TBL 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

What does the axial skeleton consist of?

A

The axial skeleton includes the skull, vertebrale column, ribs and sternum.

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2
Q

What are the parts of the vertebrae that make up the posterior vertebral arches?

A

The vertebral arches are made up of the pedicle and lamina. At the junction of these two, the transverse process projects laterally. The spinous process projects posteriorly from the junction of the laminae.

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3
Q

What is the importance of the transverse and spinous processes of the vertebrae?

A

The transverse and spinous processes proved attachment sites for deep back muscles that fix or change positions of the vertebrae.

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4
Q

How are the vertebrae aligned?

A

The superior and inferior articular processes are medial to the transferse processes, and they fit together like puzzle pieces with adjacent vertebrae.

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5
Q

What is spondylolysis? What are the consequences of spondylolysis at L5?

A

Spondylolysis is fracture of a vertebra between its superior and inferior articular processes (pars interarticularis). Dislocation between adjacent vertebrae, known as spondylolisthesis, may occur.

Spondylolysis of L5 especially may result in spondylolisthesis of L5 vertebral body relative to the sacrum due to the downward tilt of the LF/S1 IV joint. This may result in pressure on the spinal nerves of the cauda equina, causing lower back and lower limb pain.

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6
Q

What do the IV discs consist of? What is their function?

A

The nucleus pulposus, a gelatinous central mass that is surrounded by concentric layers of Type I collagen fibers forming the annulus fibrosis.

The discs strongly attach adjacent vertebral bodies and their resilient deformability provides shock absorbers for the spine.

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7
Q

What emerges from the intervertebral foramina?

A

The spinal nerves emerge from the vertebral canal via the intervertebral foramina.

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8
Q

Which clinical conditions might require a laminectomy and how is a laminectomy surgically performed?

A

The surgical excision of one or more spinous processes and adjacent supporting vertebral laminae in a prticular region of the vertebral column is called a laminectomy. It can also denote removal of most of the vertebral arch by transecting the pedicles.

It is often performed to relieve pressure on the spinal cord or nerve roots caused by **tumor, herniated IV disc, **or bony hypertrophy.

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9
Q

How does stenosis affect the lumbar portion of the vertebral canal and lumbar spinal nerves?

A

Lumbar spinal nerves increase in size as the vertebral column descends, but the IV foramina decrease in size. Stenosis of lumbar vertebral foramen alone may cause compression of one or more spinal nerve roots occupying the inferior vertebral canal.

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10
Q

What are the ligamenta flava?

A

The ligamenta flava vertically interconnect the laminae of adjacent vertebrae, thus contributing to the posterior wall of the vertebral canal.

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11
Q

What covers the anterior surfaces of the vertabral bodies and IV discs? What resides on the posterior surfaces of the vertebral bodies?

A

The anterior longitudinal ligament covers anterior surfaces of the vertebral canal.

The narrower posterior longitudinal ligament attaches mainly to the IV discs within the vertebral canal.

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12
Q

What are the functions of the anterior and posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

The anterior longitudinal ligament is a strong, broud fibrous band that prevents hyperextension of the vertebral column, maintaining the stability of the joints between vertebral bodies. It is the only ligament that limits extension.

The posterior longitudinal ligament is a much narrower, somewhat weaker band that weakly resists hyperflexion of the vertebral column and helps prevent or redirect posterior herniation of the nucleus pulposus.

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13
Q

Which sections of the spine have secondary curvatures? When are these curvatures formed?

A

The cervical and lumbar sections of the spine have secondary curvatures. Theses curvatures form after an infant can lift his head and begins to walk.

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14
Q

Why do herniations of the nucleus pulposus usually protrude posterolaterally?

A

The anulus fibrosis is relatively thin posterolaterally, and does not receive support from either the posterior or he anterior longitudinal ligaments.

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15
Q

What are primary causes of excessive kyphosis and lordosis? How does scoliosis differ in appearance from excessive kyphosis?

A

Excessive kyphosis is characterized by an abnormal increase in the thoracic curvature. This can result from erosion of the anterior part of one or more vertebrae.

Excessive lumbar lordosis is characterized by anterior tilting of the pelvis, with increased extension of the lumbar vertebrae. This can be caused by weak abdominal muscles, obesity, and pregnancy.

