Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharm Block 12 > TB And Worms > Flashcards

TB And Worms Flashcards

1
Q

1st line drugs for TB

A 
Rifampin 
Ethambutol 
Streptomycin 
Pyrazinamide 
Isoniazid

RESPIre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Drugs for mycobacterium Avium

A 
Macrolides 
Rifabutin 
Cipro
Ofloxacin
Clofazimine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Difference between mycoplasma and mycobacterium

A

Mycoplasma

  • causes atypical pneumonia
  • bacteria
  • NOT mycobacterium

Mycobacterium

  • slow growing
  • long treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Are mycobacterium fast or slow growing?

A

Slow growing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does TB infect

A

Lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tranmission of TB

A

Infected droplets are inhaled and bacilli deposited in lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What can TB cause

A

Massive pulmonary tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Dx of TB

A
  • productive cough lasting longer than 3 weeks
  • hemoptysis
  • fatigue
  • malaise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the most important TB drug

A

Isoniazid (INH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MOA of isoniazid (INH)

A

Targets the enzyme responsible for assembly for mycolic acids into the outer layer of the mycobacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Resistance of isoniazid

A

Due to deletion of the gene that encodes for catalase (an enzyme required for activation of isoniazid)
-isoniazid stuck as inactive prodrug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Adverse effects of isoniazid

A

Peripheral neuritis (parasthesia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do people need to take when taking isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuritis

A

vitamin B6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Enzyme unique to mycobacterium

A

Mycolic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MOA of rifampin

A

Inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, blocking transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Is rifampin specific to mycobacterium

A

No, it blocks bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, blocking transcription, which is something that can affect several other organisms
-antimicrobial and antimycobacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Is rifamipin a P450 inhibitor or inducer

A

Inducer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Adverse affects of rifampin

A

Urine, feces, tears, and sweat will be red/orange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MOA of pyrazinamide

A

Sort of unknown, but know its metabolically activated to pyrazinoic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the uses of pyrazinamide

A

TB only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Adverse effects of pyrazinamide

A

Hyperuricemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MOA of ethambutol

A

Inhibits synthesis of mycobacteria cell walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Adverse effects of ethambutol

A

Optic neuritis, decreased VA, retinal damage with prolonged use, hyperuricemia and gout
-can cause RG colorblindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What percent of patients on pyrazinamide will get hyperuricemia

A

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What percent of patients on ethambutol will get hyperuricemia

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What types of drugs cause hyperuricemia the most

A

Weak acids

  • thiazides
  • loops
  • pyrazinamide (activated to pyrazinoic acid)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What TB drugs only target TB

A

Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
Isoniazid

28
Q

What drugs target TB and then some

A

Rifamipin

Streptomycin

29
Q

MOA of streptomycin

A

Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30s

-aminoglycoside (Like gentamicin)

30
Q

Adverse effects of streptomycin

A

Ototoxicity
Nephrotoxicity
Neuromuscular paralysis

31
Q

What kind of drugs other than TB does streptomycin get

A

Gram negatives

32
Q

Why is streptomycin a back up drug

A

Because of its adverse effects and the fact that you have to be on the treatment for TB for months

33
Q

Initiation phase of TB treatment

A

4 drugs for 2 months
Isoniazid, rifamipin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

RIPE

34
Q

Continuous phase of TB treatment

A

2 drugs for 4 months

Isoniazid and rifampin

35
Q

What is the normal treatment regimen for TB

A

Initiation phase

Continuation phase

36
Q

What is the first line agent for TB prophylaxis

A

Isoniazid

37
Q

What is the second best option for TB prophylaxis

A

Rifampin

38
Q

How is MAC treatment usually approached

A

Since it occurs in severely immunocompromised patients, we treat it prophylactically if we know they have low CD 4 counts instead of waiting until they have it

39
Q

Who gets mycobacterium avium (MAC)

A

HIV patients with very low CD 4 counts (50)

40
Q

What drugs are used for prophylaxis of MAC

A

Azithromycin
Clarithomycin
Rifabutin

41
Q

MOA of rifabutin

A

Inhibits DAN-dependent RNA polymerase thereby blocking transcription (life rifampin)

42
Q

Antibacterial spectrum of rifabutin

A

MAC

43
Q

Adverse effects of rifabutin

A

Discolored urine

44
Q

3 major categories of helminths

A

Nematodes, trematodes, and custody’s

45
Q

Roundworms

A

Nematodes

46
Q

Flatworms

A

Cestodes and trematodes

47
Q

Another name for trematodes

A

Flukes

48
Q

True tapeworms

A

Cestodes

Flatworms

49
Q

What are the most common helminth infections

A

Pinworms and roundworms

50
Q

Most common helminthic infection in the US

A

Enterobiasis (pinworm disease)

51
Q

Symptoms of enterobiasis (pinworm disease)

A

White worms visible in the stools or perinatal area

52
Q

What is the second most common helminthic disease in the US

A

Ascariasis (roundworm disease)

53
Q

Onchocerciasis

A

River blindness

Major cease of blindness in Africa where the parasite once infected 20 million people

54
Q

Drugs for treatment of nematodes

A

Albendazole
Mebendazole
Pyrantel pamoate
Ivermectin

55
Q

MOA of albendazole/mebendazole

A

Inhibits microtubule synthesis, cant undergo mitosis

56
Q

drug of choice for roundworm, hookworm, whipworm and PINWORM

A

Albendazole or mebendazole

57
Q

How to remember what albendazole/mebendazole do

A

Al or Me is bending over to see pinworm

58
Q

What drug works similarly to succinylcholine that treats nematodes

A

Pyrantel pamoate

59
Q

MOA of pyrantel

A

Persistently stimulates nicotinic receptors present at NMJ resulting in spastic paralysis of the worm

60
Q

Co-drug of choice of roundworm, hookworm, and pinworm

A

Pyrantel

61
Q

MOA of ivermectin

A

Acts as GABA agonist causing hyperpolarization of nerve and muscle cells and death of the worm

62
Q

Drug of choice for onchocerciasis (river blindness)

A

Ivermectin

“Rivermectin”

63
Q

Adverse effects of ivermectin

A

Rashes, pain in joints

-give with antihistamines and NSAIDs

64
Q

Drugs to treat trematodes and cestodes

A

Praziquantel

65
Q

MOA of praziquantel

A

Increases membrane permeability to Ca causing muscle contraction followed by paralysis of muscles

66
Q

Drug of choice for flukes and tapeworms

A

Praziquantel

Pharm Block 12 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions