Talent Management And Development

Question 1

A company implements a plan to identify outcomes attractive to the employee as a way to improve performance, Which motivation theory is the basis for the plan?

a) Reinforcement theory
b) Expectancy theory
c) Goal-setting theory
d)Motivation-hygiene theory

Answer 1

B. Expectancy theory

Vroom’s expectancy theory is based on the premise that an individual acts in a certain way based on the expectation that the act will be followed by a given outcome and the attractiveness of the outcome to the individual.
Reinforcement theory focuses on behavior as a function of consequences. Goal-setting theory proposes that difficult goals result in higher performance. Motivation-hygiene theory states that intrinsic factors are related to job satisfaction while extrinsic factors are related to job dissatisfaction.

Question 2

A forced-choice method of appraisal requires an appraiser to?

a)Measure employees against a five point rating scale, with 1 being significantly below Standard, 3 being standard and 5 being above standard

b) Mark items on a checklist that describe the characteristics and performane of the employee
c) Check two of four statements: one that is most like the employee and one that is least like the employee
d) Select key statements from a list of positive and negative statements and build two ranked lists of employee strengths and weaknesses.

Answer 2

c) Check two of four statements: one that is most like the employee and one that is least like the employee

Forced choice is a variation on the checklist method in which the appraiser is required to check two of four statements: one that the employee is “most like” and one that the employee is “least like”.

Question 3

A manager has a department where none of the employees is failing to meet the minimum requirements of the job. What recourse does the manager have under forced distribution system?

a) The manager may ignore the distribution requirements
b) The manager can use good judgement to evaluate employees but must defend deviations in writing
c) The manager can ask HR for a waiver or an alternative rating system
d) The manager’s appraisals must conform to the distribution

Answer 3

d) The manager’s appraisals must conform to the distribution.

In a forced distribution system, employees are grouped by performance in order to ensure a normal bell curve distribution. It does not rank employee performance simply against job requirements. The supervisor should comply.

Question 4

A manager is tempted to rate an employee’s performance as excellent based on the employee’s strong performance during the last six months. By deciding that the employee’s earlier performance must be considered as well, the manager has avoided which appraisal error?

a) Bias
b) Leniency
c) Recency
d) Contrast

Answer 4

C) Recency

Question 5

An employee who is good at answering customer questions on technical software is not good at completing paperwork or working with fellow employees . In spite of this, the employee is rated highly in all performance categories . What performance appraisal error has occurred?
a) Recency
b) Halo effect
c) Bias
d) Leniency

Answer 5

B) Halo effect

Question 6

An interviewer believes that older workers are more difficult to train and make more mistakes than younger workers . This form of performance appraisal error is
a) Deficiency .
b) Contamination.
c) Bias.
d) Conflict .

Answer 6

C) Bias

Question 7

Goal setting is MOST effective when paired with the performance management tool known as?

a) performance feedback.
b) pay-for-performance system.
c) role modeling.
d) job rotation.

Answer 7

A) Performance feedback

Goal setting is most effective when combined with feedback so progress can be monitored.

Question 8

Halo error occurs when:
a) A large number of ratees receive ratings in the mid-range .
b) A ratee is rated equally on multiple performance scales because of a general impression .
c) A large number of ratees receive high ratings.
d) No practical performance difference exists among ratees.

Answer 8

B) A ratee is rated equally on multiple performance scales because of a general impression .

Halo effect or error occurs when one allows a prominent characteristic to overshadow other evidence. One aspect of performance contaminates other aspects of performance in a positive manner. The reverse effect is referred to as “horned” effect when the performance is viewed in a negative manner.

Question 9

If an employee received an excellent rating because the employee was considerably more skilled than fellow workers, it would be an example of which appraisal error?
a) Bias
b) Leniency
c) Recency
d) Contrast

Answer 9

D) Contrast

The contrast error occurs when an employee’s rating is based on how his or her performance compares to that of another employee instead of on objective performance standards.

Question 10

In performance appraisal systems, central tendency is the most common error found in using:
a) Essays.
b) Ranking.
c) Critical incidents.
d) Graphic rating scale

Answer 10

D) Graphic rating scale

Central tendency is a common problem associated with a performance appraisal that uses a graphic rating scale. The rater evaluates all employees as average or in the mid-range of the scale.

Question 11

In setting and communicating performance standards, HR must consider:
a) needs and attitudes.
b) waste and recycling.
c) supply and demand.
d) behaviors and results.

Answer 11

D) behaviors and results

In setting and communicating performance standards, the HR professional needs to consider behaviors (What does the organization want employees to do and what the performance standards are?) and results (What does the organization want employees to produce?).

Question 12

Procedural justice focuses on the fairness of the ____ of performance appraisal.
a) criteria
b) outcomes
c) processes
d) interaction

Answer 12

C) Processes

Procedural justice is defined as the fairness of the processes that lead to outcomes. Distributive justice is conceptualized as the fairness associated with decision outcomes and distribution of resources. Interactional justice refers to the treatment that an individual receives as decisions are made and can be promoted by providing explanations for decisions and delivering the news with sensitivity and respect.

Question 13

What is the most effective action to strengthen employee’s behavior?
a) Praise an employee for doing a good job.
b) Measure the results of the behaviors.
c) Eliminate any obstacle to achieve performance objective.
d) Provide employee counseling services.

Answer 13

a) Praise an employee for doing a good job.

Question 14

When conducting a performance review, who should do most of the talking?
a) Manager
b) Subordinate
c) HR professional
d) Both appraiser and appraisee should talk about the same amount

Answer 14

B) Subordinate

Question 15

When significant aspects of performance are not measured by the appraisal form this is called :
a) Criterion contamination.
b) Criterion deficiency .
c) Rater-bias error.
d) Contrast error

Answer 15

B) Criterion deficiency

Question 16

Which intervention strategy is used when a subject receives no response at all?
a) Positive reinforcement
b) Negative reinforcement
c) Extinction
d) Punishment

Answer 16

C) Extinction

Extinction involves no response. When behavior is not reinforced (positively, negatively, or via punishment) the behavior will diminish and eventually become nonexistent.

Question 17

Which of the following appraisal methods includes the employee in setting goals?
a) 360-degree feedback
b) Behaviorally anchored rating scale
c) Behavior observation scale
d) Management by objectives

Answer 17

D) Management by objectives

Management by objectives (MBO) is frequently used by managers to appraise employees.
Employees help set objectives for themselves, defining what they intend to achieve within a specified time period. The objectives are based on overall goals and objectives for the organization.

Question 18

Which of the following criteria would be least likely to substantiate the legal defensibility of a performance appraisal system?
a) Specific written instructions.
b) Based on job analysis.
c) Linked to measurable goals.
d) Supervisors trained in administration of the system

Answer 18

C) Linked to measurable goals.

To be legally defensible, performance appraisals should be based upon a job analysis to establish the job-relatedness. Specific written instructions and training should be provided to supervisors in order to standardize the process to minimize adverse impact. Even though performance appraisal criteria may be linked to measurable goals, there is no way of determining whether those goals are relevant to the job and are being consistently measured.

Question 19

Which of the following is an example of 360-degree feedback?
a) An employee receiving feedback on her ability to successfully demonstrate required knowledge, skills, and abilities.
b) An employee receiving feedback that has been completed by two supervisors, so as to avoid rating errors.
c) An employee evaluating her own performance and sharing that with her supervisor.
d) An employee receiving feedback from her supervisor, her peer, and her subordinate.

Answer 19

d) An employee receiving feedback from her supervisor, her peer, and her subordinate.

The 360-degree feedback or rating sources would come from subordinates, peers, and managers in the organizational hierarchy, as well as self-assessment, and in some cases external sources such as customers and suppliers or other stakeholders. The purpose of the 360 degree performance feedback is to assist each individual to understand his or her strengths and weaknesses, and to contribute insights into aspects of his or her work needing professional development.