Scoliosis is characterized by abnormal lateral curvature that is accompanied by rotation of the vertebrae. This is caused by deformities of the vertebral column.

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16
Q

What is the notochord derived from?

A

Some migrating mesodermal cells that initially invade the developing endoderm detach and formthe notochord, a rigid rod of supporting mesoderm that induces formation of the axial skeleton and neural tube.

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17
Q

What is the annulus fibrosis of the IV discs derived from? What else is formed by these cells?

A

The mesenchymal cells of the somites differentiate into fibroblasts that form the annulus fibrosis and the dermis mainly associated with the vertebral column and thoracic wall.

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18
Q

What are skeletal muscles associated with the spine and thoracic wall derived from?

A

Mesenchymal cell-derived myoblasts form the skeletal muscles associated with the spine and thoracic wall.

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19
Q

What are chondroblasts and osteoblasts derived from? What do they produce?

A

Mesenchymal cells generate chondroblasts and osteoblasts that produce cartilage and bone, respectively.

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20
Q

What causes spina bifida occulta, the most common congenital anomaly of the vertebral column?

A

**Spina bifida occulta: **the neural arches of L5 and/or S1 fail to develop normally and fuse posterior to the vertebral canal

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21
Q

How does spina bifida cystica differ from spina bifida occulta?

A

In spina bifida occulta, the defect is concealed by the overlying skin, but its location is often indicated by a tuft of hair. Most people with spina bifida have no back problems.

In spina bifida cystica, one or more vertebral arches may fail to develop completely. This is associated with herniation of the meninges and/or spinal cord. Neurological symptoms are usually present in severe cases.

22
Q

The formation of most bones begins with what?

A

The formation of most bones, including the vertebrae, begins by chondroblsts producing avascular cartilaginous replicas of the bones.

23
Q

What does cartilage consist of?

A

Cartilage consists of chondrocytes in lacunae dispersed within a non-calcified matrix enclosed by perichondrium.

24
Q

What designates hyaline cartilage?

A

A meshwork of thin Type II collagen fibers creates the translucent, glassy appearance of the matrix that designates the tissue as hyaline cartilage.

25
Q

Where do the chondrocytes within the avascular matrix of the cartilage get nutrients?

A

Oxygen and nutrients diffuse from capillaries in the perichondrium into the avascular matrix.

26
Q

What process replaces hyaline cartilage with bones? What does it begin with?

A

Endochondral ossification replaces cartilage with bone. It begins by capillary invasion of the avascular cartilaginous matrix.

27
Q

What accompanies the invading capillaries during endochondral ossification? How does degradation of the cartilage models begin?

A

Osteoprogenitor cells and macrophages accompany the invading capillaries.

Osteoclasts are created by fusion of multiple macrophages to phagocytize degrading portions of the cartilaginous matrix.

28
Q

What are osteoblasts in lacunae called? How are lacunae formed?

A

Osteoblasts in lacunae are called osteocytes.

Osteoblasts produce randomly organized Type I collagen fibers that entrap most of the osteoblasts in lacunae.

29
Q

What induces deposition of hydroxyapatite crystals? What is their job?

A

Osteocytes induce deposition of these crystals on the collagen fibers that subsequently align in linear parallel rows.

30
Q

What does the mineralized fibers and lacunae mature into?

A

Maturation organizes the mineralized fibers and lacunae into three-dimensional meshworks designated trabecular (spongy) bone.

31
Q

Why is parallel alignment of the collagen fibers in bone significant? What is the endosteum?

A

Parallel alignment of the collagen fibers places the lacunae in concentric rows, thus, bone is characterized by rows of lacunae separated by parallel Type I collagen fibers for strength and hydroxyapatite crystals for hardness.

The single layer of osteoblasts covering the bone is called endosteum, which is essential for continued bone maturation.

32
Q

What happens at the periphery of the trabecular bone?

A

At the periphery, trabecular bone is transformed into compact (dense) bone, which is covered on its outer surface by periosteum.

33
Q

What does periosteum consist of?

A

Periosteum consists of Type I collagen fibers covering an inner monolayer of osteoprogenitor cells.

34
Q

Name the steps in the formation of compact bone.

