazards you must constantly guard against for safety reasons? (35)
Select one:

a. Congestion, miscellaneous police service, and accidents
b. Silhouetting, street inspections, and home inspections
c. Telltale noises, silhouetting, and suspects’ hands
d. Suspects’ hands, suspects’ vehicle, and doorways

A

Telltale noises, silhouetting, and suspects’ hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

In a work zone, __________ space where responders will be conducting various activities. (22)
Select one:

a. Activity area
b. Buffer space
c. Work area
d. Transition area

A

Work Area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

__________ has been given the legal power to act as a peace officer or reserve, whether elected, employed, or appointed. (4)
Select one:

a. Certified
b. Elected
c. Commissioned
d. Appointed

A

Commissioned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

A major depressive syndrome is defined as a depressed mood or loss of interest, of at least __________ duration, accompanied by associated symptoms, such as weight loss/gain and difficulty concentrating. (29)
Select one:

a. Fourteen days
b. One month
c. One week
d. 21 days

A

Fourteen days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Every aspect of human behavior is influenced by __________. (1)
Select one:

a. prejudice
b. personal values
c. effective innovations
d. ethical conduct

A

Personal values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

According to the FTC, Texas was __________ in the nation in the instances of identity fraud reported. (12)
Select one:

a. first
b. fifth
c. tenth
d. twentieth

A

Fifth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Among other requirements, each law enforcement agency in this state shall adopt a policy on racial profiling that requires __________. (6)
Select one:

a. reading a citizen the Miranda Warning if the citizen is not Anglo

b. public education relating to the agency’s complaint process

c. mandatory training for its officers about racial profiling

d. reporting the location of the contact with the citizen

A

Public education relating to the agency’s complaint process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

According to the Transportation Code, a __________ is the width between the boundary lines of a publicly maintained way, any part of which is open to the public for vehicular traffic. (22)
Select one:

a. freeway
b. highway or street
c. roadway
d. throughway

A

Highway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

According to the Health and Safety Code, __________ means a principal compound commonly used or produced primarily for use in the manufacture of a controlled substance. (15)
Select one:

a. immediate precursor
b. drug paraphernalia
c. counterfeit substance
d. raw material

A

Immediate precursor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

__________ includes authority, board, bureau, commission, committee, council, department, district, division, and office. (8)
Select one:

a. Company
b. Firm
c. Agency
d. Department

A

Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

The decision to write a traffic ticket should be__________. (35)
Select one:

a. made before the officer gets out of the patrol car
b. based on the violator’s attitude toward the traffic contact
c. made only after hearing the driver’s explanation
d. based on how courteous the driver is toward the officer
e. changed if the violator offers the officer a gratuity or reward for not writing a ticket

A

Made before the officer gets out of the patrol car

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Which of the following is an example of business record theft? (12)
Select one:

a. Taking patient files from a hospital
b. Obtaining credit information by posing as a landlord
c. Filling out a false change of address form
d. Stealing a bank statement from someone’s mailbox

A

Taking patient files from a hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Warrants of arrest extend to every part of the State, except for those warrants issued by __________. (9)
Select one:

a. Justices of a Justice Court.
b. Judges of a Municipal Court.
c. Judges of a Municipal Court of Record.
d. Mayors of an incorporated city or town.

A

Mayors of an incorporated city or town

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

De-escalation training is intended to provide responding officers less-lethal options for every type of encounter. (27)
Select one:
True
False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

An operator may not turn the vehicle to move in the opposite direction when approaching a curve or crest of a grade if the vehicle is not visible to the operator of another vehicle approaching from either direction within __________ feet. (22)
Select one:

a. 100
b. 300
c. 400
d. 500

A

500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Time must be devoted to exploring motives, possible omissions, and assessing the truth if __________. (1)
Select one:

a. You get just the facts
b. Justice is to be served
c. You are to file charges
d. All of the above

A

Justice is to be served

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

In a work zone, __________ moves traffic out of the path of the incident. (22)
Select one:

a. Activity area
b. Work space
c. Termination area
d. Transition area

A

Transition Area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

In a physical arrest, the police role is essentially __________. (31)
Select one:

a. offensive
b. defensive
c. obvious
d. aggressive

A

Defensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Of the nine categories of criminal homicide this category is marked by unusual violence and may follow rape, acts of sexual perversion, or sadistic acts. (32)
Select one:

a. Murder-suicide
b. Felony murder
c. Sex and sadism
d. Random killing

A

Sex and sadism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

High density urban/business structures cause siren sound __________. (34)
Select one:

a. Amplification
b. Deflection
c. Refraction
d. Reverberation

A

Deflection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

When foreign nationals from most countries are arrested or detained, they may, upon request, have their consular officers notified without delay of their arrest or detention, and may have their communications to their consular officers forwarded without delay. In addition, foreign nationals must be advised of this information without delay. (13)
Select one:
True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Which of the following is not a suggestion to more effectively communicate with drivers who are deaf or hard of hearing?
Answer

a. Face the person while speaking
b. Do not cover your mouth or chew gum
c. Use family members or children as interpreters
d. Write a note asking what communication mode is best for them and their situation

A

Use family members or children as interpreters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

The standard used to determine the guilt or innocence of a person criminally charged is __________. (32)
Select one:

a. reasonable doubt
b. probable cause
c. reasonable suspicion
d. shown cause

A

Reasonable doubt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

When a person has been arrested without warrant for family violence, and it is believed the violence will continue, the agency holding the person may hold the person for up to how many hours after he has posted bond? (17)
Select one:

a. 72
b. 48
c. 36
d. 24

A

48

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

You arrest a person who advised that they are a citizen of Japan. Which statement on the Consular Notification card do you read? (13)
Select one:

a. Statement 1 - For All Foreign Nationals Except Those from “Mandatory Notification” Countries

b. Statement 2 - For Foreign Nationals from “Mandatory Notification” Countries

A

Statement 1 - For all foreign nationals except those from “Mandatory Notification” Courtries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Whenever any person driving a vehicle approaches a railroad grade crossing, and signals indicate that a train is approaching, the driver shall __________. (22)
Select one:

a. stop not less than 15 feet from the crossing
b. stop more than 75 feet from the crossing
c. stop not less than 10 feet from the crossing
d. slow down, and then proceed to beat the train
e. stop within a safe distance from the train

A

Stop not less than 15 feet from the crossing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

How many officers have been killed by a dog over the past 50 years? (39)
Select one:

a. 2
b. 10
c. 0
d. 100

A

0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Article 1 of the Constitution __________. (7)
Select one:

a. Establishment of the U.S. Supreme Court
b. Establishes and sets jurisdiction to of the president and vice president
c. Establishes legislative powers to congress
d. Establishes all Circuit Courts

A

Establishes legislature powers to congress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with Texas Peace Officers’ Memorial Monument? (4)
Select one:

a.227
b.229
c.218
d.223

A

229

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

If the person is 21 years of age or older and submits to the taking of a specimen designated by the officer and an analysis of the specimen shows the person had an alcohol concentration of a level specified by Chapter 49, Penal Code, the person’s license to operate a motor vehicle will be automatically suspended for not less than __________ days, whether or not the person is subsequently prosecuted as a result of the arrest. (23)
Select one:

a. 120
b. 90
c. 85
d. 150

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Peace officers are granted the authority to use force by the Texas __________. (28)
Select one:

a. Occupations Code
b. Constitution
c. Code of Criminal Procedure
d. Penal Code

A

Penal Code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Ethnicity refers to shared culture and __________. Members of an ethnic group usually have common ancestry and generally share language, religion, and other cultural patterns. (5)
Select one:

a. History
b. Family
c. Background
d. Values

A

Background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

American policing went through a reform era marked by the contributions of such men as __________, whose goal was to bring professionalism to the police. (2)
Select one:

a. J. Edgar Hoover
b. Sir Robert Peel
c. August Vollmer
d. Jordan Peele

A

Sir Robert Peel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, whenever a peace officer meets with resistance in discharging any duty imposed on him by law, he __________ summon a sufficient number of citizens of his county to overcome the resistance; and all persons summoned are bound to obey. (35)
Select one:

a. may
b. shall
c. can
d. will

A

Shall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

A complaint is not required to __________. (10)
Select one:

a. be signed by a magistrate
b. be signed by the Affiant
c. allege an offense
d. name the accused

A

Be signed by the Affiant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

A complaint is not required to __________. (10)
Select one:

a. be signed by a magistrate
b. be signed by the Affiant
c. allege an offense
d. name the accused

A

Be signed by a magistrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

A person is told that he is under arrest for an outstanding traffic warrant. When the police officer attempts secure the person using handcuffs, the person wrestles with the police officer and tells the officer he is not going to jail. What offense has occurred? (8) Select one:

a. Retaliation
b. Obstruction
c. Resisting Arrest, Search, or Transport
d. Evading Arrest or Detention
e. None of the above

A

Resisting Arrest or Detention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

An officer may use a greater degree of requisite force to suppress a riot quickly. (9)
Select one:
True
False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

According to Sec. 43.05 of the Penal Code, if a man causes a 16-year-old girl to commit prostitution, what offense has he committed? (8)
Select one:

a. Promotion of prostitution
b. Aggravated promotion of prostitution
c. Prostitution
d. Compelling prostitution

A

Compelling prostitution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

In a civil action the process begins with __________. (14)
Select one:

a. The filing of papers with the court
b. The arrest of the defendant
c. Defendant’s act with precipitated legal action
d. The service of citation
e. The motion of plaintiff

A

The service of citation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

There are ______ Principles of Procedural Justice. (1)
Select one:

a. 2
b. 6
c. 4
d. 8

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

In a work zone, __________ provides protection for victims and responders. (22)
Select one:

a. Activity area
b. Buffer space
c. Work area
d. Transition area

A

Buffer space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

According to the TCOLE outline, what percentage of officer contacts require physical force? (28)
Select one:

a. 3%
b. 7%
c. 10%
d. 30%

A

3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Exposure via the mucous membranes, the eyes, and the skin (non-open wound) are examples of what kind of exposure? (42)
Select one:

a. Injection
b. Ingestion
c. Absorption
d. Inhalation

A

Absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

One consideration on whether or not to use a baton would be __________. (31)
Select one:

a. suspect is unarmed.
b. the physical stature of the suspect.
c. verbal provocation of suspect.
d. handcuffed subject.

A

The physical stature of the suspect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

As internet access has increased, the age of children with social media accounts has __________. (18)
Select one:

a. Remained the same
b. Drifted downward
c. Raised
d. None of the above

A

Drifted downward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

__________ means a person other than the actor. (8)
Select one:

a. Another
b. Addition
c. Attachment
d. Accomplice

A

Another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

If a peace officer is informed of a threat to do injury to a person or a person’s property, it is his duty to __________. (35)
Select one:

a. prevent the injury by any or all means

b. prevent the injury if within his power

c. call any number of the citizens of the county together and delegate the responsibility to them

d. he has no particular duty to act on information alone

e. report it to the magistrate

A

Prevent the injury if within his power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

The person has a right to a hearing on the suspension or denial if, not later than the __________ day after the date on which the person receives the notice of suspension or denial. (7)
Select one:

a. 15th
b. 17th
c. 23rd
d. 145th

A

15th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

An adverse judgement or opinion formed beforehand or without knowledge of or examination of the facts defines __________. (5)
Select one:

a. bias
b. prejudice
c. ethnocentrism
d. discrimination
e. Nazism

A

Prejudice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Which of the following is a technique of proper vehicle operation? (34)
Select one:

a. Seat and mirror adjustment
b. Interior check
c. Exterior check
d. Mechanical check

A

Seat and mirror adjustment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Which of the following is not an objective listed in Article 1.03 of the Code of Criminal Procedure? (9)
Select one:

a. Adopt measures for preventing the commission of crime
b. Exclude the offender from all hope of escape
c. Insure a fair and impartial trial
d. Arrest violators without warrant

A

Arrest violators without warrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Under Article 2.12, which of the following is a legally designated peace officer? (9)
Select one:

a. District Attorney
b. Officer of a water-control district
c. Probation officer
d. Parole officer

A

Officer of a water-control district

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

A victim of identity theft should __________. (12)
Select one:

a. contact the U.S. Postal Service
b. notify the FBI (Federal Bureau of Investigations)
c. notify their bank or financial institution
d. destroy their checks and credit cards

A

Notify their bank or financial institution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, an affidavit made before a magistrate charging the commission of an offense is called a/an __________. (10)
Select one:

a. warrant
b. complaint
c. information
d. capias

A

Complaint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

If a sixteen-year-old front-seat passenger is not wearing a safety belt, to whom should the traffic ticket be issued? (22)
Question 15Select one:

a. The operator
b. The passenger
c. Both the driver and the passenger
d. Neither the operator nor the passenger because this is not a violation

A

Both the driver and the passenger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

According to Sec. 218.9 Firearms Proficiency Requirements, each agency or entity that employs at least __________ peace officer shall require each peace officer that it employs to successfully complete the current firearms proficiency requirements at least once each year. (4)
Select one:

a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

A

One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

The keys to adequate nutrition are balance, variety, and __________. (3)
Select one:

a. Exercise
b. No alcohol
c. Vegetables
d. Moderation

A

Moderation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

The four parts of an arrest are __________. (10)
Select one:

a. authority, intent, custody, and force.

b. intent, knowledge, custody, and handcuffs.

c. authority, intent, actual seizure, and understanding of the individual being arrested.

d. custody, knowledge, intent, and a warrant.

A

Authority, intent, actual seizure, and understanding of the individual being arrest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

The Commission requires a minimum of __________ rounds for basic handgun qualification. (41)
Select one:

a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. 100

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

-Except as provided by Section __________, a specimen may not be taken if a person refuses to submit to the taking of a specimen designated by a peace officer. (23)
Select one:

a. 724.112(a)(a)
b. 831.251( c)
c. 724.012(b)
d. 111.135

A

724.012(b)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Supplements to handcuffs include __________. (31)
Select one:

a. tie, belt, shoelaces
b. string, chain, belt
c. chain, strips of cloth, plastic handcuffs
d. cording, belt, twine

A

Tie, belt, shoelaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

An ex-parte restraining order is __________. (17)
Select one:

a. a permanent injunction
b. an order to show cause
c. a temporary restraining order until a hearing is held
d. unconstitutional

A

A temporary restraining order until a hearing is held

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

An officer must show a willingness to listen, an understanding of the problem, an ability to empathize, and a non-judgmental attitude through __________. (27)
Select one:

a. Slowing down the situation
b. Communication
c. Body Language
d. All of these

A

Communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

According to the Penal Code, a person commits the offense of theft if they __________ appropriate property with intent to deprive the owner of the property. (8)
Select one:

a. willingly
b. intentionally
c. unlawfully
d. knowingly

A

Unlawfully

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

__________ is a facility used to switch or change voltage in connection with the transmission of electric energy for distribution to the public. (8)
Select one:

a. Tesla power station
b. Electric utility station
c. Waste utility substation
d. Electric utility substation

A

Electric utility substation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Art. 2.131. RACIAL PROFILING PROHIBITED states, “A peace officer __________ not engage in racial profiling.” (6)
Select one:

a. will
b. shall
c. may
d. should

A

may

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

A person is in the process of robbing a store when a customer enters and is shot and killed by the person. According to Penal Code, what is the most serious offense committed? (8)
Select one:

a. Criminal negligent homicide
b. Murder
c. Manslaughter
d. Capital murder

A

Capital Murder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

What is the purpose of a Writ of Habeas Corpus? (7)
Select one:

a. To find out what a person who has been arrested is being charged with

b. To gain the release of a person who has been arrested

c. To set bail on a person who has been arrested

d. To determine what evidence will be used against a defendant at this trial

e. To test the legality of the detention of a person who has been arrested

A

To test the legality of the detention of a person who has been arrested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Which of the following courts cannot grant a Writ of Habeas Corpus? (7)
Select one:

a. Court of Criminal Appeals
b. District Court
c. County Court
d. Justice Court

A

Justice Courts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

The shortest time limitation (statute of limitation) for felonies is how many years? (9)
Select one:

a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five

A

Three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

The following statement is taken from the CCP 11.21: “The words “confined”, “imprisoned”, “in custody”, “confinement”, “imprisonment”, refer not only to the actual, corporeal, and forcible detention of a person, but likewise to any coercive measure by threats, menaces or the fear of injury, whereby one person exercises a control over the person of another, and detains him within certain limits.” This statement best defines which of the following: (10)
Select one:

a. Arrest
b. Restraint
c. Constructive Custody
d. Temporary
e. Effective Control

A

Constructive Custody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

The central collection point for the Identity Theft Data Clearinghouse is maintained by what agency? (12)
Select one:

a. FTC (Federal Trade Commission)
b. U.S. Secret Service
c. FBI (Federal Bureau of Investigations)
d. Social Security Administration

A

FTC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

______ is anything reasonably regarded as loss, disadvantage, or injury, including harm to another person in whose welfare the person affected is interested. (8)
Select one:

a. Injury
b. Handicap
c. Harm
d. Mutilation

A

Harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

If it is necessary to verify a protective order before arresting an individual named in the injunction for a violation of the directive, the officer is required to __________. (17)
Select one:

a. remain at the scene of the investigation while verifying the allegation and prevent further commission of family violence.

b. return to the agency headquarters and obtain a copy of the protective order to show the restricted individual at the time of the arrest.

c. take the actor and victim to agency headquarters and compare the actor’s fingerprints against a file record before making an arrest.

d. call the magistrate who issued the order and verify the continued existence of a valid court order.

A

Remain at the scene of the investigation while verifying the allegation and prevent further commission of family violence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

The person(s) who has/have the authority to appoint Adjunct Police Officers is/are the __________. (9)
Select one:

a. sheriff or chief of police

b. Director of the Department of Public Safety

c. Executive Director of TCOLE

d. President of the institution of higher education

A

Sheriff or chief of police

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

The intensity of long-term stress reactions usually __________ over time, as does the frequency of the re-experience crisis.
Select one:

a. decreases

b. increases

c. remains the same

d. reduces by the square-root

A

Decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Physical fitness can be divided into two categories __________. (3)
Select one:

a. Health related; Wellness related

b. Health related; Motor related

c. Motor related; Physical related

d. Motor related; Skill related

A

Health related; Motor related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

__________ is an injury to any part of the human body and that requires treatment. (22)
Select one:

a. Personal injury
b. Bodily harm
c. Medical emergency
d. Wounding injury

A

Personal injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with Specialized Licenses? (4)
Select one:

a. 219
b. 221
c. 223
d. 225

A

225

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Methods used to prepare a crime scene sketch include all of the following except __________. (32)
Select one:

a. make a rough drawing on paper
b. the rough drawing must be to scale
c. use an arrow to show North
d. North should be oriented to the top of the sketch

A

The rough drawing must be to scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

What determines a canine’s home range? (39)
Select one:

a. Size, age, and behavior
b. Terrain, weather, and climate
c. Intelligence, breed, and athleticism
d. All of the above

A

Size, age and behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

Which one is a type of dog aggression? (39)
Select one:

a. Dominant aggression
b. Fear aggression
c. Pain aggression
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

A person threatens to beat up a woman sitting in a wheel chair if she does not give him her purse. The woman is afraid and hands over the purse and its contents with a total value of $250. The person flees without hurting the woman. What offense has occurred? (8)
Select one:

a. Theft
b. Theft from Person
c. Robbery
d. Aggravated Robbery
e. None of the above

A

Aggravated Robbery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

Which of the following is a prohibited weapon? (8)
Select one:

a. a knife with a 6 inch blade
b. a handgun
c. a club
d. chemical dispensing device

A

Chemical dispensing device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Which of the following indicate that words are no longer working as a force option? (28)
Select one:

a. Different ethical standards exist
b. Unreceptive to alternatives after repeated appeals.
c. No apparent long term solution
d. When profanity is directed at the office

A

Unreceptive to alternatives after repeated appeals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

Which of the following best describes the TCOLE L-3 form? (4)
Select one:

a. Appointment of PO, jailer, elected/appointed officials
b. Medical, drug screen information for a licensee
c. Report required psychiatric information for a licensee
d. Notify TCOLE of the separation / termination of a licensee

A

Report required psychiatric information for a licensee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

A defendant’s right to confront his witnesses may be waived if the witnesses __________. (7)
Select one:

a. cannot afford to travel to the trial location
b. were deposed (gave a deposition)
c. prove they could be in danger if they testify
d. know the defendant

A

Were deposed (gave a deposition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

A notice of suspension or denial of a license must state (22):

The reason and statutory grounds for the action
The effective date of the suspension
_________________
The right to a hearing
The period in which a request for a hearing must be received
Select one:

a. How to avoid further complications
b. The level of intoxication
c. The date of the infraction
d. How to request a hearing

A

How to request a hearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

Whistle commands one long burst __________. (22)
Select one:

a. Used to tell drivers to start
b. Used to tell driver to stop
c. Used to tell driver to yield
d. Give a warning signal

A

Used to tell driver to stop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

A signal of intent to turn right or left when required shall be given continuously during not less than the last __________ feet traveled by the vehicle before turning. (22)
Select one:

a. 200
b. 100
c. 300
d. 50

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

__________ is a telling of ease and harmony in a contact or relationship between people. (32)
Select one:

a. Compatibility
b. Rapport
c. Relationship
d. Simpatico

A

Rapport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

Upon receiving a report of an attempted child abduction, an agency shall immediately but not to exceed ___________ hours after receiving the report, submit the information to the Texas Missing Person Clearinghouse. (18)
Select one:

a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 24

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Which of the following is an objective to a pre-shift safety inspection? (34)
Select one:

a. Mechanical check
b. Provides a sense of confidence
c. Hand position
d. Required inventory

A

Provides a sense of confidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

Offenses against public administration are located in Title __________ of the Texas Penal Code. (1)
Select one:

a. 2
b. 8
c. 6
d. 7

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a search warrant is a written order issued by a magistrate and directed to a peace officer commanding him to __________. (10)
Select one:

a. provide said contraband for use during any show-cause hearing

b. seize listed property and secure same in an approved storage facility

c. search for any property or thing and seize the same

d. search for listed suspects and arrest same

A

Search for any property or thing and seize the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

The Texas police officer has jurisdiction in all but one circumstance below. In which does the officer not have jurisdiction to investigate and issue a traffic citation if warranted? (22)
Select one:

a. The violator is operating a motor vehicle in a reckless manner in a parking lot for which a fee is paid for parking motor vehicles

b. The operator is involved in a collision on a privately owned access way provided by a business establishment for the convenience of customers

c. An operator fails to stop for a stop sign when exiting a privately owned business onto a state highway

d. The violator is operating a motor vehicle registered in Texas on a city street while displaying an expired MVI certificate on the tenth day of the month

e. None of the above

A

The violator is operating a motor vehicle in a reckless manner in a parking lot for which a fee is paid for parking motor vehicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

When an officer encounters someone listed on the CSCAL, the officer may need to __________. (19)
Select one:

a. take temporary possession of the child due to reasons unrelated to CSCAL.

b. release the child to the Department of Protective and Family Services - CPS.

c. release the child back to the custody of the legal guardian.

d. All of the above

A

Take temporary possession of the child due to reasons unrelated to CSCAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with Continuing Education? (4)
Question 8Select one:

a. 211
b. 215
c. 217
d. 218

A

218

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

During arrest, in clear language, advise the subject the reason for the arrest, subjects may resist officers just because __________. (31)
Select one:

a. They do not understand why they’re being arrested
b. They are innocent
c. They have a criminal background
d. All of the above

A

They do not understand why they’re being arrested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

If a peace officer seizes property under Chapter 59 of the CCP, the attorney representing the state shall commence proceedings under this section not later than the __________ day after the date of the seizure. (11)
Select one:

a. 60th
b. 90th
c. 30th
d. 15th

A

30th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

A commitment is a court order __________. (9)
Select one:

a. to place an accused in jail
b. ordering an accused released from custody
c. granting an appeal
d. no longer issued in Texas

A

To place an accused in jail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

What does the P in LEAPS stand for? (29)
Select one:

a. Passive
b. Pretend
c. Protect
d. Paraphrase

A

Paraphrase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Which of the following is the statute of limitation for robbery? (9) Select one:

a. 10 years
b. 5 years
c. 3 years
d. 2 years
e. There is no limitation

A

5 Years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

A handgun license holder enters a liquor store while possessing a concealed pistol. What offense has occurred? (8)
Select one:

a. Unlawful Carrying Weapons
b. Places Weapons Prohibited
c. Unlawful Carrying of Handgun by License Holder
d. Unlawful Possession of Firearm
e. No Offense

A

No offense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

To __________ is to stand an occupied or unoccupied vehicle, other than temporarily while loading or unloading merchandise or passengers. (22)
Select one:

a. Idle
b. Park
c. Stand
d. Load

A

Park

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

The juvenile witness may write a statement if he/she __________ to do so. (33)
Select one:

a. Volunteers
b. Is instructed to
c. Is warned by the chief
d. Has his parent notified and receives consent from the parent

A

Volunteers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

That degree of influence the officer must exert over the violator to take him or her safely into custody is known as _________. (31)
Select one:

a. control
b. force
c. strength
d. constraint

A

Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

Any child under the age of __________ must be transported in a child safety seat. (22)
Select one:

a. 8 years
b. 4 years
c. 3 years
d. 2 years
e. there is no such requirement

A

8 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

Officers will follow the __________ step violator interview unless circumstances exist that make their use extraneous or non-applicable. (35)
Select one:

a. seven
b. three
c. nine
d. four
e. eight

A

Seven

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

According to CCP Art 1.24, the proceedings and trials in all courts shall be __________. (7)
eSelect one:

a. Public
b. Notarized
c. Recorded
d. Privileged information

A

Public

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

According to the Transportation code: “No person shall drive a vehicle on a highway at a speed greater than is __________ and __________ under the circumstances then existing.” (22)
Select one:

a. Posted / marked
b. Safe / Cautious
c. Reasonable / prudent
d. Careful / defensive

A

Reasonable / prudent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

What does the S in LEAPS stand for? (29)
Select one:

a. Summarize
b. Stay
c. Speak
d. Solution

A

Summarize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Harassment as defined by Penal Code 42.07 cannot occur if the communication is initiated by which of the following means? (8)
Select one:

a. In person
b. By telephone
c. In writing
d. By e-mail
e. None of the above

A

In person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

Voluntary intoxication is __________. (8)
Select one:

a. A perfect defense
b. An affirmative defense
c. A justifiable defense
d. A perfect and a justifiable defense
e. No defense

A

No defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

Arrest can be both an emotional and __________ problem for officer and arrestee. (28)
Select one:

a. Spiritual
b. Mental
c. Hysterical
d. Physical

A

Physical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

A __________ is a writ issued by the judge of a court having jurisdiction of a case after commitment or bail and before trial, or clerk at the direction of the judge, and directed to any peace officer of the State of Texas, commanding him to arrest a person accused of an offense and bring him before the court immediately, or at a term stated in the writ. (9)
Select one:

a. warrant
b. capias
c. summons
d. subpoena
e. indictment

A

Capias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

Which culpable mental state refers to a person’s conduct or the result of his conduct when he ought to be aware of a substantial and unjustifiable risk that the circumstances exist or the result will occur when and to the degree that the failure to perceive it constitutes a gross deviation from the standard of care that an ordinary person would exercise under all the circumstances as viewed from the actor’s standpoint? (8)
Select one:

a. Intentional
b. Knowing
c. Reckless
d. Criminal Negligence
e. None of the above

A

Criminal Negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

You can identify a mass murderer by their __________. (35)
Select one:

a. hair
b. desire to self-terminate
c. lack of desire to conceal their crime
d. overall disheveled look

A

Lack of desire to conceal their crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

In this instance ICS stands for __________. (42)
Select one:

a. Information and Computer Sciences
b. Incident Command System
c. Inhaled Corticosteroids
d. International Chemometrics Society

A

Incident Command System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

Which of the following offenses will raise murder to capital murder? (8)
Select one:

a. Criminal Mischief
b. Aggravated Assault
c. Robbery
d. Bribery

A

Robbery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Improper Relationship between Educator and Student refers to illegal sexual interactions with students enrolled in which schools? (8)
Select one:

a. Public primary or secondary schools
b. Private primary or secondary schools
c. Public or private primary or secondary schools
d. All levels of education public or private
e. None of the above

A

Public or private primary or secondary schools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

The entire width between the boundary lines of every way publicly maintained when any part thereof is open for public use for purposes of vehicular travel is __________. (22)
Select one:

a. A highway
b. A street
c. A roadway
d. A traffic way
e. Both a highway and a street

A

Both a highway and a street

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

There are five phases of transition that people who experience traumatic events typically go through. Which of the following is not one of the phases? (3)
Select one:

a. Denial
b. Anger
c. Bargaining
d. Expression
e. Acceptance

A

Expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

_______ is an outdated term that is highly offensive and collectively labels people with any level of hearing loss.
Answer

a. Hard of hearing
b. Hearing impaired
c. Deaf
d. None of the above

A

Hearing Impaired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

If a judge rules the lockout was illegal the court may issue a Writ of Reentry directing the landlord to let the tenant back in. If the landlord fails to obey the order he may be held in contempt of court and the Sheriff or Constable may use __________ to put the tenant back into the rental. (14)
Select one:

a. reasonable efforts
b. reasonable force
c. necessary force
d. all means necessary

A

Reasonable force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

“You will be charged with the offense of speeding in the Justice of the Peace Court in Austin. You will be given ten days (Specify Procedure) in which to answer this charge. You are going to be charged with the offense of passing with insufficient clearance. You will be warned for the violation, which you have committed. A record of this violation has been made and we ask that you cooperate by driving your vehicle in compliance with traffic regulations” is an example of __________. (35)
Select one:

a. Charging a criminal
b. Citing Miranda Rights
c. Charging a suspect
d. Statement of Action to be taken

A

Statement of Action to be taken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

Which tactical concept allows officers time to huddle up and share information in order to begin developing strategy? (27)
Select one:

a. Distance + Cover
b. Time
c. Tactical Repositioning
d. Tactical Pause
e. Tactical Disengagement

A

Tactical Pause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

According to Commission Rules, if a current license holder is arrested for any offense above a Class C misdemeanor, the license holder shall report the facts of the arrest to the Commission in writing within __________. (4)
Select one:

a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 180 days

A

30 Days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

On arrival at a family violence call, you and your partner make a stealthy approach and you hear people yelling at each other inside the residence. You take proper position and knock, but you do not get a response to your knock. You should __________. (17)
Select one:

a. leave the premises until you get a return call
b. call your supervisor for instructions
c. continue to knock until you get a response
d. attempt to enter the house

A

Attempt to enter the house

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

Which of the following tactical concepts is beneficial in releasing control of a situation to another individual and provides officers with time and distance? (27)
Select one:

a. Distance + Cover
b. Time
c. Tactical Repositioning
d. Tactical Pause
e. Tactical Disengagement

A

Tactical Disengagement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

If a peace officer sexually harasses another person while in uniform during his or her duties as a public servant, he/she has committed what offense? (1)
Select one:

a. Disorderly Conduct
b. Misuse of Office
c. Official Oppression
d. Abuse of Office

A

Official Oppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

__________ is any current commission developed course that is required before an individual may be licensed by the commission. (4)
Select one:

a. Basic Certificate Course
b. Basic Licensing Course
c. Online Certificate Course
d. Online Licensing Course

A

Basic Licensing Course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

According to the Penal Code, a mistake of fact is a defense to prosecution.

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

When approaching a dog, what is the minimal reactionary gap in a public space? (39)
Select one:

a. 2 feet
b. 100 feet
c. 12 feet
d. 20 feet

A

12 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

__________ relies on limited information, mostly from victims, witnesses, and suspects. Focus tends to be on one “incident” which is resolved before moving to the next “incident.” (2)
Select one:

a. proactive policing
b. incident driven
c. case driven
d. reactive response

A

Incident driven

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

A person found in possession of crack cocaine weighing a total of 2 grams should be charged with a __________. (15)
Select one:

a. State Jail felony
b. 3rd degree felony
c. 2nd degree felony
d. Class A Misdemeanor
e. 1st degree felony

A

3rd degree felony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

According to Sec. 218.3 Legislatively Required Continuing Education for Licensees, the legislatively required continuing education program for individuals licensed as peace officers shall consist of __________ hours of training. (4)
Select one:

a. 20
b. 40
c. 60
d. 80

A

40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

What does the A in LEAPS stand for? (29)
Select one:

a. Answer
b. Ask
c. Alter
d. Accept

A

Listen, empathize, ASK, paraphrase, summarize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

The “ripple effect” of adverse stress affects which of the following? (20)
Select one:

a. Family members
b. Other peace officers
c. The public with whom an officer serves
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

__________ means unauthorized departure from custody or failure to return to custody following temporary leave for a specific purpose. (8)
Select one:

a. Departure
b. Fugitive
c. Nonrestraint
d. Escape

A

Escape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with Training? (4)
Select one:

a. 211
b. 215
c. 217
d. 218

A

215

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

According to CCP Art. 1.20, no person shall be convicted of treason except on the testimony of __________ witnesses to the same overt act, or on confession in open court. (7)
Select one:

a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 7

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

Lawful permanent resident aliens (LPRs), who have a resident alien registration card (Department of Homeland Security Form I-551), more commonly known as a “green card,” are not U.S. citizens. They retain their foreign nationality and must be considered “foreign nationals” for the purposes of consular notification. (13)
Select one:

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

Requesting backup and specialized help, not rushing the situation, and watching body language are all common tips and techniques for __________. (27)
Select one:

a. Slowing down the situation
b. De-Escalate the situation
c. Responding to behavioral crisis
d. Making a connection

A

Making a connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

A __________ is a slow moving and methodical team whose mission is to search for and recover downed citizens or officers. (32) Select one:

a. Rescue team
b. Recovery team
c. Contact team
d. Search team

A

Rescue Team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

Which of the following is a benefit of the CDM? (27)
Select one:

a. Obscures actions after the incident
b. Organizes the decision-making process
c. Allows administrators to make better decisions
d. None of the above

A

Organizes the decision-making process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

According to the Transportation Code, a vehicle equipped with hazard lamps to warn other vehicle operators of a vehicular traffic hazard shall have the lamps visible at a distance of at least __________ feet in normal sunlight. (22)
Select one:

a. 200
b. 300
c. 400
d. 500

A

500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

__________ generally refers to groups of people with common ancestry and physical characteristics. (5)
Select one:

a. Ethnicity
b. Culture
c. Discrimination
d. Race

A

Race

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

The expression or use of facts without distortion by personal feelings or prejudices is the definition of __________. (1)
Select one:

a. professionalism
b. ethical integrity
c. objectivity
d. courage

A

Objectivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

__________ is a law enforcement unit or other entity, whether public or private, authorized by Texas law to appoint a person licensed or certified by the commission. (4)
Select one:

a. Agency
b. Department
c. Sheriff
d. Officer

A

Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

Blank Card

A

Blank Card

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

What is the first day an officer may stop a vehicle and issue a traffic citation for an expired license plate?

a. On the first day of the month
b. On the fifth day of the month
c. On the sixth day of the month
d. On the eighth day of the month
e. On the tenth day of the month

A

On the sixth day of the month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

A person pick-pockets a wallet out of a woman’s purse hung over her shoulder as she is looking away. The purse and its contents were valued at $90. What offense has occurred? (8)
Select one:

a. Theft - Misdemeanor
b. Theft - State Jail Felony
c. Robbery
d. Aggravated Robbery
e. None of the above

A

Theft - State Jail Felony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

When an officer is a member of a tactical squad in a crowd or riot control formation, the baton may be used to move, separate, disperse or deny a person access to a structure or through an area is a justification for use of a baton. (31)
Select one:

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

A person walks onto property with the house that is under construction. The person is looking inside the house looking at the progress. A worker confronts the person and asks the person to leave. The person leaves the property without further confrontation. What offense has occurred? (8)
Select one:

a. Criminal Trespass - Building
b. Criminal Trespass - Habitation
c. Burglary - Building
d. Burglary - Habitation
e. None of the above

A

None of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

If a K9 Handler becomes injured, you should attempt to do which of the following __________. (39)
Select one:

a. Have the handler call his dog
b. Give the K9 the load command at the K9 vehicle
c. Attempt to get another K9 handler to handle the K9
d. Contact animal control to capture the K9
e. Any of the above

A

Any of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

In the definition of wellness, there are varying degrees of wellness ranging from __________. (3)
Select one:

a. good health to bad health
b. fit to eat
c. death to optimal well-being
d. weak to strong
e. bad health to good health

A

Death to optimal well-being

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

An officer on night shift patrol sees a vehicle in the parking lot of a school. It is after hours and no activities are being conducted. The officer checks the vehicle and observes a shotgun inside the vehicle. What offense has been committed? (8)
Select one:

a. Unlawful Carrying Weapon
b. Places Weapons Prohibited
c. Unlawful Possession of Firearm
d. No Offense
e.

A

No offense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

An officer on night shift patrol sees a vehicle in the parking lot of a school. It is after hours and no activities are being conducted. The officer checks the vehicle and observes a shotgun inside the vehicle. What offense has been committed? (8)
Select one:

a. Unlawful Carrying Weapon
b. Places Weapons Prohibited
c. Unlawful Possession of Firearm
d. No Offense
e.

A

No offense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

__________ includes all means by which an alleged fact, the truth of which is submitted to scrutiny, is established or disproved. (32)
Select one:

a. Interrogation
b. Information
c. Classification
d. Evidence

A

Evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

Generally speaking, trauma can be so overwhelming for most people that it may cause a person to __________. (3)
Select one:

a. regress to a childlike state
b. think hard about the future
c. go to the bank and withdraw all his or her money
d. jump out of a window

A

Regress to a childlike state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

__________ is the portion of a highway, other than the berm or shoulder, that is improved, designed, or ordinarily used for vehicular travel. If a highway includes at least two separate roadways, the term applies to each roadway separately. (22)
Select one:

a. Roadway
b. Highway
c. Alley
d. Paved road

A

Roadway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

__________ is a vehicle, other than a passenger car or truck, that is designed and adapted for use as a farm implement, machinery, or tool for tilling the soil; a towed vehicle that transports to the field and spreads fertilizer or agricultural chemicals; or a motor vehicle designed and adapted to deliver feed to livestock. (22)
Select one:

a. Truck
b. Motorcycle
c. Implement of husbandry
d. Farm tractor

A

Implement of husbandry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

What is the minimum number of rounds required for precision rifle proficiency? (41)
Select one:

a. 5
b. 20
c. 10
d. 50

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

__________ means to transfer, actually or constructively, to another a controlled substance, counterfeit substance, or drug paraphernalia, regardless of whether there is an agency relationship. (15)
Select one:

a. Dispense
b. Disburse
c. Delivery
d. Distribute

A

Delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

__________ is a professional skill, not just luck. (28)
Select one:

a. Listening
b. Communication
c. Writing
d. Shooting

A

Communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

__________ is usually assembled for some purpose. They have positive leadership, are determined to accomplish a specific end, and move actively toward their objective. Usually high emotional tension is present. This type crowd can easily become a mob. Consequently, this type of crowd presents an acute police problem. (35)
Select one:

a. Casual crowd
b. Cohesive crowd
c. Expressive crowd
d. Aggressive crowd

A

Aggressive Crowd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

A TCOLE training cycle is __________. (4)
Select one:

a. 2 years
b. 4 years
c. 1 year
d. 6 years

A

4 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

A police supervisor has a/an __________ duty to intervene to stop officers who are engaging in excessive force in their presence. (28)
Select one:

a. affirmative
b. required
c. mandatory
d. necessary

A

Affirmative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

A person has committed the offense of __________, if he intentionally prevents or obstructs a person he knows is a peace officer from effecting an arrest or search, by using force against the peace officer. (8)
Select one:

a. Aggravated Assault on a Police Officer
b. Hindering Apprehension
c. Resisting Arrest
d. Escape
e. Obstructing Justice

A

Resisting Arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

The lawful search for people, land, or things useful in reconstructing the circumstances of an illegal act or omission and the mental state accompanying it is a/an Select one:

a. criminal investigation
b. interrogation
c. crime scene search
d. crime scene sketch

A

Criminal Investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
331
Q

According to the traffic code, an operator may not follow closer than __________ feet from a fire apparatus responding to a fire alarm or drive into or park the vehicle in the block where the fire apparatus has stopped to answer a fire alarm. (22)
Select one:

a. 200
b. 300
c. 400
d. 500

A

500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
332
Q

A person is told that he is under arrest for an outstanding traffic warrant. When the police officer attempts secure the person using handcuffs, the person runs away telling the officer he is not going to jail. What offense has occurred? (8)
Select one:

a. Retaliation
b. Obstruction
c. Resisting Arrest, Search, or Transport
d. Evading Arrest or Detention
e. None of the above

A

Evading arrest or detention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
333
Q

In the TCOLE qualification round, how many rounds are fired? (41)
Select one:

a. 50
b. 60
c. 80
d. 100

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
334
Q

Which of the following is a financial identifier? (12)
Select one:

a. Billing address
b. Social Security number
c. Passport number
d. PIN (Personal Identification Number)

A

PIN (personal identification number)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
335
Q

The three learned professions are __________. (1)
Select one:

a. law, medicine, engineering
b. medicine, engineering, divinity
c. engineering, divinity, law
d. law, medicine, divinity

A

Law, medicine and divinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
336
Q

If two or more persons conspire to injure, oppress, threaten, or intimidate any inhabitant of any State, Territory, or District in the free exercise or enjoyment of any right or privilege secured to him by the Constitution or laws of the United States, best describes __________. (1)
Select one:

a. USC 242 Deprivation of Rights Under Color of Law
b. USC 241 Conspiracy Against Rights
c. USCA 1983 Violation of Civil Rights
d. Both A and B

A

USC 241 Conspiracy Against Rights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
337
Q

__________ is the constitution or a statute of this state or of the United States, a written opinion of a court of record, a municipal ordinance, an order of a county commissioners court, or a rule authorized by and lawfully adopted under a statute. (8)
Select one:

a. Constitution
b. Law
c. Penal code
d. TABC code

A

Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
338
Q

Whistle commands two short blasts__________. (22)
Select one:

a. Used to tell drivers to start
b. Used to tell driver to stop
c. Used to tell driver to yield
d. Give a warning signal

A

Used to tell driver to start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
339
Q

Which of the following best fits the definition? ___________ is a hearing status of such severity that an individual must depend on visual methods to communicate.
Answer

a. Hard of hearing
b. Deaf
c. Hearing impaired
d. All of the above

A

Deaf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
340
Q

Heavy alcoholic drinking may cause low blood sugar and lead to __________. (3)
Select one:

a. cancer
b. hypoglycemia
c. increased sensual awareness
d. lower triglycerol levels in the blood

A

Hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
341
Q

A __________ is a notice placed on a consumer file that alerts a recipient of the report that the consumer’s identity may have been used without the consumer’s consent to fraudulently obtain goods and services in the consumer’s name. (12)
Select one:

a. report tag
b. security alert
c. consent notice
d. sentinel

A

Security Alert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
342
Q

An accomplished thief not only completes the crime but successfully disposes of the property. The weakness of property crime is __________. (32)
Select one:

a. Disposal of the stolen property
b. Fencing in the stolen property
c. Security around the object
d. Destruction of the stolen property

A

Disposal of the stolen property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
343
Q

Which of the following is not required to be displayed as a warning device when a truck carrying flammable liquids that is over 30 feet long is disabled on the roadway for more than 10 minutes? (22)
Select one:

a. During daytime in clear weather, one red flag placed 100 feet to the rear and one red flag placed 100 feet in advance of the vehicle

b. A lighted flare placed approximately 100 feet from the disabled vehicle in the center of the lane occupied by such vehicle and toward approaching traffic

c. A portable emergency reflector 100 feet in the opposite direction from the disabled vehicle

d. A red reflector placed on the traffic side of the disabled vehicle not less than 10 feet in the rear and in the direction of traffic

A

A lighted flare placed approximately 100 feet from the disabled vehicle in the center of the lane occupied by such vehicle and toward approaching traffic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
344
Q

Is it a crime to walk across a railroad track at a point other than a roadway or pedestrian walkway? (8)
Select one:

a. Yes
b. No
c. Only at night
d. Only when a train is approaching
e. Never

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
345
Q

__________ is a reduced-speed zone designated on a street by a local authority to facilitate safe crossing of the street by children going to or leaving a public or private elementary or secondary school during the time the reduced speed limit applies. (22)
Select one:

a. School zone
b. Highway
c. School crossing zone
d. Work zone

A

School crossing zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
346
Q

On a finding by the Texas Commission on Law Enforcement that the chief administrator of a law enforcement agency intentionally failed to submit a report required under Subsection (b), the commission shall begin disciplinary procedures against the chief administrator. (6)
Select one:

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
347
Q

According to the Penal Code, a person acts __________, with respect to the nature of their conduct, when it is the conscious objective or desire to engage in the conduct or cause the result. (8)
Select one:

a. knowingly
b. intentionally
c. with criminal negligence
d. recklessly

A

Intentionally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
348
Q

A common reason for deviating from a drug schedule is __________. (29)
Select one:

a. exterior factors (such as family and friends) telling them to not take them
b. nasty side effects
c. preferred themselves off the drugs
d. perceived ineffectiveness

A

Nasty side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
349
Q

What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with Enforcement? (4)
Select one:

a. 219
b. 221
c. 223
d. 225

A

223

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
350
Q

When an indictment is not issued by a grand jury, a person may be charged with an offense in __________. (10)
Select one:

a. a complaint
b. an information
c. a summons
d. a capias

A

An information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
351
Q

A vehicle passing another vehicle to the left shall return to an authorized lane before coming within __________ feet of approaching vehicles. (22)
Select one:

a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
d. 200
e. 250

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
352
Q

__________ shall have appellate jurisdiction coextensive with the limits of their respective districts in all criminal cases except those in which the death penalty has been assessed. (7)
Select one:

a. The Courts of Appeals
b. Municipal courts
c. The district courts
d. The Court of Criminal Appeals

A

The Court of Appeals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
353
Q

A person is tired of the very loud music coming from a parked, unattended vehicle on the street in front of his residence. The person cannot find the vehicle’s owner and notices that the windows are rolled down. The person reaches into the vehicle and turns the music down. What offense has occurred? (8)
Select one:

a. Illegal Entry
b. Criminal Trespass - Vehicle
c. Burglary of Motor Vehicle
d. Unauthorized Use of Motor Vehicle
e. None of the above

A

None of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
354
Q

__________ is a motor vehicle designed and used primarily as a farm implement to draw an implement of husbandry, including a plow or a mowing machine. (22)
Select one:

a. Truck
b. Motorcycle
c. Implement of husbandry
d. Farm tractor

A

Farm Tractor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
355
Q

Self-control results from the development of __________ in one’s skills. (28)
Select one:

a. Mastery
b. Confidence
c. Persuasion of
d. Strength

A

Confidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
356
Q

The Fifth Amendment addresses which of the following? (7)
Select one:

a. Right to a Grand Jury
b. Right to assemble
c. Fair and speedy trial
d. Freedom of the press
e. Separation of church and state

A

Right to a Grand Jury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
357
Q

__________ is a municipal or county jail; or a confinement facility operated by or under a contract with any division of the Texas Department of Criminal Justice. (8)
Select one:

a. Secure correctional facility
b. Prison
c. Jail
d. Penitentiary

A

Secure correctional facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
358
Q

Xanax, Valium, and Buspar are examples of __________. (29)
Select one:

a. Antidepressants
b. Mood stabilizers
c. Anti-anxiety drugs
d. Anti-psychotics

A

Anti-anxiety drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
359
Q

These disorders cause oversensitivity to sounds and visions characterized by hallucination and/or impaired distorted thinking. (29)
Select one:

a. Antisocial
b. Schizophrenia
c. Borderline
d. Paranoia

A

Schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
360
Q

_____________ describes a characteristic of a criminal investigator (32):

Takes nothing for granted.
Investigators may find that victims and witnesses, as well as suspects, may be motivated by various physiological, psychological, and sociological needs that may “color” the information they give.
Gathers information, but verifies it credibility.
Select one:

a. Observant
b. Suspicious
c. Curious
d. Cautious

A

Suspicious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
361
Q

__________ literally means the body or substance of the crime. (32)
Select one:

a. Corpus Delicti
b. Homo Expelo
c. Delicti Corpus
d. Expelo Homo

A

Corpus Delicti

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
362
Q

What are the three strike areas of batons? Select all that apply. (31)
Select one or more:

a. Center mass of arms
b. Outer mass of arms
c. Center mass of legs
d. Abdomen

A

Center mass of arms, Center mass of legs, Abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
363
Q

The official charging document used in a misdemeanor action is called a/an __________. (10)
Select one:

a. Indictment
b. Information
c. Complaint
d. Habeas Corpus
e. Writ of mandamus

A

Information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
364
Q

Officer Casanova sees a pretty lady, stops her, and makes unwelcome sexual advances toward her. Officer Casanova committed what offense? (8)
Select one:

a. Abuse of Official Capacity
b. Official Oppression
c. Violations of Civil Rights
d. Improper attitude
e. No offense, pretty ladies are fair game

A

Official Oppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
365
Q

According to the Penal Code, __________ is failing to return to custody following a temporary leave for a specific purpose. (8)
Select one:

a. unauthorized departure
b. escape
c. evading arrest
d. evasion

A

Escape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
366
Q

Air-purifying respirator, chemical resistant clothing, double-layered gloves, etc, are precautions to be worn at what level of personal protection? (42)
Select one:

a. Level A
b. Level B
c. Level C
d. Level D

A

Level C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
367
Q

Citations and other notices may be served anywhere by __________. (14)
Select one:

a. Any Sheriff or Constable or other person authorized by law

b. Any person authorized by law or by written order of the court who is not less than 18 years of age

c. By any law enforcement officer

d. All of the above are correct

e. A and B are correct

A

A and B are correct

368
Q

Where do you move an injured limb to control bleeding? (40)
Select one:

a. Above heart
b. Below the heart
c. Next to the heart
d. Away from the heart

A

Above heart

369
Q

All __________ should be treated as a homicide until proven otherwise. (32)
Select one:

a. Deaths
b. Murders
c. Manslaughter
d. Suspicious deaths

A

Suspicious deaths

370
Q

What is one of the objectives in conducting a crime scene search? (32)
Select one:

a. Determine what crime was committed.
b. Consider size and type of crime scene
c. Evaluate hazards of area
d. Evaluate physical characteristics

A

Determine what crime was committed

371
Q

There are ________ Pillars of Character. (1)
Select one:

a. 8
b. 4
c. 3
d. 6

A

6

372
Q

An organized and relatively unchanging combination of a persons knowledge and feelings about someone or something, that influences him/her to behave in a certain way, in regard to that person or thing, defines __________. (5)
Select one:

a. Race
b. Ethnicity
c. Prejudice
d. Attitude
e. Ethnocentrism

A

Attitude

373
Q

The __________ Amendment limits the level of force that may be used to reasonable force. (7)
Select one:

a. 4th
b. 5th
c. 8th
d. 14th

A

4th

374
Q

One advantage to the police professional model is __________. (1)
Select one:

a. Cost of training and development
b. Higher salaries for job occupant
c. Stronger community support and respect
d. Limited entry into work force from the poor

A

Stronger community support and respect

375
Q

Thorzine, mellaril, and Haldol control hallucinations and are used as __________. (29)
Select one:

a. Antidepressants
b. Mood stabilizers
c. Anti-anxiety drugs
d. Anti-psychotics

A

Anti-psychotics

376
Q

Omission means __________. (8)
Select one:

a. Failure to act

b. Failure to include

c. To leave out an element of an offense

d. None of the above

A

Failure to act

377
Q

Operation ID encourages citizens to mark their personal inventory with their __________. (35)
Select one:

a. Social Security number
b. Voter’s registration number
c. VIN number
d. driver’s license number

A

Driver’s license number

378
Q

According to Sec. 36.06 of the Penal Code, a person commits an offense if he intentionally or knowingly harms or threatens to harm another by an unlawful act on account of the victim’s testifying in court. The offense would be __________. (8)
Select one:

a.
Perjury

b.
Coercion

c.
Retaliation

d.
Bribery

A

Retaliation

379
Q

__________ is the questioning of victims, witnesses, or suspects in a criminal investigation. (32)
Select one:

a. Hearing
b. Interrogation
c. Interviewing
d. Examination

A

Interviewing

380
Q

According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a peace officer from another state may pursue a fleeing person into Texas and arrest them there, if the person is suspected of committing __________. (10)
Select one:

a. a felony
b. a misdemeanor punishable by jail
c. a state jail offense
d. a capital offense

A

A felony

381
Q

The “Illegal Per Se” law makes it an offense to operate a motor vehicle while __________. (23)
Select one:

a. Having a statutorily prohibited blood alcohol content
b. Under the influence of alcohol and/or drugs
c. Impaired by alcohol or drugs to the slightest degree
d. Incapable of safely operating a vehicle regardless of the cause

A

Having a statutorily prohibited blood alcohol content

382
Q

PC 31.03 explains __________. (8)
Select one:

a. Theft
b. Escape
c. Evading Detention
d. Unlawful Restraint

A

Theft

383
Q

A lawful frisk can only be initiated when the officer __________. (10)
Select one:

a. has reasonable suspicion to detain
b. has reasonable suspicion that there is a weapon
c. doesn’t like the way someone looks
d. A & B only
e. B & C only

A

A & B Only

384
Q

Which two courts do not have original jurisdiction for any offense? (7)
Select one:

a. County Courts and County Courts at Law
b. Municipal and Justice Courts
c. District and Criminal District Courts
d. Courts of Appeals and Court of Criminal Appeals

A

Courts of Appeals and Court of Criminal Appeals

385
Q

According to the Transportation Code, an operator shall dim headlights when an approaching vehicle is within __________ feet. (22)
Select one:

a. 1000
b. 500
c. 250
d. 200

A

500

386
Q

What should an officer consider when determining what method of a crime scene search to use? (32)
Select one:

a. The weather

b. The officers attitude toward the suspect

c. Personnel and equipment available

d. None of the above

A

Personnel and equipment available

387
Q

Art. 15.24 states in making an arrest, all __________ means are permitted to be used to effect it. (10)
Select one:

a. Reasonable

b. Available

c. Lawful

d. All of the above are correct

A

Reasonable

388
Q

If a person refuses to submit to the taking of a specimen the officer may__________. (23)
Select one:

a. Take a specimen anyway

b. Make an arrest

c. Apply for a warrant

d. Ask again, nicely

A

Apply for a warrant

389
Q

A person convicted of an offense that is a misdemeanor under this subtitle for which another penalty is not provided shall be punished by a fine of not less than $1 or more than $200. (22)
Select one:

a. Misdemeanor
b. Speeding ticket
c. General penalty
d. First degree murder

A

General penalty

390
Q

__________ is to halt an occupied or unoccupied vehicle, other than temporarily while receiving or discharging passengers. (22)
Select one:

a. Idling
b. Yielding
c. Standing
d. Parking

A

Standing

391
Q

Beer can be sold between __________ and __________ on any given day except Sunday. (16)
Select one:

a. 10 am; Midnight
b. 7 am; Midnight
c. 7 am; 10 pm
d. 9 am; 10 pm

A

7 am; Midnight

392
Q

Genuine health or wellness is not just the absence of dis-ease or infirmity, it is a state of positive well-being. It induces the physical, mental, spiritual, and socio-emotional dimensions of life. Total well-being translates into the practice of __________. (3)
Select one:

a. positive lifestyle and good health habits

b. good posture and physique

c. good eating habits and weight control

d. controlling weight and ensuring good physique

A

positive lifestyle and good health habits

393
Q

Low visibility surveillance is __________. (35)
Select one:

a. Preventative patrol
b. Apprehension patrol
c. High visibility patrol
d. Vigilance patrol

A

Apprehension patrol

394
Q

The scope of a warrantless search of an automobile is not defined by the nature of the container; rather, it is defined by the __________ of the search and the places in which there is __________ to believe that it may be found. (10)
Select one:

a. Object; probable cause
b. Scope; reason
c. Contents; a possibility
d. Area; reasonable cause

A

Object; probable cause

395
Q

The delivery of a writ, notice, injunction, etc., by an authorized person, to a person who is thereby officially notified of some proceeding concerning that person is a/an __________. (14)
Select one:

a. Service
b. Summons
c. Precept
d. Injunction

A

Service

396
Q

Joe caused the death of Louis due to criminal negligence. Joe could be charged with which of the following? (8)
Select one:

a. Manslaughter
b. Murder 1st Degree
c. Murder 2nd Degree
d. Capital Murder
e. None of the above

A

None of the above

397
Q

What is the first day an officer may stop a vehicle and issue a traffic citation for an expired license plate? (22)
Select one:

a. On the first day of the month

b. On the fifth day of the month

c. On the sixth day of the month

d. On the eighth day of the month

e. On the tenth day of the month

A

On the sixth day of the month

398
Q

According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, the Court of Criminal Appeals does not __________. (7)
Select one:

a. issue writs of habeas corpus

b. hear cases involving the death penalty

c. review decisions of civil cases

d. review decisions of criminal cases

A

Review decisions of civil cases

399
Q

According to the Penal Code, in the case of an “exception to an offense”, the burden of proof lies with the __________. (8)
Select one:

a. defense attorney

b. grand jury

c. prosecuting attorney

d. plaintiff

A

Prosecuting attorney

400
Q

What can the position of the canine’s ears indicate? (39)
Select one:

a. When a dog is relaxed and comfortable the ears will be held naturally.

b. When alert, the dog will raise the ears higher on his head and will direct them toward whatever is holding his interest.

c. A dog will also raise his ears up and forward when he is feeling aggressive.

d. If your dog has his ears pulled back slightly, he is signaling his intention to be friendly.

e. All of the above

A

All of the above

401
Q

Which of the following is not a proper steering technique? (34)
Question 46Select one:

a.
Shuffle steering

b.
Evasive steering

c.
Counter steering

d.
“box-style” steering

A

“Box style” steering

402
Q

The officer’s ___________ is affected by the agency’s written directives. (28)
Select one:

a. Rank
b. Liability
c. Schedule
d. Attitude

A

Liability

403
Q

At the moment of arrest, __________ ceases to build. (10)
Select one:

a. authority of consent
b. criminal offenses
c. probable cause
d. evidence

A

Probable Cause

404
Q

According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a peace officer who investigates a family violence allegation or who responds to a disturbance call that may involve family violence shall advise any possible adult victim of all reasonable means to prevent further family violence, including __________. (20)
Select one:

a. making an arrest without a warrant

b. calling in assistance from domestic violence experts

c. giving written notice of a victim’s legal rights

d. giving written notice of an offender’s legal rights

A

Giving notice of a victim’s legal rights

405
Q

__________ is a method of building trust with a child and adults around the child in an effort to gain access to and time alone with her/him. (18)
Select one:

a. Preparing
b. Prepping
c. Grooming
d. Training

A

Grooming

406
Q

Compensating behavior may take one of the following forms: hesitation, verbal abuse, __________, and/or unnecessary force. (28)
Select one:

a. Joking
b. Bluff
c. Mocking
d. Pleading

A

Bluff

407
Q

Who can file a protective order? (17)
Select one:

a. An adult
b. An adult with evidence of abuse
c. An adult member of the relationship
d. Anyone

A

An adult member of the relationship

408
Q

A co-worker who is abusing drugs or alcohol can be helped in four ways. These are: Be aware and recognize the problem, encourage the person after they seek help, avoiding the problem will eventually have serious consequences and __________. (3)
Select one:

a. evaluate their problem
b. urge the person to seek help
c. be able to laugh at ones self
d. urge the drinker to check their attitude

A

Urge the person to seek help

409
Q

Fraudulent Use or Possession of Identifying Information (PC 32.51) is a __________ if the number of items obtained, possessed, transferred, or used is less than five. (8)
Select one:

a. Class C misdemeanor
b. 3rd degree felony
c. Class B misdemeanor
d. State jail felony

A

State Jail Felony

410
Q

Amendment 9 to the constitution __________. (7)
Select one:

a. Individual Rights

b. Excessive bail, excessive fines, cruel and unusual punishment

c. Double jeopardy, witness against self, due process, self-incrimination

d. States’ Rights

A

Individual Rights

411
Q

When a magistrate sits for the purpose of inquiring into a criminal accusation against any person, this is called a/an __________. (7)
Select one:

a. an inquest
b. a court of inquiry
c. a tribunal pro se
d. an examining court

A

An examining court

412
Q

No vehicle shall at anytime be driven to the left of the roadway when approaching within __________ feet of an intersection. (22)
Select one:

a.200
b.250
c.50
d.100

A

100 Feet

413
Q

__________ means the adult with whom the child resides. (33)
Select one:

a. Guardian
b. Party
c. Custodian
d. Lawyer

A

Custodian

414
Q

A qualified retired law enforcement officer’s weapons proficiency certification expires on the __________. (4)
Select one:

a. second anniversary
b. first anniversary
c. fifth anniversary
d. never expires

A

First Anniversary

415
Q

What is the minimum number of yards required for shotgun proficiency? (41)
Select one:

a. 25
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

A

15

416
Q

The top priority for arriving officers, when feasible, is to __________ defuse and stabilize the situation as much as possible. (27)
Select one:

a. physically
b. emotionally
c. spiritually
d. verbally

A

Verbally

417
Q

According to Sec. 211.27 of the Commission rules, when a person who holds a commission license or certificate is arrested, charged, or indicted for a criminal offense above the grade of Cass C misdemeanor or for any Class C misdemeanor involving the duties and responsibilities of office or family violence, that person must report such fact to the commission in writing within __________ days. (4)
Select one:

a. 30
b. 60
c. 90
d. 120

A

30

418
Q

According to Commissions Rules, if a licensee’s name is changed for any reason, such as marriage, divorce, or other court action, it must be reported to the Commission within __________ days. (4)
Select one:

a. 60
b. 50
c. 40
d. 30

A

30

419
Q

A vehicle may be considered abandoned if it has been left unattended on a right of way of a designated county, state, or federal highway for more than __________ hours. (22)
Select one:

a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48

A

48

420
Q

According to Sec. 25.04 of the Penal Code, a person commits an offense if with the intent to interfere with the lawful custody of a child younger than 18 years, he knowingly persuades or takes the child from the custody of the parent or guardian or person standing in the stead of the parent or guardian of such child. The title of this offense is __________. (8)
Select one:

a. Enticing a child
b. Criminal nonsupport
c. Kidnapping
d. Tampering with child custody

A

Enticing a child

421
Q

Child Safety Check Alert List remains in the TCIC system for __________ months. (19)
Select one:

a. 6
b. 12
c. 24
d. 48

A

12

422
Q

In a work zone, __________ includes buffer space and work space. (22)
Select one:

a. Activity area
b. Buffer space
c. Termination area
d. Transition area

A

Activity area

423
Q

Every vehicle which is self propelled and every vehicle which is propelled by electric power obtained from overhead trolley wires, is a __________. (22)
Select one:

a. motor vehicle
b. pedal cycle
c. horse and buggy cart
d. PPV
e. public conveyance

A

Motor vehicle

424
Q

What is a HIPS situation? (35)
Select one:

a. High impact polystyrene
b. High integrity protection system
c. Hidden in plain sight
d. Homicide in progress school

A

Homicide in progress school

425
Q

A motor-vehicle that cannot produce more than five-brake horsepower, is the definition of a/an __________. (22)
Select one:

a. motorcycle
b. bicycle
c. ATV
d. moped

A

moped

426
Q

Child Safety Check Alert List is entered into both TCIC and NCIC. (19)
Select one:

True
False

A

False

427
Q

A/an __________ is a writ similar to an arrest warrant; a judicial writ commanding a peace officer to take a person into custody to answer specific charges. (9)
Select one:

a. attachment
b. capias
c. complaint
d. petition

A

Capias

428
Q

__________ means the state, a child who is the subject of proceedings under this subtitle, or the child’s parent, spouse, guardian, or guardian ad litem. (33)
Select one:

a. Party
b. Parent
c. Lawyer
d. Guardian

A

Party

429
Q

Which of the following is not an essential dietary component? (3)
Select one:

a. Carbohydrates
b. Fats
c. Proteins
d. Fiber

A

Fiber

430
Q

Which of the following is not a communication aid or service that an officer may use?
Answer

a. Speech supplemented by gestures and visual aids
b. A pad and pencil, a word processor, or a typewriter
c. A video phone or video relay service (VRS)
d. Personally prescribed hearing aid devices

A

Personally prescribed hearing aid devices

431
Q

According to Chapter 19, criminal homicide of the Penal Code, which of the following is not an element of proof for the offense of murder? (8)
Select one:

a. Person intentionally causes the death of an individual

b. Causes the death of a person– while committing a felony and in the course of committing the felony he commits an act clearly dangerous to human life that caused the death.

c. Intends to cause serious bodily injury but causes death.

d. Recklessly causes the death of an individual

A

Recklessly causes the death of an individual

432
Q

A writ which commands the appearance of a person before a coroner’s inquest is called a __________. (9)
Select one:

a. summons
b. commitment
c. subpoena
d. warrant

A

Subpoena

433
Q

According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, an officer must have __________ to believe the property is stolen to justify seizure of the property. (10)
Select one:

a. probable cause
b. reasonable ground
c. exigent circumstances
d. rational suspicion

A

Reasonable ground

434
Q

__________ is the territory, other than a business district, adjacent to and including a highway, if at least 300 feet of the highway frontage is primarily improved with Residences or buildings used for business purposes and residences. (22)
Select one:

a. Urban district
b. Energy district
c. Residence district
d. Business district

A

Residence district

435
Q

The intensity of __________ usually __________ over time, as does the frequency of the re-experienced crisis. (20)
Select one:

a. Long-term stress reactions; increases
b. Long-term stress reactions; decreases
c. Short-term stress reactions; increases
d. Short-term stress reactions; decreases

A

Long-term stress reactions; decreases

436
Q

A peace officer who locates a child or other person listed on the Texas Crime Information Center’s child safety check alert list and who reports the child’s or other person’s current address and other relevant information to the Department of Family and Protective Services, shall report to the Texas Crime Information Center that the child or other person has been located and to whom the child was released, as applicable. (19)
Select one:

True
False

A

True

437
Q

__________ means property that is not contraband; and that is owned by a person who is or was the owner of, or has or had an interest in, contraband with an aggregate value of $200,000 or more. (11)
Select one:

a. Actor’s property

b. Substitute property

c. Suspect’s property

d. Tainted property

A

Substitute property

438
Q

How many breaths per minute do you give someone when doing rescue breathing? (40)
Select one:

a. As many as possible

b. 15

c. 12

d. 5

A

12

439
Q

In a fight or flight stress situation, a person becomes __________. (3)
Select one:

a. exhausted
b. exhilarated
c. animated
d. vocal

A

Exhausted

440
Q

Which of the following are key principles of the CDM? (27)
Select one:

a. Police ethics

b. Sanctity of human life

c. Speed of response

d. A & B

e. B & C

f. A, B & C

A

A & B

441
Q

How many days must a police officer give a violator to appear in court when the person has been permitted to sign the traffic ticket? (22)
Select one:

a. Five

b. Eight

c. Ten

d. Twelve

A

Ten

442
Q

A __________ is a proactive search team dedicated to locating and eliminating the deadly conduct that is occurring. (35)
Select one:

a. Rescue team

b. Recovery team

c. Contact team

d. Search team

A

Contact Team

443
Q

What court case deals with the topic of firing at or from a motor vehicle? (41)
Select one:

a. Hathaway v Bazany
b. Vance v Shaffer
c. Jones v Wittenberg University
d. Frye v Reynolds

A

Hathaway v Bazany

444
Q

If a canine is present, you should try to contact the owner if it doesn’t interfere with law enforcement activities. (39)
Select one:

True
False

A

True

445
Q

The two types of problem area patrols are preventative and __________. (35)
Select one:

a. problematic
b. apprehension
c. responsive
d. retroactive

A

Apprehension

446
Q

A person finds an open door to a residence. The person goes inside and discovers that nobody is home. The person looks for money or jewelry that he could take but gets scared and leaves without taking anything when a vehicle drives by. What offense has occurred? (8)
Select one:

a. Attempted Theft
b. Criminal Trespass - Habitation
c. Attempted Burglary - Habitation
d. Burglary - Habitation
e. None of the above

A

Burglary - Habitation

447
Q

Which of the following elements is not one of the beat characteristics that you should know early in an assignment? (35)
Select one:

a. Number of traffic violations committed in area
b. Crime hazards
c. Crimes committed in area
d. Geographic characteristics of beat

A

Number of traffic violations committed in area

448
Q

__________ is needed when conditions or circumstances warrant a high level of awareness, departments should gather information and provide advanced warning for civil unrest. (35)
Select one:

a. Crowd assessment
b. Crowd dispersal
c. Crowd management
d. Crowd diffusion

A

Crowd management

449
Q

__________ is a graph on which three or more scales are arranged so that a straight line drawn through values on any two will cross the third at a corresponding value. (22)
Select one:

a. Momograph
b. Sonograph
c. Nomograph
d. Pie graph

A

Nomograph

450
Q

In reference to Penal Code 30.05 Criminal Trespass, “entry” on property of another would include which of the following? (8)
Select one:

a. An arm
b. An object connected with the body
c. The entire body
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

The entire body

451
Q

A search warrant to photograph an injured child requires that an officer send all film (positives & negatives) to the judge. (10)
Select one:

True
False

A

True

452
Q

__________ means a child who is accused, adjudicated, or convicted for conduct that would not, under state law, be a crime if committed by an adult. (33)
Select one:

a. Status offender
b. Status referral
c. Juvenile referral
d. Juvenile offender

A

Status offender

453
Q

The process of assisting displaced disaster survivors, including children, in voluntarily reestablishing contact with family and friends after a period of separation is the definition of __________. (18)
Select one:

a. Returning
b. Locating
c. Reunification
d. Reestablishing

A

Reunification

454
Q

An officer witnesses a theft and attempts to arrest the suspect. The suspect argues that he did nothing wrong and strikes the officer causing bodily injury. What offense has occurred? (8)
Select one:

a. Assault by Contact
b. Assault on Public Servant
c. Resisting Arrest, Search or Transport
d. Evading Arrest or Detention
e. None of the above

A

Assault on Public Servant

455
Q

Older adults are __________ to develop symptoms than are younger ones in regards to PTSD. (20)
Select one:

a. More likely
b. Less likely
c. Equally as likely
d. Not likely

A

Less likely

456
Q

Which of the tactical concepts requires the maintenance of the 6.5 feet reactionary gap and employs the “tactical mambo” in order to gain cover and improve sight lines? (27)
Select one:

a. Distance + Cover
b. Time
c. Tactical Repositioning
d. Tactical Pause
e. Tactical Disengagement

A

Tactical Repositioning

457
Q

__________ includes regulation. (8)
Select one:

a. Public places
b. Statutes
c. Law
d. Rule

A

Rule

458
Q

Which of the following is not a consideration for points of greatest potential congestion. (22)
Select one:

a. The longest line of traffic

b. The line of traffic threatening spillbacks into other lanes and intersections

c. The speed of the roadway

d. All the above are considered greatest potentials

A

The speed of the roadway

459
Q

The method of service that is always allowed on Sunday is __________. (14)
Select one:

a. third person to the defendant
b. by mail
c. by alternate service
d. publication
e. no method of service is ever allowed on Sunday

A

Publication

460
Q

__________ means anything reasonably regarded as economic gain or advantage, including benefit to any other person in whose welfare the beneficiary is interested. (8)
Select one:

a. Advance
b. Gift
c. Benefit
d. Interest

A

Benefit

461
Q

In __________, the Court held that as long as officers have a reasonable cause to believe that a traffic violation occurred, they may stop any vehicle. (6)
Select one:

a. Whren v. United States
b. Carroll v. United States
c. Arizona v. Gant
d. Terry v. Ohio

A

Whren v. United States

462
Q

What are the requirements for an owner of a dangerous dog? (39)
Select one:

a. Register the dangerous dog with the animal control authority for the area in which the dog is kept.

b. Post pictures of the dog on social media.

c. Restrain the dangerous dog at all times on a leash in the immediate control of a person or in a secure enclosure.

d. Both A & B

e. Both A & C

f. Both B & C

A

Both A & C

463
Q

What does it mean when a witness is put “under the rule?” (32)
Select one:

a. witness may not testify

b. witness may not speak to jurors about the case

c. witness may not speak to defense counsel about the case

d. witness may not speak to anyone the judge instructs you not to about the case

A

Witness may not speak to anyone the judge instructs you not to about the case

464
Q

__________ means the kind of control which one person exercises over another, not to confine him within his certain limits, but to subject him to the general authority and of the person claiming such right. (10)
Select one:

a. Arrest
b. Constructive custody
c. Articuble suspicion
d. Restraint

A

Restraint

465
Q

All Attachment for a Person may be served by __________. (14)
Select one:

a. a Sheriff
b. a Constable
c. Any Peace Officer
d. A or B
e. None of the above

A

A or B

466
Q

According to research published by the American Academy of Pediatrics, children with disabilities are __________ times more likely to suffer sexual abuse than children without disabilities. (18)
Select one:

a. 1 to 2
b. 2 to 4
c. 4 to 6
d. 6 to 8

A

2 to 4

467
Q

How many 8 ounce glasses of water are recommended for daily consumption? (3)
Select one:

a. 3-5
b. 1-3
c. 6-8
d. 4-6

A

6-8

468
Q

Two friends buy a boat together. One of them becomes angry at the other and tears up the boat that they purchased together. What offense, if any has been committed? (8)
Select one:

a. disorderly conduct
b. criminal mischief
c. assault
d. reckless damage or deconstruction

A

Criminal mischief

469
Q

You may perform a pedestrian stop when a pedestrian is __________. (35)
Select one:

a. Staying in the same place
b. Looks funny
c. Moving around too much
d. Passing other people on the street

A

Staying in the same place

470
Q

In a fight or flight reaction, adrenaline begins to pump through the body and physical senses may __________. (20)
Select one:

a. become very acute
b. begin to shut down
c. be relieved
d. A & B
e. B & C
f. All of the above

A

A & B

471
Q

Before a crime scene search is conducted, an officer must first determine if what is required? (32)
Select one:

a. authority
b. reasonable suspicion
c. probable cause
d. search warrant

A

Search warrant

472
Q

__________ is the constitution or a statute of this state or of the United States, a written opinion of a court of record, a municipal ordinance, an order of a county commissioners court, or a rule authorized by and lawfully adopted under a statute. (8)
Select one:

a. Constitution
b. Law
c. Penal code
d. TABC code

A

Law

473
Q

A peace officer cannot act on reasonable suspicion alone. (10)
Select one:

True
False

A

False

474
Q

According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, an officer must have __________ to believe the property is stolen to justify seizure of the property. (10)
Select one:

a. probable cause
b. reasonable ground
c. exigent circumstances
d. rational suspicion

A

Reasonable ground

475
Q

What percentage of an officer’s duties involve verbal skills? (28)
Select one:

a. 3%
b. 7%
c. 60%
d. 97%

A

97%

476
Q

John offers Jackie $35.00 to engage in sexual conduct with him. John has committed the offense of __________. (8)
Select one:

a. Promotion of Prostitution
b. Prostitution
c. Aggravated Promotion of Prostitution
d. Compelling Prostitution
e. Solicitation of Prostitution

A

Solicitation of Prostitution

477
Q

__________ is an act or omission forbidden by law and punishable by a fine, imprisonment, or even death. (32)
Select one:

a. Crime
b. Misconduct
c. Atrocity
d. Felony

A

Crime

478
Q

Child Safety Check Alert List remains in the TCIC system for __________ months. (19)
Select one:

a.6
b.12
c.24
d.48

A

12

479
Q

Which of the following factors most generally contributes to the mental and emotional injury to a child and is punishable under P.C. 22.04? (8)
Select one:

a. punishment
b. act of abuse
c. omission or neglect
d. spanking

A

Omission or neglect

480
Q

Time limitations for offenses refer to the time that what must occur? (9)
Select one:

a. a trial for the offense must begin.
b. an arrest warrant for the defendant is issued.
c. an indictment is presented.
d. an arrest warrant for the offense must be executed.

A

An indictment is presented

481
Q

County A and County B border each other. An offender is arrested on an outstanding warrant in County A, but is magistrated and incarcerated in County B. The offender cannot be detained in a jail in County B for more than how many hours? (10)
Select one:

a. 72
b. 48
c. 24
d. 12

A

72

482
Q

Which of the following is/are type(s) of dog aggression? (39)
Select one:

a. Passive Aggression
b. Cowardly Aggression
c. Territorial Aggression
d. Back Yard Aggression
e. All of the above

A

Territorial Aggression

483
Q

__________ is a telling of ease and harmony in a contact or relationship between people. (32)
Select one:

a. Compatibility
b. Rapport
c. Relationship
d. Simpatico

A

Rapport

484
Q

If a person refuses the request of a peace officer to submit to the taking of a specimen, the peace officer shall request the person to sign a statement that: the officer requested that the person submit to the taking of a specimen; __________; and the person refused to submit to the taking of a specimen. (23)
Select one:

a. Will be arrested
b. Will be allowed to drive home
c. Was informed of the consequences
d. Will be issued a warrant for arrest

A

Was informed of the consequences

485
Q

__________ refers to the process of engaging in the proactive and systematic examination of identified problems to develop and rigorously evaluate effective responses. (1)
Select one:

a. Organizational Transformation
b. Problem Solving
c. Critical Thinking
d. Finding Solutions

A

Problem Solving

486
Q

According to the Penal Code, the use of force, but not deadly force, against a child younger than __________ years of age is justified if the actor is the child’s parent. (28)
Select one:

a. 15
b. 16
c. 17
d. 18

A

18

487
Q

A person commits this offense if he recklessly engages in conduct that places another in imminent danger of serious bodily injury. (8)
Select one:

a. Endangerment
b. Manslaughter
c. Deadly conduct
d. Public endangerment

A

Deadly Conduct

488
Q

Which of the following groups or persons does not fall under the jurisdiction of the Transportation Code while upon a roadway? (22)
Select one:

a. Motor vehicle
b. A person riding an animal
c. A person riding a bicycle
d. A motor-driven cycle
e. All of the above fall under the jurisdiction of the Transportation Code

A

All of the above fall under the jurisdiction of the Transportation Code

489
Q

Civil judgments usually require the part adjudged of a wrongful act to compensate the wronged party in the form of __________. (14)
Select one:

a. goods
b. physical labor
c. indirect compensation
d. money

A

Money

490
Q

What determines a canine’s home range? (39)
Select one:

a. Size, age, and behavior
b. Terrain, weather, and climate
c. Intelligence, breed, and athleticism
d. All of the above

A

Size, age, and behavior

491
Q

The top priority for arriving officers, when feasible, is to __________ defuse and stabilize the situation as much as possible. (27)
Select one:

a. physically
b. emotionally
c. spiritually
d. verbally

A

Verbally

492
Q

A male person is at a night club and looks in the girls’ restroom to see if he can catch a glimpse at any partially clothed women. What offense has occurred? (8)
Select one:

a. Assault
b. Disorderly Conduct
c. Criminal Trespass - Building
d. Criminal Trespass - Habitation
e. None of the above

A

Disorderly Conduct

493
Q

Which of the following is not an element of an offense? (8)
Select one:

a. Forbidden conduct
b. Required culpability
c. Effective consent
d. Any required result
e. Negation of any exception

A

Effective consent

494
Q

A police sergeant makes sexual advances toward a female. The sergeant committed __________. (8)
Select one:

a. sexual harassment
b. official misconduct
c. official oppression
d. disorderly conduct

A

Official misconduct

495
Q

A search warrant issued on the 10th of July, 2009, is valid until __________. (9)
Select one:

a. July 12, 2009
b. July 14, 2009
c. July 15, 2009
d. July 17, 2009
e. the end of the month

A

July 14, 2009

496
Q

When treating shock, what do you need to control? (40)
Select one:

a. Breathing
b. Temperature
c. Movement
d. Bleeding

A

Bleeding

497
Q

At a police-stop, this is a courtesy we owe to every citizen stopped. Regardless of whether the officers are in a marked car and in uniform, first we should __________. (35)
Select one:

a. Greet and identify the police agency
b. Ask for identification
c. State of violation committed
d. State of rank and name

A

Greet and identify the police agency

498
Q

An individual that is “hard of hearing” may ___________.
Answer

a. rely on residual hearing
b. depend on visual methods to communicate
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above

A

Both A & B

499
Q

Impartiality is a fundamental __________ made of all peace officers. (5)
Select one:

a. Judgement
b. Requirement
c. Flaw
d. Reality

A

Requirement

500
Q

In relation to use of force, which of the following does not improve an officer’s self-control? (28)
Select one:

a. development of skills
b. self-confidence
c. training and practice
d. reactionary gap

A

Reactionary gap

501
Q

The health-related components are more important to well-being and quality of life than the __________ components. (3)
Select one:

a. fitness-related
b. wellness-related
c. skill-related
d. mental-related

A

Skill-related

502
Q

What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with Prelicensing and Reactivation? (4)
Select one:

a. 219
b. 221
c. 223
d. 225

A

219

503
Q

Civil law is __________. (14)
Select one:

a. The portion of the law which defines the rights of the individual in protecting his person

b. The portion of the law which defines the rights of the individual in protecting his property

c. The portion of the law specifically established to enforce violation of law

d. All of the above are correct

e. A and B are correct

A

A & B are correct

504
Q

Which of the following is not a consideration used by the courts to determine if unreasonable force was used? (28)
Select one:

a. motivation for force
b. need for force
c. area in which offense occurred
d. reasonableness of force

A

Area in which offense occurred

505
Q

According to the Texas Health and Safety Code, who is an animal control authority? (39)
Select one:

a. A municipal or county animal control office with authority over the area the dog is kept

b. A Sheriff in an area with no animal control office

c. A municipalities Police Chief

d. Both A & B

e. None of the above

A

Both A & B

506
Q

The taking of a specimen from a person who objects to the taking of the specimen or who is resisting the taking of the specimen does __________ in itself constitute negligence and may __________ considered evidence of negligence. (23)
Select one:

a. Not be, not

b. Not be, not be

c. Not, Not be

d. Indeed, in fact

A

Not, Not be

507
Q

The normal response to stress is __________. (3)
Select one:

a. suicide or attempted suicide
b. fight or flight
c. heightened sense of danger
d. anger
e. isolation or withdrawal

A

Fight or flight

508
Q

The ADA requires that law enforcement agencies must provide the communication aids and services need to communicate effectively with people who are deaf or hard of hearing regardless of the burden placed on law enforcement services provided.
Select one:

True
False

A

False

509
Q

Destroying personal possessions is an example of __________. (17)
Select one:

a. Physical abuse
b. Emotional abuse
c. Sexual abuse
d. Mental abuse

A

Emotional abuse

510
Q

In addition to the fine prescribed by Section 542.401 or another section of this subtitle, as applicable, a person who enters a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to or is convicted of an offense under this subtitle shall pay $50 as a __________. (22)
Select one:

a. Ticketing fine
b. Processing fee
c. Speeding ticket
d. State traffic fine

A

State traffic fine

511
Q

An emotional symptom of stress can be __________. (3)
Select one:

a. Fishing
b. Retirement
c. Depression
d. Having a short temper

A

Depression

512
Q

When dealing with an explosive device __________. (35)
Select one:

a. Move it to a safe space
b. Do not move it
c. Call for help, right there
d. None of these

A

Do not move it

513
Q

Self-control results from the development of __________ in one’s skills. (28)
Select one:

a. Mastery
b. Confidence
c. Persuasion of
d. Strength

A

Confidence

514
Q

_________ is the state of the case which, after the entire comparison and consideration of all the evidence, leaves the minds of jurors in the condition that they cannot say they feel an abiding conviction, to a moral certainty, of the truth of the charge. (32)
Select one:

a. The verdict
b. Reasonable doubt
c. Preponderance of the evidence
d. The summation

A

Reasonable doubt

515
Q

Impartial enforcement refers to both the interaction of the law and the __________ and the interaction of citizens when law enforcement becomes involved. (5)
Select one:

a. Government
b. Citizen
c. Military
d. Public

A

Citizen

516
Q

Which characteristic of a criminal investigator is described by “desires to investigate and learn the facts and truth about people, places or objects”? This can include being habitually curious of spontaneous statements by suspects or when an unusual amount of money is in the possession of a person of modest means. (32)
Select one:

a. Observant
b. Suspicious
c. Curious
d. Cautious

A

Curious

517
Q

__________ is the forbidden conduct; the required culpability; any required result; and the negation of any exception to the offense. (8)
Select one:

a. Reason of arrest
b. Element of offense
c. Charges
d. Offense

A

Element of offense

518
Q

__________ means to restrict a person’s movements without consent, so as to interfere substantially with the person’s liberty, by moving the person from one place to another or by confining the person. (8)
Select one:

a. Restrain
b. Abduct
c. Kidnap
d. Apprehend

A

Restraint

519
Q

Evidence seized under the invalid search warrant but seized in good faith can __________. (10)
Select one:

a. not be used in court.
b. be used in court only in the sentencing phase.
c. still be used in court.
d. be returned to the defendant.

A

Still be used in court

520
Q

The officer’s objective is to obtain articulable __________ and circumstances that rise to the level of either reasonable suspicion which gives officers the power to detain or probable cause which permits the officer to arrest. (10)
Select one:

a. Suspicions
b. Reasons
c. Questions
d. Facts

A

Facts

521
Q

The county courts shall have original jurisdiction of all misdemeanors of which exclusive original jurisdiction is not given to the justice court, and when the fine to be imposed shall exceed __________. (7)
Select one:

a. 1000
b. 5000
c. 500
d. 1500

A

500

522
Q

Three basic kinds of information necessary in police reports include __________. (24)
Select one or more:

a. Identification
b. Narrative
c. Elements of the offense
d. Direction

A

Identification, Narrative, Elements of the offense

523
Q

The four communication principles include: (27)

Manage your emotions and reactions
_________________________________
Make sure the other person feels heard
_________________________________
Select one:

a. Learn to listen; Make sure the person understands your diagnosis

b. Learn to listen; Make people feel valuable

c. Make sure the person understands your diagnosis; make people feel valuable

d. Clearly state your intentions; ask how you can help

A

Learn to listen; Make people feel valuable

524
Q

__________ is/are fixed false beliefs that are maintained despite overwhelming evidence to the contrary. (29)
Select one:

a. Schizophrenia
b. Delusions
c. Mental illness
d. Hallucinations

A

Delusions

525
Q

Something that an officer must do in every situation is to maintain a professional __________. (28)
Select one:

a. Look
b. Appearance
c. Uniform
d. Attitude

A

Attitude

526
Q

This court has the power and authority to grant and issue and cause the issuance of writs of habeas corpus, and, in criminal law matters, the writs of mandamus, procedendo, prohibition, and certiorari. (7)
Select one:

a. Municipal Courts
b. Court of Criminal Appeals
c. Districts Courts
d. Civil Courts

A

Court of Criminal Appeals

527
Q

In reference to Penal Code 30.04 Burglary of Vehicle, “entry” into a vehicle would include which of the following? (8)
Select one:

a. An arm
b. An object connected with the body
c. The entire body
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

All of the above

528
Q

Any communication requesting a response to an emergency is emergency communications. (36)
Select one:

True
False

A

True

529
Q

We tend to categorize people and make judgments about them rather than evaluate them based on their individual _________. (5)
Select one:

a. Looks
b. Character
c. Personality
d. Morals

A

Character

530
Q

Peter has been terminated from the Post Office. In anger, he calls and states that there is a letter bomb in the mail. This causes evacuation of the Post Office and the alert of the fire department and bomb squad. What offense has been committed? (8)
Select one:

a. Terroristic Threat
b. False Alarm or Report
c. Disorderly Conduct
d. Interference with Duties of Public Servants
e. Retaliation

A

False Alarm or Report

531
Q

__________ is the measurement of the impact(s) of the responses on the targeted crime/disorder problem using information collected from multiple sources, both before and after the responses has been implemented. (1)
Select one:

a. Scanning
b. Analysis
c. Response
d. Assessment

A

Assessment

532
Q

__________ is criminal or tortious or both and includes what would be criminal or tortious but for a defense not amounting to justification or privilege. (8)
Select one:

a. Lawful
b. Unlawful
c. Criminal
d. Samaritan

A

Unlawful

533
Q

What type of injury must occur to constitute an assault punishable as a class A misdemeanor? (8)
Select one:

a. Offensive contact
b. Imminent bodily injury
c. Bodily injury
d. Serious bodily injury
e. None of the above

A

Bodily Injury

534
Q

Which of the following is not a route of exposure to hazardous materials? (42)
Select one:

a. ingestion
b. inhalation
c. absorption
d. reduction

A

Reduction

535
Q

Which form designates the statement of appointment? (4)
Select one:

a. L-1
b. L-2
c. L-3
d. L-4

A

L-1

536
Q

Motor vehicle refers to which of the following __________. (22)
Select one:

a. Every device, with wheels, operated upon the highway.

b. Every vehicle which is self-propelled.

c. All cars, trucks, bicycles and motorcycles.

d. Every device, with wheels, except those powered by human energy, operated upon the highway.

A

Every vehicle which is self-propelled

537
Q

Section 2.272 of the __________ provides the specific authority an officer has as it relates to the Child Safety Check Alert List. (19)
Select one:

a. Family Code
b. Health and Safety Code
c. Code of Criminal Procedure
d. Penal Code

A

Code of Criminal Procedure

538
Q

Section 1.03 - Objectives of this Code, identifies six (6) objectives that are sought. #3 states: “To insure a trial with as little delay as possible.” Which Constitutional Amendment does this objective support? (7)
Select one:

a. First

b. Fourth

c. Fifth

d. Sixth

e. No Amendment, just a good ethical practice

A

Sixth

539
Q

A __________ is a place designated by law for confinement of persons arrested for, charged with, or convicted of an offense. (8)
Select one:

a. Penal institution
b. Prison
c. Jail
d. Penitentiary

A

Penal Institution

540
Q

A protective order issued under Article 7A.03 may be effective for __________. (9)
Select one:

a. the duration of the lives of the offender and victim

b. any shorter period stated in the order

c. If a period is not stated in the order, until the second anniversary of the date the order was issued

d. All of the above

A

All of the above

541
Q

Nighttime means the period beginning one half hour before sunset and ending one half hour after sunrise. (22)
Select one:

True
False

A

False

542
Q

A person may not be prosecuted for or convicted of any offense that he committed when younger than _______ years of age except perjury, aggravated perjury, etc. (8)
Select one:

a. 15
b. 14
c. 13
d. 16
e. 17

A

15

543
Q

According to the Alcoholic Beverage Code, a mixed beverage permittee may normally sell and offer for sale mixed beverages between the hours of __________ on any day except Sunday. (16)
Select one:

a. 7 a.m. and midnight
b. 1 a.m. and midnight
c. 10 a.m. and noon
d. Noon and midnight

A

7 a.m. and midnight

544
Q

Street Thieves are the most dangerous type of __________. (32)
Select one:

a. forgery criminals
b. auto thieves
c. skateboard riding thieves
d. jack wagons

A

Auto thieves

545
Q

__________ make up the foundation on which the Wellness Pyramid is built. (3)
Select one:

a. Self-responsibility and stress management

b. Smoking cessation and weight control

c. Regular exercise and proper nutrition

d. Strength and cardiovascular endurance

A

Regular exercise and proper nutrition

546
Q

__________ means the restraint of property by a peace officer under Article 59.03(a) or (b) of this code, whether the officer restrains the property by physical force or by a display of the officer’s authority, and includes the collection of property or the act of taking possession of property. (11)
Select one:

a. Forfeiture
b. Taking
c. Commandeering
d. Seizure

A

Seizure

547
Q

The purpose of the Child Safety Check Alert List is for CPS to locate a child and the legal guardian(s) to __________. (19)
Select one:

a. Investigate a report of child abuse or neglect

b. Provide protective services to a family receiving family-based safety services

c. Locate missing children

d. Both A and B

e. Both B and C

A

Both A & B

548
Q

__________ is a group of serious and often debilitating mental disorders that may be of organic or psychological origin and are characterized by some or all of the following symptoms: impaired thinking and reasoning ability, perceptual distortions, inappropriate emotional responses, inappropriate affect, regressive behavior, reduced impulse control and impaired reasoning of reality. (29)
Select one:

a. Psychosis
b. Borderline
c. Insanity
d. Delusional

A

Psychosis

549
Q

If stress tension comes from a relationship with a person, you should __________. (3)
Select one:

a. never talk about the problem
b. talk out your differences
c. withdraw from the relationship
d. file a civil suit against that person

A

Talk out your differences

550
Q

__________ means unauthorized departure from custody or failure to return to custody following temporary leave for a specific purpose. (8)
Select one:

a. Departure
b. Fugitive
c. Nonrestraint
d. Escape

A

Escape

551
Q

What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with Proficiency? (4)
Select one:

a. 219
b. 221
c. 223
d. 225

A

221

552
Q

__________ means a person who has title to the property, possession of the property, whether lawful or not, or a greater right to possession of the property than the actor; or is a holder in due course of a negotiable instrument. (8)
Select one:

a. Owner
b. Possessor
c. Creator
d. Crafter

A

Owner

553
Q

__________ is a place designated by law for the confinement of a person arrested for, charged with, or convicted of a criminal offense. (8)
Select one:

a. Jail
b. Prison
c. Correctional facility
d. Penal institution

A

Correctional facility

554
Q

A __________ means a notice placed on a consumer file that prohibits a consumer-reporting agency from releasing a consumer report relating to the extension of credit involving the consumer file without the express authorization of the consumer. (12)
Select one:

a. security alert
b. authorization notice
c. security freeze
d. validation lock

A

Security freeze

555
Q

The phases of transition that persons who experience traumatic events typically go through are all of these except __________. Select one:

a. Denial
b. Physical
c. Anger
d. Bargaining
e. Depression

A

Physical

556
Q

The physical response to trauma is based on our animal instincts. It includes __________. (3)
Select one:

a. physical shock, disorientation, and numbness: “frozen fright.”

b. “fight-or-flight” reaction

c. exhaustion

d. a and b above, but not c

e. a, b, and c above

A

A, B, and C above

557
Q

This crime is committed by groups comprised of both amateurs and professionals, includes Insurance Fraud Swindlers, Use-In-Crime theft, Unauthorized joy riding, strippers, dismantlers and professional auto thieves. (32) Select one:

a. Grand theft auto
b. Auto theft
c. Arson
d. Car jacking

A

Auto theft

558
Q

The Texas Family code defines child as __________. (33)
Select one:

a. A person who is 10 years or older and under 17 years of age

b. A person who is under 17 years of age

c. A person who is under 10 years of age

d. A person who is 10 years of age or younger and under 17 years of age

e. Texas has been unable to define child due to Supreme Court rulings

A

A person who is 10 years or older and under 17 years of age

559
Q

According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, if a __________ from another state comes into or passes through his state under an order directing him to attend and testify in this or another state, he is not subject to arrest or the service of civil or criminal process because of any act committed prior to his arrival in this state under the order. (10)
Select one:

a. defendant
b. legislator
c. witness
d. officer

A

Witness

560
Q

__________ riders are speeders that ride dangerously. (22)
Select one:

a. Cruiser class
b. Speedster
c. Racer
d. Sport bike

A

Sport Bike

561
Q

A person’s health/disease status and risk potential ranges on a continuum from death to optimal well-being. It is not just the absence of disease; but is a state of positive well-being is ones __________. (3)
Select one:

a. Overall Health
b. Fitness
c. Wellness
d. Nutrition

A

Wellness

562
Q

According to the Family code, an application for a protective order may be filed: In the county where an individual alleged to have committed family violence resides or __________. (17)
Select one:

a. Where the victim lives
b. Where the county seat is
c. At the courthouse
d. At a lawyer’s office

A

Where the victim lives

563
Q

An operator may not stop, stand, or park a vehicle within __________ feet of a fire hydrant. (22)
Select one:

a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30

A

15

564
Q

Daytime is from __________. (22)
Select one:

a. one-half hour after sunrise to one-half hour before sunset

b. one hour before sunrise to one-half hour after sunset

c. one-half hour before sunrise to one hour after sunset

d. one-half hour before sunrise to one-half hour after sunset

A

one-half hour before sunrise to one-half hour after sunset

565
Q

The writ that is issued under seal, commanding a peace officer to deliver the body of a witness before a grand jury proceeding is called __________. (14)
Select one:

a. a summons
b. an attachment
c. a subpoena
d. a commitment

A

An attachment

566
Q

__________ means a threat to commit an offense, to inflict bodily injury in the future on the person threatened or another, to accuse a person of any offense, to expose a person to hatred, contempt, or ridicule, to harm the credit or business repute of any person, to take or withhold action as a public servant, or to cause a public servant to take or withhold action. (8)
Select one:

a. Tempt
b. Coercion
c. Browbeating
d. Duress

A

Coercion

567
Q

Only two officers should be communicating with the subject. (29)
Select one:

True
False

A

False

568
Q

Opium and opiates, and a salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of opium or opiates, cocaine, coca leaves are all examples of __________. (15)
Select one:

a. Opiate
b. Narcotic Drugs
c. Psychosomatic Drugs
d. Weed

A

Narcotic Drugs

569
Q

__________ refers to the alignment of organizational management, structure, personnel, and information systems to support community partnerships and proactive problem solving. (1)
Select one:

a. Administration
b. Supervision
c. Organizational Transformation
d. Community Policing

A

Organizational Transformation

570
Q

__________ is an opinion or leaning adverse to anything without just grounds or before obtaining sufficient knowledge. (5)
Select one:

a. Preconception
b. Xenophobia
c. Prejudice
d. Antipathy

A

Prejudice

571
Q

A liquid that has a flash point of not more than 70 degrees Fahrenheit as determined by a tagliabue or equivalent closed-cup test device. (42)
Select one:

a. Gasoline
b. Kerosene
c. Flammable liquid
d. Combustible substance

A

Flammable Liquid

572
Q

During the “Traffic Control” stage what should be done? (22)
Select one:

a. Administer First Aid

b. In case of fire- notify the fire dept.

c. Remove vehicles and debris

d. All the above are part of the traffic control stage.

A

Remove vehicles and debris

573
Q

Section 261.301 of the __________ provides guidelines for how and when DFPS and law enforcement should investigate jointly a report of abuse/neglect of a child. (19)
Select one:

a. Penal Code
b. Health and Safety Code
c. Juvenile Code
d. Family Code

A

Family Code

574
Q

Most of the workload of patrol officers and detectives consists of handling crimes that have already been committed, disturbances in progress, traffic violations, and such. Exceptions include crime prevention and narcotics investigations. (2)
Select one:

a. reactive response
b. incident driven
c. proactive policing
d. case driven

A

Reactive Response

575
Q

Stressors confronting the individual officer are all of the following except? (3)
Select one:

a. Individual safety
b. Necessity to conform
c. Altered social status
d. Concern for the department

A

Concern for the department

576
Q

__________ means “of or relating to court action taken by one party without notice to the other for temporary or emergency relief.” (17)
Select one:

a. Ad litem
b. Ex Parte
c. In Re
d. Nulla Bona

A

Ex Parte

577
Q

__________ is the Distortion in the senses causing the individual to experience hearing or seeing something that is not there. (29)
Select one:

a. Hallucinations
b. Psychosis
c. Insanity
d. Delusional

A

Hallucinations

578
Q

__________ is an act or omission forbidden by law and punishable by a fine, imprisonment, or even death. (32)
Select one:

a. Crime
b. Misconduct
c. Atrocity
d. Felony

A

Crime

579
Q

A person abducts a child and demands a ransom for the child’s release. The person gets scared and releases the child unharmed. According to the Penal Code, what is the most serious offense committed? (8)
Select one:

a. Kidnapping
b. Aggravated kidnapping
c. Unlawful restraint
d. Interference with child custody

A

Aggravated Kidnapping

580
Q

__________ means the delivery of a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research, by a practitioner or person acting under the lawful order of a practitioner, to an ultimate user or research subject. (15)
Select one:

a. Dispense
b. Distribute
c. Delivery
d. Circulate

A

Dispense

581
Q

According to Sec. 32.31 of the Penal Code, a person commits the offense of __________ if, with intent to obtain a benefit fraudulently, he uses a credit card with knowledge that the card was not issued to him and he does not have the effective consent of the card owner to use the card. (8)
Select one:

a. Receiving Stolen Property
b. Credit Card Abuse
c. Forgery
d. Credit Card Laundering

A

Credit Card Abuse

582
Q

According to the Transportation Code, it is unlawful to operate an open bed pickup truck with a child younger than __________ in the open bed. (22)
Select one:

a. 12
b. 15
c. 18
d. 21

A

18

583
Q

A person crawls into a window in a warehouse to get out of the rain. The owner finds the person asleep the next morning and calls the police. The person committed which offense? (8)
Select one:

a. No offense
b. Burglary
c. Disorderly conduct
d. Criminal trespass

A

Criminal Trespass

584
Q

An inventory is a search of a person’s car for contraband. (10)
Select one:

True
False

A

False

585
Q

You arrest a person who advised they are a citizen of Singapore. Which statement on the Consular Notification card do you read? (13)
Select one:

a. Statement 1 - For All Foreign Nationals Except Those from “Mandatory Notification” Countries

b. Statement 2 - For Foreign Nationals from “Mandatory Notification” Countries

A

Statement 2 - For Foreign Nationals from “Mandatory Notification” Countries

586
Q

Which of these is not one of the elements of CPR? (40)
Select one:

a. Clear the airway

b. Control blood loss

c. Breathe for victim

d. Maintain circulation by chest compressions

A

Control the blood loss

587
Q

A person in the course of committing theft, and with the intent to obtain or maintain control of property, he intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly places another in fear of imminent bodily injury or death. (8)
Select one:

a. Theft by appropriation
b. Theft
c. Aggravated Robbery
d. Robbery

A

Robbery

588
Q

After an arrest for a traffic offense or warrant, a search of the passenger compartment of the vehicle is most likely __________ under Arizona v. Gant. (10)
Select one:

a. Unlawful
b. Unnecessary
c. Unusual
d. Uncommon

A

Unlawful

589
Q

A person remained hidden in a washroom until the department store closed with the intent to steal a necktie worth $3.00. He/she has committed __________. (8)
Select one:

a. Criminal mischief
b. Criminal Trespass
c. Burglary
d. Theft class C

A

Burglary

590
Q

A package store may sell liquor on which of the following days? (16)
Select one:

a. Election Day
b. Christmas Day
c. Thanksgiving Day
d. New Years Day

A

Election Day

591
Q

Refusal of the taking of a specimen will result in license suspension for a minimum __________ days. (23)
Question 46Select one:

a. 121
b. 150
c. 180
d. 15

A

180

592
Q

__________ includes affirmation. (8)
Select one:

a. Pinkie promise
b. Oath
c. Vow
d. Pledge

A

Oath

593
Q

An officer observes a male and female having sex in a local park late at night. Nobody is in the park that could possibly witness the couple’s actions. What offense has occurred? (8)
Select one:

a. Homosexual Conduct
b. Disorderly Conduct - Exposure
c. Public Lewdness
d. Indecent Exposure
e. None of the above

A

Public Lewdness

594
Q

__________ is the conduct, other than a traffic offense, that violates a penal law of this state or of the United States punishable by imprisonment or by confinement in jail. (33)
Select one:

a. Delinquent conduct
b. Child in need of supervision
c. Violation of probation
d. Status offense

A

Delinquent Conduct

595
Q

An affidavit that alleges the commission of an offense is called a __________. (10)
Select one:

a. summons
b. complaint
c. capias
d. warrant

A

Complaint

596
Q

When an officer makes an arrest, he may make a __________ of a person for__________. (10)
Select one:

a. weapons search/safety
b. full search/anything
c. inventory survey/evidence
d. pat down/elements of an offense

A

Full search/anything

597
Q

When Mr. Adams agrees with one or more persons to engage in a felony offense and one of them carries out the offense, Mr. Adams may be charged with __________. (8)
Select one:

a. the offense itself
b. criminal attempt
c. a misdemeanor
d. criminal conspiracy
e. none of the above

A

Criminal Conspiracy

598
Q

Every motor vehicle shall be equipped with at least how many head lamps in working order? (22)
Select one:

a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
e. more than two

A

Two

599
Q

Which of the following judge’s rulings to an objection permits an officer to still answer the question when testifying in court? (32)
Select one:

a. sustained

b. overruled

c. denied

d. an officer must answer every question asked

A

Overruled

600
Q

__________ is not paying attention to what is said; such as merely waiting for the opportunity to speak as soon as someone finishes talking. (28)
Select one:

a. Day dreaming
b. Sleeping
c. Improper listening
d. Zoning out

A

Improper listening

601
Q

Under the Texas Disaster Act of 1975, who has control of the Division of Emergency Management? (36)
Select one:

a. Department of Public Safety
b. Department of Homeland Security
c. Department of the Treasurer
d. Department of Defense

A

Department of Public Safety

602
Q

What type of injury must occur to constitute an assault punishable as a class A misdemeanor? (8)
Select one:

a. Offensive contact
b. Imminent bodily injury
c. Bodily injury
d. Serious bodily injury
e. None of the above

A

Bodily Injury

603
Q

__________ means the human kidney, liver, heart, lung, pancreas, eye, bone, skin, fetal tissue, or any other human organ or tissue. (8)
Select one:

a. Human tissue
b. Human parts
c. Human organ
d. Human derivatives

A

Human Organ

604
Q

Which of the following is not a type of crime scene sketch?

A

Charted

605
Q

A person commits ”______________” if he is in possession of a burning tobacco product or smokes tobacco in a facility of a public primary or secondary school, an elevator, enclosed theater, movie house, library, museum, hospital, transit system bus, intrastate bus, plane, or train which is a public place.

a. Official Misconduct

b. Disorderly Conduct

c. Smoking Tobacco

d. Prohibited Use of a Tobacco Product

A

Smoking Tobacco

606
Q

Writ of Habeas Corpus may be issued by ______________.

a. All of these

b. County Court

c. District Court

d. Court of Criminal Appeals

e. None of these

A

All of these

607
Q

A writ issued from a court of competent jurisdiction to another court to command performance of a specific duty which a person is entitled to have performed.

a. Writ of Execution

b. Writ of Garnishment

c. Writ of Habeas Corpus

d. Writ of Mandamus

e. Writ of Possession

f. None of these

A

Writ of Mandamus

608
Q

Investigations relating to the deprivation of civil rights under color of law are usually conducted by the _____

a. Federal Civil Rights Commission
b. United States Attorney General
c. Federal Bureau of Investigation
d. Attorney General of Texas

A

Federal Bureau of Investigation

609
Q

The expression or use of facts without distortion by personal feelings or prejudices - neutrality is the definition of ___.

a. Professionalism
b. Ethical integrity
c. Objectivity
d. Courage

A

Objectivity

610
Q

Title 18, Section ______ is designed to protect people from the deprivation of their civil rights under the color of law.

a. 324
b. 240
c. 241
d. 242

A

242

611
Q

What is the most important mineral?

a. Water
b. Vitamins
c. Fat
d. Carbohydrates

A

Water

612
Q

According to Commission rules, the license of any licensee who does not meet the legislatively required continuing education by the expiration date will _____.

a. terminate
b. expire
c. lapse
d. defer

A

Expire

613
Q

______ generally refers to groups of people with common ancestry and physical characteristics.

a. Ethnicity
b. Culture
c. Discrimination
d. Race

A

Race

614
Q

Acting on the basis of prejudice is _____.

a. Bias
b. Discrimination
c. Fear
d. Attitude

A

Discrimination

615
Q

Having an adverse judgment or opinion formed beforehand or without knowledge of or examination of the facts is _____.

a. Attitude
b. Discrimination
c. Prejudice
d. Stereotyping

A

Prejudice

616
Q

According to _____, a traffic violation is acceptable as pretext for further investigation.

a. Carroll v. U.S.
b. Whren v. U.S.
c. Terry v. Ohio
d. Tennessee v. Garner

A

Whren v. U.S.

617
Q

According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, appeals from the Justice Court are heard by the ____ Court.

a. County
b. District
c. Appeals
d. Criminal Appeals

A

County

618
Q

An operator shall dim headlights when an approaching vehicle is within _____ feet.

a. 1000
b. 500
c. 1500
d. 300

A

500

619
Q

Under Transportation Code 724.014 which of the following are authorized to collect blood specimen if the person is dead, unconscious or otherwise incapable of refusal.

a. Corrections officer
b. Designated person
c. Medical examiner
d. Magistrate

A

Medical Examiner

620
Q

Which of the following court cases refer to an officers training and experiences as it applies to DWI enforcement?

a. Jones v. State
b. Gambino v. State
c. Curtis v. State
d. Arrendondo v. State

A

Curtis v. State

621
Q

A(n) ______ is a word or combination of words typically serving as a modifier of an adjective.

a. Verb
b. Adverb
c. Modifier
d. Preposition

A

Adverb

622
Q

A sentence typically contains both a subject and a ______ begins with a capital letter, and ends with a punctuation mark.

a. Verb
b. Adverb
c. Predicate
d. Preposition

A

Predicate

623
Q

How many steps are in the Critical Decision Making Model?

a. four
b. three
c. five
d. seven

A

five

624
Q

Which of the following was not one of the uses of the Critical Decision Making Model in responding to and managing a critical incident.

a. Collect information
b. “Tactical Pause”
c. Decision making
d. Preparing yourself

A

Decision making

625
Q

An officer who is present at the scene and who fails to take reasonable steps to protect the victim of another officer’s use of excessive force can be held liable under ______.

A

42 USC Sec. 1983

626
Q

According to the Texas Penal Code, the use of force, but not deadly force, may be justified under special relationships. Which of the following is not one of those special relationships specifically listed in the Penal Code?

a. Guardian-incompetent
b. Educator-student
c. Doctor-patient
d. Parent-child

A

Doctor-patient

627
Q

One of the greatest assets to use in dealing with a law violator is ______.

a. crowd control
b. self-control
c. verbal judo
d. compulsion

A

Self-control

628
Q

Which of the following is not an event that result in a person feeling as though he/she is in a crisis situation.

a. spouse infidelity
b. death of a loved one
c. getting locked out of house/car
d. legal difficulties

A

spouse infidelity

629
Q

According to FC 51.03 (b3), the absence of a child on three of more days or parts of days within a four-week period from school is _______.

a. delinquent conduct
b. conduct indicating a need for supervision
c. habitual conduct
d. truant conduct

A

conduct indicating a need for supervision

630
Q

Weaponless strategies include ______.

a. verbal communication
b. cultural awareness
c. touching
d. maintaining distance

A

touching

631
Q

When handcuffing two suspects together with one set of handcuffs, it is recommended to handcuff ______.

a. right hand to right hand
b. right hand to left hand
c. arms interlocking
d. hands to the rear

A

right hand to right hand

632
Q

Wet evidence such as bloodstains, semen stains, and mud must be ______.

a. packaged in plastic bags
b. allowed to dry before packaging
c. refrigerated
d. wrapped in paper first

A

allowed to dry before packaging

633
Q

______ of witnesses is when witnesses, including officers, are ordered by the judge to leave the courtroom, stay close to the courtroom, and not discuss the case with other witnesses or jurors.

a. Exclusion
b. Dismissal
c. Subpoena
d. Calling

A

Exclusion

634
Q

When a seriously injured victim is still conscious upon an officer’s arrival, the officer should ______.

a. determine why the victim was at the scene
b. obtain proper identification of the victim
c. ask the victim if there were any witnesses present
d. check the victim’s criminal record

A

obtain proper identification of the victim

635
Q

A _________ is more likely to resort to violence against a victim.

a. Burglar
b. juvenile thief
c. semi-professional thief
d. professional thief

A

Semi-professional thief

636
Q

Every law enforcement officer is a crime prevention officer by the technical definition as well as by the ________ responsibilities of the job.

a. moral
b. assigned
c. specialized
d. recognized

A

moral

637
Q

When an officer is alone, more _______ is devoted to patrol functions and duties.

a. time
b. attention
c. observation
d. service

A

attention

638
Q

According to the CCP, whenever a peace officer meets with resistance in discharging any duty imposed on him by law, he ______ command a sufficient number of citizens of his county to overcome the resistance.

a. may
b. shall
c. can
d. will

A

shall

639
Q

Proactive anticipation, recognition, and appraisal of a crime risk and the action needed to remove or reduce that risk is crime ______.

a. prevention
b. reduction
c. recognition
d. prosecution

A

prevention

640
Q

Flexibility where the use of motorized vehicles is impractical, high visibility, and intense patrol are some advantages of ____.

a. foot patrol
b. selective enforcement
c. bicycle patrol
d. directed enforcement

A

bicycle patrol

641
Q

Which of the following is not a criteria for requesting a Silver Alert.

a. The senior citizen is on medications needed to stay alive

b. Over 65 years old

c. Within 72 hours of the senior citizens disappearance

d. Is there sufficient information available to disseminate to the public that could assist in locating the senior citizen.

A

The senior citizen is on medications needed to stay alive

642
Q

Which of the following is not a criteria for entry when requesting a blue alert.

a. an offender has assaulted a peace officer and is at large

b. a law enforcement officer must have been killed or seriously injured by an offender

c. the offender poses a serious risk or threat to the public and other law enforcement personnel

d. a detailed description of the offender’s vehicle, vehicle tag, or partial tag must be available for broadcast to the public

A

An offender has assaulted a peace officer and is at large

643
Q

Which of the following is an effective procedure for bleeding control.

a. Apply direct pressure
b. Tourniquet application
c. Apply pressure bandage
d. All of the Above are effective for bleeding control

A

All of the Above

644
Q

Which of the following is not part of the procedure for burns

a. Application of a medical grade gel designed for burns

b. Get medical help and provide comfort

c. Make sure the location is safe for you and the patient

d. Cover the victim to prevent heat loss

A

Application of a medical grade gel designed for burns

645
Q

The basic procedures for safeguarding lives at a CBRNE event should use the _____ acronym.

a. DOSE
b. RAIN
c. PPE
d. RAID

A

RAIN
(Recognize, Avoid, Isolate, Notify)

646
Q

The route of exposure to hazardous material by being cut by a contaminated object.

a. inhalation
b. absorption
c. injection
d. ingestion

A

injection

647
Q

The first P in PURPLE stands for ______.

a. Pain like face
b. Punish
c. Pain in body
d. Peak of Crying

A

Peak of Crying

648
Q

Intent, ____________, actual seizure, and understanding of the individual being arrested are the 4 elements that have been used by the courts to determine whether an arrest has occurred.

a. Authority
b. Probable Cause
c. Control
d. Custody

A

Authority

649
Q

Persons may be approached and questions asked based upon mere suspicion, and they:

a. may be required to identify themselves
b. may be detained
c. may be searched
d. may refuse to answer questions

A

may refuse to answer questions

650
Q

Understanding on the behalf of the individual being arrested that he is arrested without any physical control being demonstrated by the officer is the definition of _______.

a. restraint
b. detention
c. constructive custody
d. arrest

A

constructive custody

651
Q

Under Article 15.02 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, Requisites of Warrant, the warrant must state:

a. the full name of the person arrested
b. whether it may be served day of night
c. the officer’s name serving the warrant
d. the name of the offense charged

A

the name of the offense charged

652
Q

Which one of the following is correct concerning the limitation on prosecution for offenses?

a. theft by public servant - ten years
b. burglary - ten years
c. there is no limitations
d. misdemeanor - three years

A

theft by public servant - ten years

653
Q

An indictment or information for any misdemeanor may be presented within ______ years from the date of the commission of the offense, and not afterward.

a. ten
b. two
c. five
d. three

A

two

654
Q

If a person intentionally or knowingly hinder the entrance of a Justice of the Peace to a premise where a death occurred or a body is found, the person commits a:

a. Class A misdemeanor
b. Class B misdemeanor
c. Capital Felony
d. State Jail Felony

A

Class B misdemeanor

655
Q

According to Article 15.05 in the Code of Criminal Procedure, a criminal complaint must be signed by the:

a. officer
b. affiant
c. magistrate
d. clerk

A

affiant

656
Q

The Objective of a “Writ of Habeas Corpus”

a. to prevent a second trial of an accused
b. to set free an imprisoned person
c. to insure a fair trial
d. none of the listed answers is correct
e. to bring a party before a court or judge

A

to bring a party before a court or judge

657
Q

A person attempting to be licensed as a peace officer must not ever been convicted of an offense above a _______ or a _________ misdemeanor within 10 years.

a. class B misdemeanor - class B misdemeanor

b. class A misdemeanor - class A misdemeanor

c. State Jail Felony - State Jail Felony

d. Class C Misdemeanor - Class C misdemeanor

A

class B misdemeanor - class B misdemeanor

658
Q

The National Commission on Law Observance and Enforcement (Wickersham Commission) reported in 1931 “the greatest promise for the future of policing is the:

a. college or university
b. chain of command
c. motorized patrol unit
d. unity of command

A

college or university

659
Q

Police professionalism was again an issue in the late 60’s when the President’s Commission on Law Enforcement and the Administration of Justice stated in 1967 that the ultimate aim of all police departments was for personnel with general enforcement powers to have:

a. motorized patrol units
b. elected officials
c. higher pay
d. baccalaureate degrees

A

baccalaureate degrees

660
Q

A first degree felon offender with one prior felony conviction (other than a state jail felony) may be imprisoned for a minimum of:

a. two years
b. twenty-five years
c. fifteen years
d. ten years

A

Fifteen years

661
Q

A person adjudged guilty of ______ shall be confined in the Texas Department of Criminal Justice for a term of two years to ten years and a fine not to exceed ten-thousand dollars.

a. second degree felony
b. first degree felony
c. state jail felony
d. third degree felony

A

Third degree felony

662
Q

A person commits an offense if by means of coercion he influences or attempts to influence a public servant in a specific exercise of his official power or a specific performance of his official duty. This is known as:

a. Official Oppression
b. Improper Influcence
c. Bribery
d. Coercion of Public Servant or Voter

A

Coercion of Public Servant or Voter

663
Q

A person commits “indecency with a child” if, with a child younger than _____ years of age and not his spouse, whether the child is of the same or opposite sex, he engages in sexual contact with the child.

a. 15
b. 17
c. 16
d. 18

A

17

664
Q

Sexual intercourse means which of the following?

a. any contact between any part of the genitals of one person and the mouth or anus of another person

b. All of the listed answers are sexual intercourse

c. penetration of the female sex organ by the male sex organ

d. penetration of the female sex organ with any object

A

penetration of the female sex organ by the male sex organ

665
Q

A person is mad because his water bill is higher than he believes it should be. He decides to get even by making a prank call. He calls the water department in that city and states that he has planted a bomb inside the water department and that it will detonate at 3 o’clock p.m. that afternoon. He has committed what offense?

a. False alarm or report/Third degree felony

b. Harassment/ Class A misdemeanor

c. False alarm or report/ Class A misdemeanor

d. False alarm or report/ State Jail Felony

A

False alarm or report/ State Jail Felony

666
Q

Which of the following is not a component of a sentence?

a. pseudonym
b. adjective
c. all of the listed answers are components
d. noun
e. preposition

A

pseudonym

667
Q

Behavior that ignores the basic goals of the criminal justice system and which only serves individual or agency oriented motives tend to:

a. run counter to the reason that the system exists

b. confuse people

c. all listed answers are correct

d. cause people to lose confidence in the system

A

all listed answers are correct

668
Q

A peace officer who gives materially false testimony under oath in a court of law is subject to confinement in:

a. prison for two to 10 years and may be fined up to $10,000

b. jail for one year and may be fined up to $4,000

c. prison for 2 to 20 years and may be be fined up to $10,000

d. the state penitentiary for 5 to 99 years and may be fined up to $10,000

e. jail for 180 days and may be fined up to $2,000

A

prison for two to 10 years and may be fined up to $10,000

669
Q

One of the principles of Witnessmanship is:

a. subjectivity
b. brevity
c. volunteering information
d. remaining emotionless

A

brevity

670
Q

A dead print is a latent print you may find:

a. in a morgue
b. on a damp or wet surface
c. on a cool or cold surface
d. on a hot or warm surface

A

on a hot or warm surface

671
Q

Use of force is justified:

a. if a person provoked the other’s use of unlawful force even though that person abandoned the encounter.

b. none of the listed answers are correct

c. to defend against an officer’s use of force that is greater that necessary to effect the arrest when the arrestee has not otherwise resisted.

d. to resist an unlawful search or seizure

e. in response to verbal provocation alone

A

to defend against an officer’s use of force that is greater that necessary to effect the arrest when the arrestee has not otherwise resisted.

672
Q

Confinement is justified when _____ is justified by this chapter if the actor takes reasonable measures to terminate the confinement as soon as he knows he safely can unless the person confined has been arrested for an offense.

a. deadly force
b. force
c. handcuffing
d. restraining

A

force

673
Q

Conduct is justified under “Necessity” PC 9.22 if:

a. it is immediately necessary to avoid imminent harm.

b. a legislative purpose to exclude the justification does not otherwise plainly appear in the code.

c. the desirability of avoiding the harm clearly outweighs the harm sought to be prevented.

d. all of the listed answers are correct

A

all of the listed answers are correct

674
Q

If a person is immediately escaping after committing a property theft at nighttime, the use of deadly force by the owner is:

a. all of the above

b. justified if the use of lesser force would expose the owner to a substantial risk of bodily injury.

c. justified if the owner honestly believes the property will never be recovered by any other means.

d. justified if the person has been convicted two or more times of theft.

A

justified if the owner honestly believes the property will never be recovered by any other means.

675
Q

Except as authorized by this chapter, a person commits an offense if the person knowingly or intentionally manufactures, delivers, or possesses with intent to manufacture or deliver a controlled substance listed in Penalty Group 1. An offense under this section is a ______ if the amount of the controlled substance is less than one gram.

a. third degree felony
b. second degree felony
c. state jail felony
d. class A misdemeanor

A

state jail felony

676
Q

A doctor issues a prescription for legal medication. In accordance with Heath and Safety Code Section 481.002, a prescription must contain all of the following except:

a. the name of the drug manufacturer
b. the patient’s address
c. the patient’s name
d. all of the listed items are required
e. the name of the quantity of the controlled substance prescribed

A

the name of the drug manufacturer

677
Q

Joe is an adult who possesses two ounces of marijuana. He is committing what category of offense?

a. Class B misdemeanor
b. State Jail Felony
c. Class C misdemeanor
d. No offense in Texas
e. Class A misdemeanor

A

Class B misdemeanor

678
Q

Tom, who is 22 years of age, gives a marijuana cigarette to his 16 year old cousin for free. What category offense did Tom just commit?

a. Second Degree Felony
b. Third Degree Felony
c. no offense
d. State Jail Felony
e. Class B misdemeanor

A

Second Degree Felony

679
Q

Tom, who is 22 years of age, sells a marihuana cigarette to his 16 year old cousin for $5. What category offense did Tom just commit?

a. Third Degree Felony
b. State Jail Felony
c. Second Degree Felony
d. Class B misdemeanor
e. No offense has taken place

A

Second Degree Felony

680
Q

Which of the following is Marihuana?

a. a compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the resin

b. oil or cake made from the seeds of the plant

c. the resin extracted from a part of the plant

d. none of the listed answer are marihuana

e. the sterilized seeds of the plant that are incapable of beginning germination.

A

none of the listed answer are marihuana

681
Q

Tom sold Joe three ounces of marijuana. Tom and Joe are both adults. Tom has committed what category of offense?

a. State Jail Felony
b. Class B misdemeanor
c. Third Degree Felony
d. Class C misdemeanor
e. Class A misdemeanor

A

State Jail Felony

682
Q

A person arrested for Driving while Intoxicated with a Child Passenger:

a. has committed a state jail felony but cannot be required to submit a specimen

b. has committed a Class A misdemeanor and will be required to submit a specimen

c. has committed a State Jail Felony and will be required to submit a specimen

d. has committed a Class A misdemeanor but cannot be required to submit a specimen

e. has committed a third degree felony and will be required to submit a specimen

A

has committed a State Jail Felony and will be required to submit a specimen

683
Q

Elder abuse is a serious problem. Neglect is one of the three types of abuse. Who is responsible for over half of elder neglect?

a. the elder him(her)self
b. children
c. medical staff
d. caretaker

A

the elder him(her)self

684
Q

A criminal investigation is the process of ______ gathering evidence of a crime that has been or is being committed.

a. systematically
b. legally
c. simply
d. logically

A

legally

685
Q

Unless consent is obtained as otherwise allowed by law, a physician or dentist may not examine a child who is ______ years of age or over and who refuses to consent to the examination for physical abuse.

a. 14
b. 16
c. 15
d. 17

A

16

686
Q

The ultimate goal of any criminal investigation is to determine, to the extent possible:

a. the delicate coruptus
b. the probable cause for the arrest
c. the specific elements of the crime
d. the truth about how a crime occurred

A

the truth about how a crime occurred

687
Q

In each county, who shall personally inspect all public or private juvenile pre-adjudication secure detention facilities that are located in that county?

a. each judge of the juvenile court and a majority of the members of the juvenile board

b. District Attorney

c. each judge of the juvenile court

d. a majority of the members of the juvenile board

A

each judge of the juvenile court and a majority of the members of the juvenile board

688
Q

Which of the following is not a force option?

a. Weapon strategies
b. Professional presence
c. Verbal communications
d. Weaponless strategies
e. all of the listed answers are force options

A

all of the listed answers are force options

689
Q

Depending on the situation, as little as _______ of interpersonal communication involves words?

a. 7%
b. 9%
c. 5%
d. 3%

A

7%

690
Q

A person who holds an alcoholic beverage license is considered to be a:

a. corporate entity
b. criminal
c. licensee
d. permit holder

A

licensee

691
Q

With the service of food, on Sunday, at an on premise location, what time could an establishment begin to sell mixed drinks and/or beer?

a. 12:00pm
b. 2:00pm
c. 10:00 am
d. could not sell on Sunday at all

A

10:00 am

692
Q

Denial is a ______ defense mechanism that kicks in to protect a person from the full impact of what has happened.

a. physiological
b. physical
c. psychological
d. metrological
e. neurolinguistics

A

psychological

693
Q

Peace officers have a responsibility to go with the certified server to serve documents:

a. when requested on Sunday

b. Peace officers do not have a responsibility to go with the certified server to serve documents

c. when requested in person by the server

d. when requested through the officer’s chain of command

A

Peace officers do not have a responsibility to go with the certified server to serve documents

694
Q

Which of the following persons can issue a mental health warrant?

a. county clerk
b. psychiatrist
c. police officer
d. Magistrate

A

Magistrate

695
Q

An operator may not turn the vehicle to move in the opposite direction when approaching a curve or the crest of a grade if the vehicle is not visible to the operator of another vehicle approaching from either direction within ______.

a. 250 feet
b. 300 feet
c. 500 feet
d. 100 feet
e. none of the listed answer are correct

A

500 feet

696
Q

Daytime is from:

a. one hour before sunrise to one half-hour after sunset

b. one half hour after sunrise

c. one half hour before sunrise to one hour after sunset

d. none of the listed answers are correct

e. one half hour after sunrise to one half hour after sunset

A

none of the listed answers are correct

697
Q

Tail lamps shall be mounted on the rear of the vehicle at a height from _____ to ____ inches

a. 15 to 48
b. 24 to 72
c. 24 to 54
d. 15 to 54
e. 15 to 72

A

15 to 72

698
Q

Every motor vehicle when operated upon a highway shall be equipped with a horn in good working order and capable of emitting a sound audible under normal conditions from a distance of not less than _____ feet.

a. 100
b. 500
c. 50
d. 200
e. 300

A

200

699
Q

Motorcycles shall be equipped with not less than two headlamps mounted at a height from _____ to ______ inches.

a. 30 to 33
b. 18 to 24
c. 24 to 54
d. 20 to 72
e. 12 to 30

A

24 to 54

700
Q

The shoulder of a road is that portion of the highway that is:

a. none of the listed answers are correct
b. adjacent to the roadway
c. posted by appropriate signs
d. elevated higher than the road surface
e. intended for normal vehicle travel

A

adjacent to the roadway

701
Q

On or after January 1, 1972, every motor vehicle operated singularly or when towing any other vehicle shall be equipped with a mirror so located as to reflect to the driver a view of the highway for a distance of at least ______ feet to the rear of such motor vehicle.

a. 100
b. 200
c. 500
d. none of the listed answer are correct
e. 1000

A

200

702
Q

Forfeiture proceedings under Chapter 59.04 CCP are:

a. Civil Proceeding

b. District Attorney must being proceedings within 30 days of your date of seizure.

c. Service of civil citation upon parties

d. All of the above

A

All of the above

703
Q

The philosophy behind forfeiture and the extent to which it is appropriate is:

a. Should forfeiture be a form of “extra punishment?”

b. Proportionality of property to be forfeited and to the seriousness of the offense

c. Jeopardy issues

d. Any and all of the above

A

Any and all of the above

704
Q

Statutory Defenses, Chapter 59.02 Code of Criminal Procedures, include which of the following?

a. Dismissal of Acquittal of Related Charges

b. Legitimate Source of Income

c. Both A and B

d. Neither A and B

A

Both A and B

705
Q

Which of the following enhance safe, quick clearance?

a. Each responder discipline performs their duties after others finish and authorize action

b. Response activities should occur concurrently whenever possible

c. Fire personnel should completely finish activities before investigation begins

d. Towing and recovery should only be called after all other activities are concluded to avoid unnecessary wait time and charges

A

Response activities should occur concurrently whenever possible

706
Q

The placard color that denotes explosive is:

a. Blue
b. Red
c. Orange
d. Green

A

Orange

707
Q

The four parts of an arrest are:

a. authority, intent, custody, and understanding

b. authority, intent, custody, and force

c. custody, understanding, intent, and a warrant

d. intent, knowledge, custody, and handcuffs

A

authority, intent, custody, and understanding

708
Q

A person acts “__________”, with respect to circumstances surrounding his conduct or the result of his conduct when he ought to be aware of a substantial and unjustifiable risk that the circumstances exist or the result will occur.

a. intentionally or with intent

b. recklessly, or is reckless

c. knowingly or with knowledge

d. with criminal negligence, or is criminally negligent

A

with criminal negligence, or is criminally negligent

709
Q

An individual adjudged guilty of a state jail felony shall be punished by confinement in a _____ ______ for any term of not more than two years or less than 180 days.

a. state jail
b. any jail
c. county jail
d. penal institution

A

state jail

710
Q

According to PC 9.51, a police officer cannot direct a citizen to use force while assisting the officer in an arrest or search.

a. true
b. false

A

false

711
Q

The requirement that the government must act in accordance with due process of law is contained in which two amendments to the US Constitution?

a. First and Fourth
b. Fifth and Fourteenth
c. Fifth and Eighth
d. Eighth and Fourteenth

A

Fifth and Fourteenth

712
Q

A person who is a member of the U.S. Armed Forces may possess armor-piercing ammunition for private purposes only if he has been certified to use it according to Official Military Standards

a. true
b. false

A

false

713
Q

In order to comply with requirements to give information and render aid, TC 550.023; the driver of a vehicle involved in an accident in an open, free parking lot must give all of the following information, except:

a. operator’s name and address

b. the registration number of the vehicle the operator was driving

c. insurance company name

d. insurance policy number

A

insurance policy number

714
Q

Persons found in suspicious places, and under circumstances which reasonably show that such persons are about to commit some offense against the laws may ______.

a. not be arrested without a warrant
b. be arrested without a warrant
c. only be arrested with a warrant
d. only be detained for a short time

A

be arrested without a warrant

715
Q

Penalty group 1A determines punishment for possession, manufacture or delivery of:

a. cocaine
b. marijuana
c. steroids
d. LSD

A

LSD

716
Q

In a criminal trial the court (judge) at the request of a party “may order the exclusion of a witness” (also called “___________”) who for the purposes of the prosecution is a victim, close relative of a deceased victim or guardian of a victim only if the witness is to testify and the court determines that the testimony of the witness would be materially affected if the witness hears other testimony at the trial.

a. Officially required witness exclusion
b. Witness exclusion
c. Invocation of the Rule
d. None of the above

A

Invocation of the Rule

717
Q

________ is the ability to apply logic when comparing a person’s behavior to their statements and their expressed motivations, in order to search for information, evidence, or other potential leads.

a. Suspicious Thinking
b. Methodical Process
c. Logical Thinking
d. Observant

A

Logical Thinking

718
Q

Which of the following indicates a peace officer is acting professionally?

a. The officer is not selective with the use of force

b. The ability to communicate well within the profession

c. The ability to describe and characterize one’s performance to superiors

d. A refusal to return to words once some type of force has been used

A

The ability to describe and characterize one’s performance to superiors

719
Q

According to booking procedures, which is not a reason for a search during a booking process?

a. Security of Facility

b. Safeguard of Prisoners’ Personal Property

c. Inmate Health

d. Inmate Safety

A

Inmate Health

720
Q

According to Elliott Abrams in the Wall Street Journal from May 9, 2009, “First Impressions matter. Experts say we size up new people in somewhere between ______________.”

a. 30 second and two minutes
b. 5 seconds and 10 seconds
c. 1 minutes and 5 minutes
d. none of the above

A

30 second and two minutes

721
Q

Who may execute a “search warrant” for criminal evidence?

a. A peace officer to whom a search warrant is delivered

b. Any peace officer or a person specifically named

c. Any person if a peace officer cannot be found to serve it

d. May only be a sheriff or constable

A

A peace officer to whom a search warrant is delivered

722
Q

A first time offender convicted of Impersonating a Public Servant 37.11 could expect what punishment grade?

a. Third degree felony
b. State jail felony
c. Class A misdemeanor
d. Class B misdemeanor

A

Third degree felony

723
Q

When an actor commits Interference with Child Custody (for example, when they take or retain a child younger than 18 years of age knowing that the person’s taking or retention violates the express terms of a judgement or order, including a temporary order, of a court disposing of the child’s custody) the actor could be charged with what level of offense?

a. 3rd degree
b. State Jail Felony
c. Class A
d. Class B

A

State Jail Felony

724
Q

On the CR-3 Form, to correctly list an operational or conditional factor as contributing to the accident, the officer must have sufficient proof to render an opinion and issue a citation for the violation.

a. This statement is true
b. This statement is false

A

This statement is false

725
Q

In the Transportation Code, no person may stand or park a vehicle within:

a. 50 ft. of a stop sign at the side of the road

b. 30 ft. of a fire hydrant

c. 15 ft. of a driveway entrance

d. 20 ft. of a crosswalk at an intersection

A

20 ft. of a crosswalk at an intersection

726
Q

According to the Penal Code, a mistake of fact is ________.

a. an affirmative defense to prosecution

b. a defense to prosecution

c. no defense to prosecution

d. a violation

A

a defense to prosecution

727
Q

The U.S. Supreme Court in “Beck v. Ohio” says if subjective good faith alone (of ___________) were the test, the protection of the Fourth Amendment would evaporate, and the people would be ‘secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects’ only in the discretion of the police (Beck v. Ohio)

a. rational suspicious
b. reasonable ground
c. exigent circumstances
d. probable cause

A

probable cause

728
Q

A person commits an offense under Section 25.07 Penal Code if, in violation of a condition of bond resulting from a court order, the person intentionally or knowingly:

a. All of these are correct

b. possesses a knife

c. commits family violence

d. commits family violence or communicates with a protected individual

e. communicates with an individual protected by the order in a threatening manner

A

commits family violence or communicates with a protected individual

729
Q

In a Defense to Prosecution, if the issue of the existence of a defense is submitted to the jury, the court shall charge that a ________ on the issue requires that the defendant be acquitted.

a. reasonable doubt
b. probable cause
c. preponderance of evidence
d. absolute certainly

A

reasonable doubt

730
Q

According to PC 9.41 (Protection of One’s Own Property) a person is justified in using force against another when and to the degree the actor reasonable believes the force is immediately necessary to do all of the following except:

a. Recover property if the force is used while in fresh pursuit of the actor

b. Prevent trespass on the person’s land

c. Reenter property when unlawfully dispossessed of the property if the force is used immediately

d. Take custody of a person who was trespass on the person’s land.

A

Take custody of a person who was trespass on the person’s land.

731
Q

A subject is walking by a motor home parked in a KOA Campground and observes a woman’s purse sitting on a table inside the home. The subject finds a tree limb lying on the ground and uses it to retrieve from the table so that he does not have to physically enter the motor home to steal the purse. According to the Penal Code, he has committed what offense?

a. Theft
b. Burglary of Vehicle
c. Burglary
d. Criminal Trespass

A

Burglary

732
Q

A protective order expires while the respondent is in jail for violating the order. The protective order will remain in full force and effect for a period of _______, after the respondent is released from jail.

a. two years
b. sixty days
c. one year
d. twenty days

A

one year

733
Q

The driver of a motor vehicle following another motor vehicle shall maintain an assured, clear distance so that the vehicle can be brought to a stop without:

a. downshifting to a lower gear
b. veering into persons near the street
c. pumping the brakes
d. skidding the tires

A

veering into persons near the street

734
Q

All persons have a right to prevent the consequences of theft by seizing any personal property which has been stolen and bringing it, with the supposed offender, if he can be taken, before a magistrate for examination, or delivering the same to a peace officer for that purpose. To justify such seizure, there must, however, ______________________ and the seizure must be openly made and the proceedings had without delay.

a. be reasonable ground to make the seizure

b. be reasonable ground to arrest the person

c. be reasonable ground to suppose the property to be stolen

d. be reasonable ground to seize the property

A

be reasonable ground to suppose the property to be stolen

735
Q

What percentage of youth aged 13-18 will experience a severe mental illness.

a. 0.05
b. 21.4
c. 0.16
d. 0.023

A

21.4

736
Q

A person commits an offense of Kidnapping if he intentionally or knowingly abducts another person. Kidnapping is a felony of the ____ degree.

a. State Jail
b. Third
c. Second
d. First

A

Third

737
Q

Name the offense:
A person commits an offense if the person:

(1) knowingly permits another to operate a motor vehicle owned by the person; and
(2) knows that at the time permission is given the other person’s license has been suspended as a result of a:

(A) conviction of an offense under:
Section 49.04 or Section 49.07

a. Allowing dangerous driver to borrow motor vehicle.

b. Allowing drunk to barrow motor vehicle

c. Giving keys to intoxicated Driver

d. No offense

A

Allowing dangerous driver to borrow motor vehicle.

738
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered contraband to be seized in accordance with CCP 59.01.

a. Any offense under Ch 49 Penal Code (intoxication laws) that is punishable as a felony of third degree or state jail with 3 prior convictions.

b. Any first degree felony

c. Any felony under Health and Safety Code 481.

d. Any class A misdemeanor

A

Any class A misdemeanor

739
Q

A legal narrative description of events related to a crime is the definition of a:

a. Statement
b. Alibi
c. Narrative
d. Story

A

Statement

740
Q

For a diabetic patient who is having a diabetic emergency and is conscious we DO NOT administer sugar, granular sugar, honey, lifesavers or other candy placed under the tongue, or orange juice?

a. true
b. false

A

false

741
Q

In the American Law Enforcement Phonetic Alphabet, “C” is:

a. CHARLIE
b. CHANGE
c. CHARLES
d. CHUY

A

CHARLES

742
Q

______________ means under arrest by a peace officer or under restraint by a public servant pursuant to an order of a court of this state or another state of the United States; or under restraint by an agent or employee of a facility that is operated by or under contract with the United States and that confines persons arrested for, charged with, or convicted of criminal offenses.

a. Custody
b. Arrest
c. Constructive Custody
d. Legally Detained

A

Custody

743
Q

“Implement of husbandry” means:

a. a vehicle, other than a passenger car or truck, that is designed and adapted for use as a farm implement.

b. a towed vehicle that transports to the field and spreads fertilizer or agricultural chemicals

c. a motor vehicle designed and adapted to deliver feed to livestock

d. all of the above

A

all of the above

744
Q

An actor who commits the offense of Aiding Suicide (with intent to promote or assist the commission of suicide by another, he aids or attempts to aid the other to commit or attempt to commit suicide) may be punished with what level of offense if the attempted suicide does not result in injury?

a. Class A
b. State Jail Felony
c. Class B
d. Class C

A

Class C

745
Q

Personal identifiers include all of the following except:

a. Name and Date of Birth
b. Voter registration card
c. Mother’s Maiden Name
d. Social Security Number

A

Voter registration card

746
Q

To charge a person with Fleeing - 545-421 of the Transportation Code, the person must:

a. be given a visual and audible signal

b. be operating a motor vehicle

c. have a Texas driver’s license

d. know the officer is attempting to arrest him

A

be operating a motor vehicle

747
Q

According to the Penal Code, a conviction for a 1st offense of DWI with no other enhancements carries a penalty of a fine of not more than $2,000 and confinement in jail for maximum of __________.

a. 30 days
b. 90 days
c. 180 days
d. 1 year

A

180 days

748
Q

A peace officer who is notified of a motor vehicle accident resulting in injury to or death of a person or property damage to an apparent extent of at least $1,000 ___________ investigate the accident and file justifiable charges relating to the accident without regard to whether the accident occurred on property to which this chapter applies.

a. shall
b. will
c. may
d. must

A

may

749
Q

During a traffic stop and after asking the violator the question, “is there any reason for your excessive rate of speed?,”, the officer should continue asking questions concerning the subject’s knowledge of the violation committed.

a. true
b. false

A

false

750
Q

The initial (first) detention hearing for a child taken into custody and referred to juvenile court must be held in __________ (FC 54.01).

a. 90 days
b. two working days
c. 10 days
d. there is no time limit

A

Two working days

751
Q

5th Amendment?

A

Grand Jury when held to answer for a capital or infamous crime, double jeopardy, self-incrimination, due process of law, private property shall not be taken without just compensation

752
Q

6th Amendment?

A

Speedy and public trial by impartial jury, confront witnesses, right to an attorney

753
Q

7th Amendment?

A

Rights in civil cases

754
Q

8th Amendment?

A

Excessive bail and cruel and unusual punishment

755
Q

9th Amendment?

A

Rights of the People

756
Q

10th Amendment?

A

States Rights

757
Q

Currency seized in an assent forfeiture case _______ be deposited in an interest bearing account in the jurisdiction of state attorney.

a. can
b. must
c. may
d. shall

A

may

758
Q

In a civil action, when the petition has been filed, the defendant shall receive legal notice of the civil action with the service of a _____________.

a. subpoena
b. capias
c. citation
d. warrant

A

citation

759
Q

The final order of a court in a civil suit that settles all disputed issues, is known as a ________.

a. verdict
b. judgment
c. settlement
d. service

A

judgment

760
Q

Officers are dispatched to a request for assistance call. Sheriff’s deputies have gone out to a house to seize property pursuant to a court order. When they arrive, the deputy shows them a court order issued by a district court ordering the seizure of property totally $125,000 to satisfy a judgment. The defendant in the case has met the deputies at the entrance to his property and blocked their entry. Examination of the order shows it is current and issued by a state district court. The name of the defendant is evident and the property owner is positively identified.

Can the defendant be arrested?

a. No
b. Yes

A

No

761
Q

Available data related to human trafficking indicate that there are regional patterns with respect to where traffickers live and/or choose to launch their operations.

a. True
b. False

A

True

762
Q

Worldwide, it is believed that most victims of human trafficking are adult women and children, primarily girls younger than _____ years of age.

a. 15
b. 17
c. 21
d. 18

A

17

763
Q

The United States ranks very high as a destination country for victims of human trafficking.

a. True
b. False

A

True

764
Q

The second stage of human trafficking (as described by Bales) (2005) is the _______ process.

a. venerability
b. recruitment
c. transporting
d. economic

A

recruitment

765
Q

The first indicator to identify trafficking offenders is migration.

a. True
b. False

A

True

766
Q

In the United States alone, government estimates indicate that between _______________ individuals are trafficked into the country each year.

a. 1,000,000 - 1,200,000
b. 400,000 - 550,000
c. 600,000 - 800,000
d. 250,000 - 350,000

A

600,000 - 800,000

767
Q

The ______ of human trafficking, which is not necessarily connected to the criminal actions of the trafficker(s), involves factors which make individuals vulnerable to this crime.

a. Third stage
b. Fourth stage
c. Second stage
d. First stage

A

First stage

768
Q

The _______ of human trafficking described by Bales (2005) is the recruitment process.

a. first stage
b. second stage
c. third stage
d. fourth stage

A

second stage

769
Q

The ________ in human trafficking is the transportation of victims away from their hometown.

a. first stage
b. second stage
c. third stage
d. fourth stage

A

third stage

770
Q

Regarding human trafficking, exploitation is _______ and may begin immediately upon arriving at a destination country or it may take a few weeks to materialize. Normally, it is upon immediately arriving at the destination country that the victim becomes aware that she/he was deceived about the true nature of the employment usually because passports, identification, and travel documents are confiscated.

a. stage one
b. stage two
c. stage three
d. stage four

A

stage four

771
Q

____________ of human trafficking is when the actual physical abuse and torture begins.

a. stage five
b. stage three
c. stage four
d. stage one

A

stage five

771
Q

A person commits an offense of Continuous Trafficking of Persons if, during a period that is _________ or more days in duration, the person engages two or more times in conduct that constitutes an offense under Penal Code 20A.02.

a. 120
b. 60
c. 30
d. 365

A

30

772
Q

A person commits an offense of Kidnapping if he intentionally or knowingly abducts another person. Kidnapping is a felony of the _____ degree.

a. State Jail
b. Third
c. Second
d. First

A

Third

773
Q

Runaway cases include specific reporting descriptors now available as HRF1 and HRF2, what does the HRF stand for?

a. Human Rights Foundation
b. Home Recovery Form
c. High Risk Factor
d. None of the above

A

High Risk Factor

774
Q

For instances of child abductions or attempted child abductions in which a perpetrator was identified or arrested, _________ of perpetrators were registered sex offenders at the time of the incident.

a. 15%
b. 30%
c. 10%
d. 60%

A

15%

775
Q

When a dog’s mouth is closed tight, that typically indicates a dog that is:

a. relaxed
b. stressed
c. threatening or aggressive
d. frightened

A

threatening or aggressive

776
Q

If an officer encounters a yard that is NOT fenced the officer should call out for the canine.

a. true
b. false

A

true

777
Q

For the most part punching and kicking a canine is pointless

a. true
b. false

A

true

778
Q

After asking the violator the question, “is there any reason for your excessive rate of speed?”, the officer should continue asking questions concerning the subject’s knowledge of the violation committed.

a. true
b. false

A

false

779
Q

The seven step violator contact, the fourth step is:

a. Statement of action to be taken

b. Greeting and identification of the police agency

c. Identification of driver and check of conditions of violator and vehicle

d. Explain what the violator must do

A

Statement of action to be taken

780
Q

The seven step violator contact, the fifth step is:

a. Statement of action to be taken

b. Greeting and identification of the police agency

c. Take that action

d. Explain what the violator must do

A

Take that action

781
Q

The seven step violator contact, the sixth step is:

a. Statement of action to be taken

b. Explain what the violator must do

c. Take that action

d. Explain what the violator must do

A

Explain what the violator must do

782
Q

The Texas Transportation Code 521.125 allows the Texas Department of Public Safety to include a notice on a state logbook for person who indicate they have a non-health related condition that may impede their ability to communicate readily to a law enforcement officer:

a. true
b. false

A

false

783
Q

The vehicle stop report must contain all except:

a. Physical description of detainees: gender, race or ethnicity

b. Number of occupants in the vehicle

c. Alleged violation

d. Warning or citation issued

A

Number of occupants in the vehicle

784
Q

In the CCP “__________” means a law enforcement-initiated action based on an individual’s race, ethnicity, or national origin rather than on the individual’s behavior or on information identifying the individual as having engaged in criminal activity.

a. Prejudice
b. Discrimination
c. Racial Profiling
d. Racial Discrimination

A

Racial Profiling

785
Q

According to the Commission Rule 217.11, a person licensed as a peace office must complete 40 hours of legislatively required continuing education training once every _________ months.

a. 12
b. 24 (2 years)
c. 36
d. 48

A

24 (2 years)

786
Q

According to Commission Rule 221.3, Occupations Code 1701.258, individuals first licensed after January 1, 2011 must complete the Basic Human Trafficking course within ____________ of licensure.

a. First Year
b. Second Year
c. Third Year
d. Fourth Year

A

Second Year

787
Q

According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, an affidavit made before a magistrate charging the commission of an offense is called a/an

a. warrant
b. complaint
c. information
d. capias

A

complaint

788
Q

According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, the security given by the accused that he will appear and answer before the proper court the accusation brought against him is known as

a. commitment
b. promissory
c. bail
d. bond

A

bail

789
Q

According to the CCP, a written statement that is filed and presented on behalf of the State of Texas by a district attorney that charges a person with an offense that may be prosecuted according to law is called a/an

a. indictment
b. information
c. complaint
d. attachment

A

information

790
Q

According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, what is a writ issued by a court directing any peace officer in the state, commanding him to arrest a person accused of an offense and bring him before that court immediately called?

a. attachment
b. capias
c. arrest warrant
d. commitment

A

capias

791
Q

According to CCP 2.14, whenever a peace officer meets with resistance in discharging any duty imposed on him by law, he ________ summon a sufficient number of citizens of his county to overcome the resistance.

a. may
b. shall
c. can
d. will

A

shall

792
Q

The act of keeping back, or withholding, by design, a person, is the definition of _________.

a. incarceration
b. sentencing
c. detention
d. custody

A

detention

793
Q

The right of the officer to search the immediate area of control in a search incident to an arrest was affirmed in _________.

a. Terry v. Ohio
b. Chimel v. California
c. Schmerber v. California
d. Brown v. Texas

A

Chimel v. California

794
Q

The poisonous tree doctrine, which displays the notion that evidence obtained after illegal government action will be excluded from evidence, was affirmed in __________.

a. Terry v. Ohio
b. Wong Sun v. U.S.
c. Mapp v. Ohio
d. Michigan v. Long

A

Wong Sun v. U.S.

795
Q

According to PC 6.03, a person acts ___________, with respect to the nature of their conduct, when it is the conscious objective or desire to engage in the conduct or cause the result.

a. knowingly
b. intentionally
c. with criminal negligence
d. recklessly

A

intentionally

796
Q

According to PC 7.01, a person is criminally responsible as a party to an offense if the offense is __________.

a. committed by his own conduct
b. committed under duress
c. committed intentionally
d. committed recklessly

A

committed by his own conduct

797
Q

According to Penal Code 8.02, a mistake of fact is _________.

a. an affirmative defense to prosecution
b. a defense to prosecution
c. no defense to prosecution
d. a violation

A

a defense to prosecution

798
Q

According to the Penal Code, which of the following persons is NOT permitted to carry, on or about their person, a handgun?

a. a person on their own premises

b. a person with a protective order

c. a person who is traveling

d. a member of the armed forces in the actual discharge of official duties

A

a person with a protective order

799
Q

According to the Penal Code, which of the following is a “short barrel” firearm?

a. a rifle with a 16 inch barrel

b. a shotgun with an 18 inch barrel

c. a shotgun with an overall length of less than 26 inches

d. a rifle with an overall length of more than 26 inches

A

a shotgun with an overall length of less than 26 inches

800
Q

A person, not the operator, knowingly possesses an open container (of alcohol) in a passenger area of a motor vehicle that is located on a public highway. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of ________.

a. Public Intoxication

b. Possession of alcoholic beverage in motor vehicle

c. Driving while intoxicated

d. Open container

A

Possession of alcoholic beverage in motor vehicle

801
Q

According to TC 541.201 (18), a vehicle that is not designed or used primarily to transport persons or property and that is only incidentally operated on a highway, is classified a/an __________ vehicle.

a. special
b. special mobile
c. exempt
d. exempt mobile

A

special mobile

802
Q

According to the Transportation Code, an “unmarked crosswalk” only exists ________.

a. at intersections

b. at marked crossings on streets

c. at intersections with sidewalks on either side

d. where not marked

A

at intersections

803
Q

According to TC 545.251, an operator approaching a railroad grade crossing shall stop if a railroad engine approaching within approximately _________ feet of the highway crossing emits a signal audible from that distance.

a. 5000
b. 1000
c. 1500
d. 200

A

1500

804
Q

According to TC 545.256, an operator emerging from an alley shall stop the vehicle _________.

a. at the stop line
b. before moving on a sidewalk
c. before moving into a crosswalk
d. at the curb of the street

A

before moving on a sidewalk

805
Q

According to the Transportation Code, an operator giving hand signals shall give them from ____________.

a. the driver’s side of the vehicle
b. the left side of the vehicle
c. the driver’s seat
d. any place the signal is visible

A

the left side of the vehicle

806
Q

According to the Transportation Code, a turn signal lamp mounted on the rear of a vehicle shall emit _________________ light.

a. red or amber
b. amber or yellow
c. red or yellow
d. red or white

A

red or amber

807
Q

According to the Transportation Code, an operator shall dim headlights when an approaching (oncoming) vehicle is within ___________ feet.

a. 1000
b. 500
c. 1500
d. 300

A

500

808
Q

According to the Rules of Civil Procedure, the document that commands a sheriff or constable to take into their possession the property, if to be found in their county, and keep the same subject to further orders of the court, is known as a writ of __________.

a. garnishment
b. possession
c. replevin
d. sequestration

A

sequestration

809
Q

The major classifications of drugs include narcotics, depressants, stimulants and __________. (15)
Select one:

a. opiates
b. amphetamines
c. dilatants
d. hallucinogens

A

hallucinogens

810
Q

A peace officer taking a juvenile into custody may dispose of the case without referral to the juvenile court if

a. the child is taken before a magistrate prior to release

b. the child is taken to a certified detention center before release

c. the officer is following guidelines of his/her department

d. the officer receives permission from the parent of the child

A

the officer is following guidelines of his/her department

811
Q

According to the Family Code, the duty of a parent to support his or her child exists while the child is a/an _________.

a. unemancipated minor
b. emancipated minor
c. unemancipated teenager
d. teenager

A

unemancipated minor

812
Q

According to FC 52.025, a child may be detained in a juvenile processing officer only for

a. intoxilyzer proceeding
b. medical treatment
c. pre-trail hearing
d. the issuance of warnings to the child

A

the issuance of warnings to the child

813
Q

peace officers are granted the authority to use force by the Texas __________.

a. Occupations Code
b. Constitution
c. Code of Criminal Procedure
d. Penal Code Chapter 9

A

Penal Code Chapter 9

814
Q

_________________ are obstacles to effective communication, and officers should try to eliminate them if possible.

a. personal appeals
b. constraints
c. perspectives
d. ethical appeals

A

constraints

815
Q

Which of the following is one of the phases of a victim’s reaction to crime?

a. shock
b. recoil
c. frustration
d. panic

A

recoil

816
Q

The fact that all substances, in the right amounts, become toxic is the _________ concept.

a. toxicology
b. HAZMAT
c. DOSE response
d. IDHL response

A

DOSE response

817
Q

The route of exposure to hazardous material by being cut by a contaminated object.

a. inhalation
b. absorption
c. injection
d. ingestion

A

injection

818
Q

Patrol officers should practice the technique of refraining from using the word “_______” during the violator interview while conducting vehicle stops.