Question 20

Which of the following is an example of a specific comment used to give feedback?
a) “I like the way you relate to customers.”
b) You could improve the way you relate to customers.
c) Your customer satisfaction index is rated 8.8.
d) Customers seem to like you.

Answer 20

c) Your customer satisfaction index is rated 8.8.

Question 21

Which of the following narrative appraisal methods is completed by a supervisor and a human resource professional?
a) Critical incidents
b) Field review
c) Essay
d) Paired comparison

Answer 21

B) Field review

The supervisor or manager and a human resource professional cooperate in doing field review ratings. The HR professional interviews the supervisor and takes notes concerning the performance of each employee. After the interview, the notes are compiled by the HR department and comparison ratings are arrived at for each employee. Then the ratings are submitted to the supervisor for approval or changes.

Question 22

Which of the following performance appraisal methods was designed to combat the problems of category rating?
a) BARS
b) MBO
c) BOS
d) 360-degree feedback

Answer 22

A) BARS
Behaviorally anchored rating scale

The behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS)
method was designed to combat the problems of category rating by describing examples of desirable and undesirable behavior. Examples are then measured against a scale of performance levels.

Question 23

Which performance appraisal method should the organization implement in order to avoid rater biases from the newly acquired managers?
a) Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS)
b) Forced ranking
c) Behavioral observation scale (BOS)
d) Graphic rating scale

Answer 23

a) Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS)

Question 24

A bank provides parts sales training for its sales associates. How can the bank BEST determine if the training has had an impact?
a) Ask the sales associates about the training .
b) Observe the associates’ interactions with customers.
c) Test the employees on sales techniques .
d) Compare employee sales before and after the training .

Answer 24

d) Compare employee sales before and after the training .

Question 25

A bank purchases a CRM system to increase its customers ‘ satisfaction .
Employees are trained on the new system. However , the satisfaction has
actually declined. What is the FIRST thing the bank manager should do?
a) Talk to employees about the situation.
b) Return to the original compensation plan.
c) Send employees to refresher training.
d) Lower the expected production volume.

Answer 25

A) Talk to employees about the situation.

Question 26

A major concern with e-Learning is that?

a) Retention of learned material is affected by the speed with which the learner progresses through the course.
b) Trainees will discontinue other learning experiences critical to job performance.
c) It is more costly than other training methodologies.
d) It provides too much flexibility because of self-pacing.

Answer 26

a) Retention of learned material is affected by the speed with which the learner progresses through the course.

Question 27

A pharmaceutical company is undertaking a joint venture that enables it to sell a new drug. The company is on a tight time frame and needs to provide training for 150 sales representatives located throughout the U.S.
Given the company’s time constraints, which needs assessment method would best determine the training that sales representatives need?
a) Advisory committee
b) Assessment center
c) Observation
d) Tests

Answer 27

a) Advisory committee

Question 28

A pharmaceutical company is undertaking a joint venture that enables it to sell
a new drug. The company is on a tight time frame and needs to provide training for 150 sales representatives located throughout the U.S. Which of the
following needs assessment methods should the company use to create the sales representatives’ buy-in?
a) Assessment center
b) Phone interviews
c) Observation
d) Questionnaire

Answer 28

B) Phone interviews

Considering that time is an issue and that sales representatives are geographically dispersed, phone interviews will be most effective.
Interviews are most useful in that they can uncover attitudes and allow for discussion of problems and possible solutions. This would not occur with a questionnaire. The tight time frame rules out observation and assessment centers.

Question 29

A trainer has introduced an activity by reading the instructions from the facilitator guide and allowed time for questions before breaking into small groups. After forming groups, participants spend more time asking questions about what they are supposed to do than doing the activity. To keep the group focused on the activity, what should the trainer do differently next time?
a) Establish ground rules on how group activities should be conducted.
b) Allow more time for the small group activity.
c) Appoint a leader for each group to report results to the class.
d) Provide written activity instructions in a handout

Answer 29

d) Provide written activity instructions in a handout

Question 30

A training and development professional is most likely to succeed in drawing
out quiet or non-participative group members by doing which of the following?
a) Redirecting questions and comments back to the group when opinions are sought
b) Restating in the facilitator’s own words what a group member has said
c) Asking group members to look at the big picture when caught up in detail
d) Calling on the group members by name and asking directly for their input

Answer 30

d) Calling on the group members by name and asking directly for their input

Question 31

A training manager and a marketing manager differ on the content of a new training program for entry-level marketing assistants. What is the best way to resolve the disagreement?

a) Work with the marketing manager to develop a needs assessment.
b) Let the training-manager develop the program, but have the marketing manager review it.
c) Let senior management decide based upon the strategic plan.
d) Whoever is paying for the development of the program should have the final decision.

Answer 31

A) Work with the marketing manager to develop a needs assessment.

Question 32

Adults learn best when the material to be taught is:
a) Standardized.
b) Integrated with their experience.
c) Presented in a classroom-lecture format.
d) Geared to the level that is slightly more difficult than they can easily handle.

Answer 32

B) Integrated with their experience.

Question 33

At a business supply company, account managers are responsible for collecting unpaid bills. The company decides to send account managers to a training course on bill collection. A successful account manager thinks that the course will be interesting but doubts that the company will give account managers time for collection activities. In this case, the training is likely to be minimally successful because the account manager.
a) seems unmotivated to learn new skills.
b) doubts that the company will reinforce the learning.
c) lacks the ability to learn new skills.
d) does not see how the training relates to the job.

Answer 33

b) doubts that the company will reinforce the learning.

Question 34

Gaps between actual and desired performance are best identified in which phase of the ADDIE process?
a) Development
b) Design
c) Assessment
d) Evaluation

Answer 34

C) Assessment

Question 35

HR conducts a 360-degree feedback process with the senior executives. Employees say the trained executives have communicated company progress on a regular basis and are always available for guidance . What level of evaluation is being measured?
a) Reaction
b) Results
c) Behavior
d) Learning

Answer 35

C) Behavior

Question 36

If many people perform a similar set of tasks , what would be the preferred method of collecting information for assessing training needs?

a) Job inventory questionnaire .
b) Employee opinion.
c) Observation and interview.
d) Performance appraisal data.

Answer 36

A) Job inventory questionnaire .

Job-inventory questionnaires can be administered to a large group of employees in a short amount of time to identify training needs.
The other identified methods are more time-consuming.

Question 37

In which of the following content areas is it most difficult to evaluate the effectiveness of training?
a) Typing skills.
b) Human relations.
c) Accident reduction.
d) Grievance reduction.

Answer 37

b) Human relations.

Soft skills or behaviors such as human relations can be observed but represent a challenge in terms of measurement.

Question 38

Once the data of training needs analysis has been gathered, the next step is to:
a) Report the needs that training can and cannot meet.
b) Develop the objectives for the training program.
c) Propose a series of solutions for customer service problems.
d) Decide whether to develop or buy the training program.

Answer 38

a) Report the needs that training can and cannot meet.

Question 39

One well-recognized advantage of on-the-job training is:
a) Supervisors’ expertise in conducting job-specific instruction.
b) The incorporation of unplanned activities in the learning situation.
c) The ability to fit the learning to the trainee.
d) The ability to expand the learning to a more developmental focus.

Answer 39

c) The ability to fit the learning to the trainee.

Question 40

People are more receptive to learning in a training situation when:
a) Management requires attendance.
b) Peer pressure is high.
c) E-Learning is used.
d) The material is important to them.

Answer 40

D) The material is important to them.

Question 41

Tests would likely be used for evaluating the results of training programs when which criterion is used?
a) Reaction.
b) Learning .
c) Behavior.
d) Results.

Answer 41

b) Learning

Question 42

The best way for managers to measure observable changes in behavior is through the use of
a) Pre-post-measures.
b) Performance review.
c) Productivity measures.
d) Questionnaires.

Answer 42

b) Performance review.

Performance review represents the desired behavior or outcome, and they should be defined as both observable and measurable behaviors.
Keep in mind that behavior will only change if conditions are favorable. For instance, effective learning could have taken place in the training session. But, if the overall organizational culture isn’t set up for any behavior changes, the trainees might not be able to apply what they’ve learned.

Question 43

The HRCI is adding five new stamping machines , which are identical in design and operation to 20 stamping machines currently operated by 20 machine
operators and 20 assistant machine operators. The operators for the new equipment will be selected from the pool of current assistant machine operators . Which of the following is the most cost effective instructional method for training the new operators?

a) Classroom-based lecture
b) E-learning from the vendor
c) Structured on-the-job training
d) Simulation-based training

Answer 43

C) Structured on-the-job training

Question 44

The manager determines that the decline of customer satisfaction is a result of both the new system and the compensation policy. Because some of the employees are not yet proficient on the system, they believe that the higher satisfaction goals are not achievable . What is the next thing the manager should do?
a) Reinstate the original compensation plan.
b) Provide a breather period before instituting the new compensation incentives.
c) Threaten to reprimand all workers who are falling below standard.
d) Provide retraining and coaching for all workers who are below standard.

Answer 44

d) Provide retraining and coaching for all workers who are below standard.

Question 45

To ensure that a job training program is valid, a trainer will emphasize:
a) Conducting a job/task analysis.
b) Observing and interviewing the most productive incumbents in a job.
c) Surveying what programs are commercially available in the specific job area.
d) Outlining the traits necessary to perform the job.

Answer 45

a) Conducting a job/task analysis.

Question 46

Transfer of training refers to a trainee’s ability to
a) Teach others what they have learned.
b) Evaluate the effectiveness of training.
c) Pass an exam at the end of the training session.
d) Apply what they have learned on the job.

Answer 46

d) Apply what they have learned on the job.

Question 47

What is a benefit of incorporating knowledge of the characteristics of adult learners into a training program?
a) It allows participants to learn directly from the instructor.
b) It accommodates the different learning styles of adults.
c) It creates a structured environment in which it is easy for the instructor to teach.
d) It tells participants what the best way is for them to learn.

Answer 47

b) It accommodates the different learning styles of adults.

Question 48

What is a characteristic of an adult learner?.
a) Directed by others
b) Resistant to change
c) Inflexible
d) Focus on “real-world” issues

Answer 48

d) Focus on “real-world” issues

Question 49

What is a disadvantage of e-learning?

a) It has a higher dropout rate than other forms of training.
b) It is difficult to keep information current.
c) It limits opportunities for higher level learning.
d) It requires synchronous training methods.

Answer 49

a) It has a higher dropout rate than other forms of training.

Question 50

What type of training utilizes demonstration and hands-on performance of job tasks to be accomplished?
a) On-the-job training
b) Self-directed study
c) Webinar
d) Classroom training

Answer 50

a) On-the-job training

Question 51

Which learning curve is common when a trainee is learning a difficult task that also requires specific insight?

a) S-shaped curve
b) Plateau curve
c) Decreasing returns
d) Increasing returns

Answer 51

a) S-shaped curve

S-shaped curve is a combination of increasing and decreasing returns. There is a presupposition that the individual is learning a difficult task that also requires specific insight.

Question 52

Which level of training evaluation provides data related to sales increases or cost savings?

a) Reaction
b) Learning
c) Behavior
d) Results

Answer 52

d) Results

Question 53

Which of the following is a disadvantage of instructor-led training?

a) It limits the variety of learning activities.
b) It provides less individual attention for learners .
c) It is less effective for large groups.
d) It limits group feedback and idea sharing

Answer 53

c) It is less effective for large groups.

Question 54

Which of the following is an advantage of conducting a pilot program?

a) It allows you to evaluate the sequencing of content.
b) Participants can be put at ease concerning the training.
c) It provides the instructional designer with more time to design the program.
d) It creates interest from key stakeholders.

Answer 54

a) It allows you to evaluate the sequencing of content.

A pilot program involves offering the program initially in a controlled environment with a segment of the target audience. Feedback from the participants of the pilot audience should be used in the next step, revising content.

Question 55

Which of the following is an example of transfer of learning?

a) A learner uses skills learned in training on the job.
b) A learner is satisfied with the learning experience.
c) A learner participates actively in role play activities.
d) A learner retains key content and passes a final exam.

Answer 55

a) A learner uses skills learned in training on the job.

Question 56

Which of the following is the BEST method to meet the needs of a visual learner?

a) Provide a variety of learning tools, including diagrams, illustrated textbooks, videos, and handouts.
b) Ensure that the instructor enunciates clearly.
c) Provide opportunities for group discussion.
d) Create a highly interactive learning environment.

Answer 56

a) Provide a variety of learning tools, including diagrams, illustrated textbooks, videos, and handouts.

Question 57

Which of the following should HR consider when defining the target audience for a training program?

a) Potential productivity gains
b) Incentives for completing the training
c) Peer group pressure
d) Knowledge and skill of participants

Answer 57

d) Knowledge and skill of participants

Question 58

Which of the following types of activities would appeal to a kinesthetic learner?

a) Reviewing key content by using PowerPoint slides
b) Taking detailed notes on a new topic
c) Listening to tape recordings of a lecture
d) Participating in a crisis management simulation

Answer 58

d) Participating in a crisis management simulation

Question 59

You need to select a training delivery method. Your goals include (a) cost effectiveness, (b) low amount of trainer travel , and (c) low amount of trainee time away from work. Immediate trainee feedback in real time is not required. Which delivery method would best address this situation?

a) Blended e-learning event
b) Synchronous e-learning event
c) Facilitator-led classroom event
d) Asynchronous e-learning event

Answer 59

d) Asynchronous e-learning event

Asynchronous e-learning is an appropriate training delivery method when the goals include:
(a) keeping costs low, (b) minimizing the amount of trainer travel, (c) minimizing the amount of trainee time away from work. Reducing both trainer and trainee time away suggests a technologically-driven solution. An asynchronous solution further reduces the need for schedule management.

Question 60

A common mistake to make with succession planning is to
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. View local and global staffing requirements as an integrated whole.
B. View the global succession plan as the sum of all of the local succession plans.
C. Consider local and global requirements at the same time.
D. Focus on global requirements and opportunities.

Answer 60

B. View the global succession plan as the sum of all of the local succession plans.

Question 61

A high-performing manager is interested in promotion to an executive-level position.
However, the company does not have an employee who is ready to move into the manager’s position. The manager has indicated that it may be time to look at outside opportunities What action will BEST meet the needs of both the employee and the company?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Promote the manager immediately and appoint an acting manager
B. Enroll the manager in executive training while searching for a replacement.
C. Agree on an acceptable timeframe for promotion.
D. Hire a temporary manager until a new manager is found.

Answer 61

B. Enroll the manager in executive training while searching for a replacement.

Question 62

All of the following are ways that HR can support the employees’ career plan EXCEPT:
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Offering employees training opportunities
B. Using high-performance work system methods
C. Learning how to provide appropriate mentoring assistance
D. Discussing career goals during regular performance appraisals

Answer 62

B. Using high-performance work system methods

The basic aim of high-performance work systems is to enable employees to exercise decision making, leading to flexibility, innovation, improvement and skill sharing. By facilitating the development of high-performance work systems we help organizations make continuous improvement a way of life, not used for career development.

Question 63

Career development programs that help employees reappraise their career paths and remain productive in work are the focus for employees in which stage of career development?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Career preparation
B. Late career
C. Early career
D. Mid-career

Answer 63

D. Mid-career

Question 64

Creating a dual-ladder career path enables employers to.
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Increase retention of technical employees
B. Identify candidates for early retirement
C. Soften the effects of mergers or acquisitions
D. Promote women and minorities into top

Answer 64

A. Increase retention of technical employees

Question 65

If talent management is effective in a firm
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. The voluntary turnover among the high potential employees will be essentially zero.
B. The quantity and quality of the HR talent pool will be the deepest in the industry.
C. The cost of labor in the firm will be the lowest of its direct competitors.
D. The firm will have the right people with the right talents available at the right time in the right places.

Answer 65

D. The firm will have the right people with the right talents available at the right time in the right places.

Question 66

Replacement planning is based on an organization’s ability to?
A. Find candidates with development potential.
B. Identify the best available candidate for a job.
C. Plan specific goals and assignments for individuals.
D. Test candidates potential early in their careers.

Answer 66

B. Identify the best available candidate for a job.

Question 67

The FIRST step in developing strategies to retain talented employees is to

A. Compare the organization’s salaries with those of its competitors
B. Offer increased benefits rather than additional pay
C. Offer challenging work to talented employees
D. Find out why the most talented people are leaving.

Answer 67

D. Find out why the most talented people are leaving.

Question 68

What is the difference between replacement planning and succession planning?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Replacement planning has a long-term focus; succession planning has a short-term focus.
B. Replacement planning focuses on developing back-ups for key positions; succession planning develops a pool of candidates capable of filling several assignments.
C. Replacement planning is more informal and is usually based on oral discussions between manager and employee; succession planning is based on a very formal development plan.

D. Replacement planning is based on a very formal development plan; succession planning is more informal and is usually based on oral discussions between manager and employee.

Answer 68

B. Replacement planning focuses on developing back-ups for key positions; succession planning develops a pool of candidates capable of filling several assignments.

Replacement planning is focused on a single functional area and on finding back-up candidates who are ready to assume a position within the short term, usually 12 months.
Succession planning focuses on developing a pool of talented employees who will be capable of filling a variety of positions within the long term, usually 12 to 36 months. Replacement planning can be done at all levels, not just for mid-level executives. Generally speaking, replacement planning is more informal than succession planning.

Question 69

Which of the following best describes the difference between replacement planning and succession planning?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Replacement planning focuses on the long term, while succession planning focuses on the short term.

B. Replacement planning is designed for individual countries, while succession planning is designed to serve corporate headquarters.

C. Replacement planning is optional, while succession planning is necessary.

D. Replacement planning focuses on the short term, while succession planning focuses on the long term.

Answer 69

D. Replacement planning focuses on the short term, while succession planning focuses on the long term.

Question 70

Which of the following best ensures that people with the necessary talent and skills are available when and where the need arises for them?
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Job analysis process
B. Succession planning process
C. Competency definition process
D. Global human resource strategic planning process.

Answer 70

B. Succession planning process

Question 71

Which of the following is most characteristic of succession planning?.
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. It focuses on issues likely to occur in the short term of approximately one to three years.
B. It is initiated as soon as it is clear a senior executive is leaving
C. It focuses on the long-term
D. Local requirements are given the highest priority.

Answer 71

C. It focuses on the long-term

Question 72

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a succession planning process?.
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Local requirements are given the highest priority
B. It is more likely to have a time span of 10 years than 3 years
C. Global requirements are given the highest priority.
D. Talent and skills are matched with strategic goals.

Answer 72

A. Local requirements are given the highest priority

Question 73

A common mistake made in creating succession plans is to forecast future staffing needs on the basis of
Choose only ONE best answer.
A. Past experience.
B. Corporate strategic plans.
C. Human resource strategic plans
D. Unproven assumptions about future events.

Answer 73

A. Past experience

Using forecasting based on past experience seems like a logical way to plan, but the emphasis needs to be more aligned with the future. For example, staffing requirements are defined by constantly changing factors in the economy and the competition. Although forecasts should not be made based on blind assumptions, they often must be made based on unproven assumptions simply because the future is unknown.

Question 74

Which of the following is most likely to focus on the relatively short term?
A. Global planning
B. Succession planning
C. Strategic Planning
D. Replacement planning

Answer 74

D. Replacement planning