A
  1. Primary osteons (oval profiles of trabecular bone lined by endosteum, in which the space between bone and capillary is filled by interstitial fluid)
  2. Osteoblasts of the endosteum produce bony matrix that grows progressively inward.
  3. Secondary (mature) osteons are formed by enclosement of the capillaries by bone. The space around the capillaries is called the central canal.
35
Q

What connects the central canal to the innermost row of lacunae and interconnects concentric rows of lacunae in each osteon? What is its importance?

A

Bony canaliculi (tiny canals)

This way, lacunae throughout the osteon have access to capillary filtrates in the central canal.

36
Q

What are Volkmann canals and what are their purpose?

Where are interstitial lamellae found? How do they differ from concentric lamellae?

A

Central canals are joined at right angles by Volkmann canals, thereby enabling capillaries of the periosteum to extend into the central canals.

Interstitial lamellae reside between clustered osteons. Concentric lamellae are inside of osteons, and are the layers of lacunae.

37
Q

What remains in the central portion of mature bones, and what is it occupied by?

A

Trabecular bone remains in the central portion of the mature bones, and is occupied by bone marrow.

38
Q

What ensures good regenerative potential for remodeling?

A

Bone vascularity

39
Q
A
40
Q

What must be balanced in order to maintain skeletal integrity?

A

Bone deposition rates must match resorption rates to maintain skeletal integrity.

41
Q

What causes osteoporosis, and why can it result in increased kyphosis?

A

Osteoporosis is caused by net demineralization of bone due to disruption of balance between calcium deposition and resorption.

Osteoporosis in the thoracic region of the vertebral column leads to excessive thoracic kyphosis due to the collapse of the vertebral bodies that have become wedge shaped, planar and biconcave.

42
Q

What constitutes gray matter of the spinal cord? What contributes to the surrounding white matter?

A

The anterior (ventral) and posterior (dorsal) horns constitute grey matter. Neurons reside in the gray matter.

The anterior and posterior roots of the spinal nerves contribute to the white matter.

43
Q

Which horn do motor axons originate from? Which horn do sensory axons synapse with?

A

Motor axons from neurons in the anterior horn constitute the anterior roots of the spinal nerves.

The sensory axons of the posterior roots synapse with neurons in the posterior horn.

44
Q

Cite the respective number of cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral spinal nerves.

A

8 cervical nerves

12 thoracic nerves

5 lumbar nerves

5 sacral nerves

45
Q

What is the conus medullaris and where is it located in adults? Where is it located at birth?

A

The tapering inferior end of the spinal cord below the lumbar enlargement is called the conus medullaris, positioned between vertebrae L1 and L2 in adults

At birth, it is positioned between vertebrae L3 and L4 and with vertebral column elongation and the onset of erect posture, the conus medullaris ascends to the adult level by age 5.

46
Q

What is the cauda equina?

A

The long roots of the lumbar and sacral spinal nerves collectively constitute the cauda equina, and the length of the roots results from elongation of the spine and erect posture.

47
Q

What is the arachnoid mater? Where does it end?

A

The arachnoid lines the dural sac and it ends at vertebra S2

48
Q

What are the dura and arachnoid composed of? What fills the subarachnoid space?

A

The dura and arachnoid of the spinal meninges are composed of dense and loose connective tissue, respectively.

Cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) fills the subarachnoid space, and presses the arachnoid against the inner surface of the dura.

49
Q

Why is lumbar spinal puncture an important diagnostic tool? Why would different vertebral levels be used in newborn infants and adults?

A

Lumbar puncture, withdrawal of CSF from the lumbar cistern, is an important diagnostic tool for evaluating a variety of CNS disorders.

A needle is inserted in the midline between the spinous processes of the L3 and L4 vertebrae in adults, but L4 and L5 in infants because the vertebral column has not yet elongated.

50
Q

What is the pia mater, and where is it located?

A

The pia is transparent because it consists of 2-3 cell layers separated by thin layers of connective tissue. It is the innermost layer of the meninges. It follows the surface contours of the spinal cord.

51
Q

What is the filum terminale, and what does it do?

A

The filum terminale is an extension of the pia, and it pierces the terminal end of the dural sac and anchors the sace to the coccyx.