a. you
b. we
c. I
d. He

A

I

819
Q

Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Texas Penal Code?

a. to insure the public safety

b. define and grade offenses

c. to insure a fair and impartial trail

d. to guide and limit the exercise of official discretion in law enforcement

A

to insure a fair and impartial trail

820
Q

Which of the following, by definition, is NOT a public servant?

a. a juror
b. a candidate for election
c. a school teacher
d. an employee of government

A

a school teacher

821
Q

Corporation means:

a. nonprofit corporations

b. professional associations created pursuant to statute

c. joint stock companies

d. all of the above

A

all of the above

822
Q

harm means

a. anything reasonable regarded as loss, disadvantage or injury

b. economic gain or advantage

c. protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member

d. all of the above

A

anything reasonable regarded as loss, disadvantage or injury

823
Q

________________ means criminal or tortuous or both and includes what would be criminal or tortuous but for a defense not amounting to justification or privilege

a. law
b. unlawful
c. statute
d. reasonable belief

A

unlawful

824
Q

Which of the following is NOT a public place?

a. inside a residence
b. inside McDonalds
c. a private club
d. a golf course that requires membership

A

inside a residence

825
Q

Which mental state is “ought to be aware of a substantial and unjustifiable risk that the circumstances exist or the result will occur?

a. intentionally
b. knowingly
c. recklessly
d. criminal negligence

A

criminal negligence

826
Q

Which mental state is “he is aware that his conduct is reasonably certain to cause the result”?

a. intentionally
b. knowingly
c. recklessly
d. with criminal negligence

A

knowingly

827
Q

How much of what kind of duress must be placed on a person to have the defense of “duress” available to them for committing a felony?

a. force or threat of force

b. severe force

c. threat of imminent death or serious bodily injury to himself or another

d. compulsion to himself or another

A

threat of imminent death or serious bodily injury to himself or another

828
Q

Imminent means

a. sometime soon
b. when you get around to it
c. important
d. impending, about to happen

A

impending, about to happen

829
Q

Conduct is justified if the actor reasonably believes the conduct is immediately necessary to avoid imminent harm is the definition of ____________.

a. self-defense
b. force
c. reasonable force
d. necessity

A

necessity

830
Q

A capital felony carries the punishment of:

a. life, or 5-99 years
b. 5-99 years or death
c. 5-99 years, life or death
d. life or death

A

life or death

831
Q

If there is an affirmative finding on the trial of an offense for a second degree felony that the offense was committed because of bias or prejudice, the actor, when found guilty, is punished

a. for a first degree felony

b. for a third degree felony

c. with a minimum term of confinement attached

d. for a second degree felony

A

for a first degree felony

832
Q

Criminally Negligence Homicide is punished as:

a. a first degree felony
b. a second degree felony
c. a third degree felony
d. a state jail felony

A

a state jail felony

833
Q

To restrict a person’s movements without consent, so as to interfere substantially with the person’s liberty is a definition of:

a. abduct
b. restrain
c. kidnap
d. confine

A

restrain

834
Q

A person may be charged with Capital Murder if the person __________ commits the murder in the course of committing or attempting to commit kidnapping, burglary, robbery, aggravated sexual assault, arson, obstruction or retaliation.

a. Intentionally
b. Recklessly
c. Knowingly
d. Criminal Negligence

A

Intentionally

835
Q

A person threatens another with imminent bodily injury. What is the offense?

a. Assault
b. Aggravated Assault
c. Terroristic Threat
d. Unlawful Conduct

A

Assault

836
Q

If the State proves the mental state of criminally negligent, what other mental state(s) have they proven?

a. recklessly
b. recklessly, knowingly, intentionally
c. knowingly, intentionally
d. no other mental state

A

no other mental state

837
Q

Leaving a child in a motor vehicle applies to children under the age of _______.

a. 14
b. 7
c. 10
d. 16

A

7

838
Q

_________ a correctional officer or public servant is to cause a correctional officer or public servant to contact the offender’s blood, seminal fluid, vaginal fluid, saliva, urine, or feces and is a 3rd degree felony.

a. Hindering a Public Servant
b. Threatening a Public Servant
c. Harassing of Public Servant
d. Exposing a Public Servant to Hazardous Material

A

Harassing of Public Servant

839
Q

A peace officer who stops a motor vehicle for an alleged violation of a law or ordinance shall report _____________________ information relating to the stop.

a. The commission on Law Enforcement

b. The governing body of the agency the officer is employed by

c. The law enforcement agency that employs the officer

d. The local media

A

The law enforcement agency that employs the officer

840
Q

Which of the following is not a common crime associated with identity crimes are:

a. Robbery
b. Theft
c. Criminal Trespass
d. Burglary

A

Criminal Trespass

841
Q

The definition of “Contraband” means property of any nature, including real, personal, tangible, or intangible, that is used in the commission of any first or second degree felony under the Penal Code.

a. True
b. False

A

True

842
Q

Which Supreme Court decision deals with pretext stops?

a. Terry v. Ohio
b. Whren v. United States
c. Graham v. State
d. Ferris v. State

A

Whren v. United States

843
Q

Raised hackles, piloerection (raised hair), can mean that a dog is:

a. afraid
b. angry
c. nervous
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

844
Q

_______ of women reported sexual assault in the military.

a. 0.23
b. 0.05
c. 0.18
d. 0.5

A

0.23

845
Q

Consumers can be anybody willing to pay for the illegitimate services of another and can even be of the same nationality and race as their victims.

a. true
b. false

A

true

846
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered contraband to be seized in accordance with CCP 59.01.

a. Any first degree felony

b. Any offense under Ch 49 Penal Code (intoxication laws) that is punishable as a felony of third degree or state jail with 3 prior convictions.

c. Any felony under Health and Safety Code 481

d. Any class A misdemeanor

A

Any class A misdemeanor

847
Q

Armed conflict, military occupation, and/or regional conflict in countries of origin is a ______________.

a. reason to leave home
b. is a result of human trafficking
c. common victim characteristic
d. tool used by traffickers

A

common victim characteristic

848
Q

Under the Texas Mental Health Code, persons who act in good faith, reasonably and without negligence are free from __________ liability.

a. civil
b. criminal
c. both civil and criminal
d. none of the above

A

both civil and criminal

849
Q

Possession or Promotion of Child Pornography is a __________ degree felony.

a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. State Jail

A

Third

850
Q

The standard for determining a warrantless apprehension affidavit for mental health purposes is the same as the standard for a criminal affidavit.

a. true
b. false

A

true

851
Q

A person commits an offense if the person intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly tortures an animal or in a cruel manner kills or causes serious bodily injury to an animal. This offense is a ____________.

a. Class A misdemeanor
b. Class B misdemeanor
c. Third Degree Felony
d. State Jail Felony

A

Third Degree Felony

852
Q

Approximately ______ percent of the population will experience PTSD at some point in their lifetime.

a. 7-8%
b. 1-2%
c. 18%
d. 20%

A

7-8%

853
Q

There are 7 stages of human trafficking?

a. true
b. false

A

false

854
Q

Examples of pre-response operational tactics are:

a. Tactical pause
b. Developing a working strategy
c. Preparing or managing yourself
d. Preparing to intervene with your peers
e. All of the above
f. All expect d

A

All of the above

855
Q

During a traffic stop, closing the contact with the violator is awkward for many officers. It is an opportunity to create a feeling of _________ if the proper technique is used.

a. concern
b. awkwardness
c. uncertainty
d. friendliness

A

friendliness

856
Q

An “I” statement gives the speaker responsibility for their part of the interaction, helps build rapport, and eases communication.

a. True
b. false

A

True

857
Q

A person commits an offense of Kidnapping if he intentionally or knowingly abducts anther person. Kidnapping is a felony of the __________ degree.

a. State Jail
b. Third
c. Second
d. First

A

Third

858
Q

Failure to Identify requires a person to intentionally give a false or fictitious name, residence address, or date of birth to a peace officer who has

a. lawfully arrested the person

b. lawfully detained the person

c. good cause to believe is a witness to a criminal offense

d. all of the above

A

all of the above

859
Q

Interference with public duties occurs when a person with criminal negligence interrupts, disrupts, impedes, or otherwise interferes with

a. A public servant only

b. A firefighter conducting fire safety program

c. Person using a citizen band radio to report inform or inquire about an emergency

d. none of the above

A

Person using a citizen band radio to report inform or inquire about an emergency

860
Q

“Police service animal” means a _________ that is specifically trained for use by a handler or rider.

a. Dog only
b. Dog or horse
c. Any animal
d. Dog, horse or other domestic animal

A

Dog, horse or other domestic animal

861
Q

A public servant commits an offense if, with intent to obtain a benefit or with intent to harm or defraud another, he intentionally or knowingly violates a law relating to the public servant’s officer or employment is

a. Abuse of Official Capacity
b. Abuse of Public Office
c. Official Oppression
d. All of the Above

A

Abuse of Official Capacity

862
Q

A mother, who does not have custody of her child, fails to pay child support to her ex-husband for her child of 10 years old, child support that was ordered by the court at the time of the divorce. The mother has the ability to pay the child support as ordered but does not pay it. Criminally, the mother may be charged with:

a. Interference with Child Custody
b. Violation of Protective Order
c. Violation of Court Order
d. Criminal Nonsupport

A

Criminal Nonsupport

863
Q

What does the the acronym PURPLE stand for?

A

Peak of Crying
Unexpected
Resist soothing
Pain-like Face
Long-lasting
Evening

864
Q

All of the following are powers of local authorities in the Texas Transportation Code; Except:

a. Regulating parking on public streets

b. designing school crossing zones

c. designing right of way for certain streets with stop and yield signs

d. regulating equipment on motorcycles

A

regulating equipment on motorcycles

865
Q

A Texas CDL covers:

a. A single vehicle with a gross vehicle weight rating of 26,001 pounds or more

b. Single vehicle with a gross weight rating of 26,001 pounds or more towing a vehicle with a gross vehicle weight rating of 20,000 or more

c. Vehicle designed to transport 22 passengers or more, including the driver

d. All of the options are covered by a Texas CDL B license

A

A single vehicle with a gross vehicle weight rating of 26,001 pounds or more

866
Q

Which of the following is a proper designation for the impact point on a CRB Report?

a. BLQ
b. LRQ
c. LBQ
d. FRQ

A

LBQ

867
Q

In the Transportation Code, which of the following is required equipment on all bicycles AT ALL TIMES?

a. wheel reflectors
b. white lamp on the front
c. red reflector on the rear
d. a brake on one wheel

A

a brake on one wheel

868
Q

In the Texas Transportation Code, which of the following motor vehicle lamps must be visible from 300 feet in normal sunlight (if the vehicle is less than 80 inches wide)

a. turn signal lamps
b. side marker lamps
c. parking lamps
d. fog lamps

A

turn signal lamps

869
Q

An abandoned motor vehicle is ANY vehicle remaining on public property for more than 48 hours, and:

a. displaying an expired license plate
b. the owner is unaware of its location
c. illegally parked
d. none of these involved

A

illegally parked

870
Q

In the Transportation Code, Failure to Secure a Child in a Safety Seat System applies to which of the following?

a. taxi drivers carrying a fare

b. vehicles where all seats with belts are occupied

c. city bus drivers

d. personally owned family minivan

A

personally owned family minivan

871
Q

All of the following are TRUE about disabled license plates EXCEPT:

a. they may park for an unlimited time in a handicap space

b. they are exempt from overtime violations on government metered spaces

c. they are required to pay parking fees at airports

d. they may park in NO-Parking zones, if legal spaces are not available

A

they may park in NO-Parking zones, if legal spaces are not available

872
Q

________________ is/are required to wear a safety belt inside a passenger vehicle while it is moving.

a. front row seated passengers only

b. anyone under 7 years of age in a seat and the driver only

c. everyone seated in the vehicle that is equipped with a safety belt

d. only those under 17 years of age

A

everyone seated in the vehicle that is equipped with a safety belt

873
Q

Which of the following trailers are not required to display brake lamps to the rear in the daytime with good visibility?

a. any trailer under 4,500 pounds GVW

b. any boat trailer with a GVW of 3,000 pounds or less

c. any trailer 4,500 pounds GVW or more

d. any flatbed trailer with no load on it during the daytime

A

any boat trailer with a GVW of 3,000 pounds or less

874
Q

A “moped” means a motor-driven cycle that cannot attain a speed in one mile of more than _______ miles per hour.

a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50

A

30

875
Q

An operator may not turn the vehicle to move in the opposite direction when approaching a curve or the crest of a grade if the vehicle is not visible to the operator of another vehicle approaching from either direction within ________.

a. 300 feet
b. none of the listed answers are correct
c. 100 feet
d. 500 feet

A

500

876
Q

Once an abandoned motor vehicle has been impounded, the notice sent to the last owner informs him of his right to claim the vehicle within ________ days from the date sent.

a. 90
b. 30
c. 20
d. 10

A

20

877
Q

In the Transportation Code, appropriate signals must be given for:

a. backing a vehicle
b. emerging from a driveway
c. stopping or suddenly decreasing speed
d. traversing through intersections

A

stopping or suddenly decreasing speed

878
Q

Procedures for moving damaged vehicles from an accident scene are determined by:

a. Department policy
b. HEPPA
c. DPS
d. TXDOT

A

Department policy

879
Q

The driver of a vehicle, which is also occupied by one other passenger, loses control of the vehicle; it leaves the roadway and crashes into a tree. The driver runs from the scene leaving his passenger injured and uncared for. The driver could be charged with:

a. Failure to Stop and Render Aid-Misdemeanor

b. Failure to Stop and Render Aid-Felony

c. Assault with a Motor Vehicle

d. The driver has not committed any offense

A

Failure to Stop and Render Aid-Felony

880
Q

Which of the following is NOT subject to inspection during a motor vehicle inspection?

a. Tires
b. Brake system
c. Windshield wipers
d. Engine Oil

A

Engine Oil

881
Q

In the Texas Transportation Code, all of the following are TRUE about the tail lamps on a motor vehicle, except?

a. they may be red or amber or any color in between

b. they must be visible from 1000 feet in the nighttime

c. they must turn “on” when the headlamps are turned “on”

d. they must be as widely spaced as practicable

A

they may be red or amber or any color in between

882
Q

Procedures for moving damaged vehicles from an accident scene are determined by:

a. TXDOT
b. DPS
c. Officer’s Discretion
d. Department Policy

A

Department Policy

883
Q

When striking an unattended vehicle and causing damage, a driver must immediately stop and (if unable to locate the owner/operator) leave written notice; which of the following is required on the notice?

a. license plate number of the striking vehicle

b. insurance company of the driver

c. name and address of the owner of the striking vehicle

d. phone numbers of both the driver & owner

A

name and address of the owner of the striking vehicle

884
Q

In Transportation Code, a person can stop to discharge passengers:

a. within an intersection
b. on a crosswalk
c. where signs prohibit stopping
d. next to a fire hydrant

A

next to a fire hydrant

885
Q

A driver of a vehicle approaches an intersection controlled by a stop sign. There is no stop line; but there is an unmarked crosswalk before the intersection. In the Transportation Code, which of the following is true?

a. the driver only needs to stop at a point nearest the intersection where a view exists of the intersecting street

b. the driver must stop at a point even with the curb line of the intersecting street

c. the driver must stop at the near side of the unmarked crosswalk

d. the driver must stop at some point within 20 feet of the intersecting street

A

the driver must stop at the near side of the unmarked crosswalk

886
Q
A
887
Q

According to the Transportation Code, an operator shall dim headlights when an approaching vehicle is within ________ feet.

a. 1000
b. 500
c. 250
d. 200

A

500

888
Q

In the Transportation Code, vehicles must drive at an appropriate, reduced speed when:

a. approaching and driving through a tunnel

b. traveling in a “no passing” zone

c. approaching a funeral procession

d. approaching and going around a curve

A

approaching and going around a curve

889
Q

The driver of a vehicle transporting 16-23 passengers including the driver is required to possess a class _______ driver’s license

a. C CDL
b. B CDL
c. A CDL
d. M CDL

A

C CDL

890
Q

At an intersection, “a part of the roadway, within lateral lines of sidewalks on opposite sides of the street”, is the definition of a _____________

a. street
b. shoulder
c. sidewalk
d. crosswalk

A

crosswalk

891
Q

Which of the following planning steps for crash investigation would you perform AFTER moving the vehicles and clearing the roadway at the scene of a collision?

a. record positions
b. preliminary questioning of drivers
c. take photos
d. collect physical evidence

A

preliminary questioning of drivers

892
Q

Parking lamps on a vehicle DO NOT have to be lighted in the night time, when a motor vehicle is parked on a public street and:

a. turn signal indicator is being used in lieu of the lamps

b. the vehicle is attended by the driver or another

c. the vehicle is parked on a shoulder portion of the street

d. persons and vehicles are visible from 1000 feet.

A

persons and vehicles are visible from 1000 feet.

893
Q

If a Peace Officer investigates a motor vehicle crash which involves an injury to a person, the officer must forward a written report of the crash within _______ days.

a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 3

A

10

894
Q

Every device upon which any person or property may be transported upon a highway, except devices used upon rails or tracks” is the definition of:

a. vehicle
b. passenger car
c. truck trailer
d. motor vehicle

A

vehicle

895
Q

In order to comply with requirements to give information and render aid; the driver of a vehicle involved in an accident with another vehicle must exhibit his driver’s license, when requested, to all of the following people; EXCEPT

a. the operator of the another vehicle involved

b. an occupant of his vehicle

c. any person injured by the accident

d. EMS personnel at the scene

A

EMS personnel at the scene

896
Q

TC 542.003 requires that persons riding an animal or operating a vehicle drawn by an animal _________.

a. Adhere to all aspects of the TC

b. is classified as a pedestrian

c. Adhere to all equipment violations of the TC

d. None of these options are correct

A

None of these options are correct

897
Q

All of the following are TRUE about bicycles riding two abreast (side by side), EXCEPT

a. they must ride in a single lane on a laned roadway

b. they must change to single file if they impede traffic on a public street

c. they can ride more than two abreast in a bike lane

d. they may two abreast and occupy multiple lanes

A

they may two abreast and occupy multiple lanes

898
Q

“The width between the boundary lines of a publicly maintained way any part of which is open to the public for vehicular travel” is the definition of a __________.

a. roadway
b. shoulder
c. sidewalk
d. street

A

street

899
Q

Which of the following is true about prima facie speed limits?

a. they must be posted on signs to be lawful

b. they remain in effect during special hazards

c. they are evidence that greater speed is not reasonable or prudent

d. they apply to any public place or private street open to the public

A

they are evidence that greater speed is not reasonable or prudent

900
Q

Appropriate signals must be given for ALL of the following maneuvers, EXCEPT

a. lane changes
b. turns from a street into a driveway
c. stopping or suddenly decreasing speed
d. all of the above

A

All of the above

901
Q

A law enforcement officer who in the regular course of duty investigates a motor vehicle accident _______ make a written report of the accident if the accident resulted in injury to or the death of a person or damage to the property of any one person to the apparent extent of $1000 or more.

a. shall
b. may
c. should
d. must

A

shall

902
Q

The prima facie speed limit in an alley is ______ mph according to the Transportation Code.

a. 30
b. 20
c. 15
d. 10

A

15

903
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about electric turn signals in the Transportation Code?

a. They can be used as a “do pass”

b. They can be lighted to the side of moving traffic on a parked motor vehicle

c. All operators must use electric turn signals

d. All motor vehicles must be equipped with electric turn signals

A

All motor vehicles must be equipped with electric turn signals

904
Q

What type of CDL must a police officer driving a 27000 pound police emergency motor vehicle have to legally operate the motor vehicle on the roadway?

a. CDL A
b. CDL B
c. CDL C
d. No CDL is needed

A

No CDL is needed

905
Q

” ______ _______” means a vehicle used by a peace officer, as defined by Article 2.12, Code of Criminal Procedure, for law enforcement purposes.

a. Police Vehicle
b. Emergency Vehicle
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

Police Vehicle

906
Q

All of the following are considered a Commercial Motor Vehicle for the purposes of completing an CR-3 Report, EXCEPT

a. any vehicle with a Gross Vehicle Weight of more than 10,000

b. every motor vehicle designed to carry more than 8 persons including the driver

c. any motor vehicle carrying hazardous material and requiring a placard

d. any motor vehicle combination with a trailer

A

any motor vehicle combination with a trailer

907
Q

A person is driving while license invalid but has current insurance. They have committed what level offense?

a. Class C

b. Class B

c. Class A

d. No offense since they now have insurance

A

Class C

908
Q

General Penalty provides for a fine of ______ for a person convicted of an offense that is a misdemeanor under this subtitle for which another penalty is not provided.

a. $1.00 - 500.00
b. $1.00 - 1500.00
c. $1.00 - 200.00
d. $2.00 - 400.00

A

$1.00 - 200.00

909
Q

Except as provided by Transportation Code 551.001 (bicycles) applies only to a person operating a bicycle on:

a. a highway

b. a path set aside for the exclusive operation of bicycles

c. private drives

d. A and B are both correct

A

A and B are both correct

910
Q

A slow moving vehicle is a vehicle designed to operate at a speed of ______ mph or less.

a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30

A

25

911
Q

When directing traffic at an accident scene, points of greatest potential for traffic congestion include all of the following except:

a. Longest line of traffic

b. Line of traffic threatening spillbacks into other lanes and intersections

c. Vehicles inappropriately parked along the shoulder and median

d. All of the above

A

Vehicles inappropriately parked along the shoulder and median

912
Q

Which of these traffic violations applies to road machines engaged in work upon a highway surface?

a. No driver’s license
b. Driving while license suspended
c. Wrong way on one way
d. Reckless Driving

A

Reckless Driving

913
Q

In the Transportation Code, a person may stop a vehicle to discharge passengers:

a. on a crosswalk

b. on a sidewalk extending across a driveway

c. on the roadway side of another parked vehicle

d. in front of a driveway

A

in front of a driveway

914
Q

An officer seized a Temporary Disabled Placard and determined probable cause for a violation exists; the officer must:

a. forward the placard to the County Tax Assessor

b. Return the placard to the violator and issue a citation

c. forward the placard to the Texas Department of Transportation

d. Destroy the placard and forward a report to the Texas Department of Transportation

A

Destroy the placard and forward a report to the Texas Department of Transportation

915
Q
A