TAA-MCD Flashcards

1
Q

Define undermoderated

A

MTC is negative

resonance escape probability is dominate over thermal utilization factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define overmoderated

A

MTC is positive

Thermal utilization factor is dominate over resonance escape probability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe core power effects of FTC

A

At higher fuel temps doppler broadening lessens per degree F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why does FTC become more negative over core life

A

build in of Pu-240

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

State ECCS acceptance criteria

A
Cladding temp <2200F
Cladding oxidation <17% of thickness
Hydrogen generation <1%
Coolable geometry
Long-term cooling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is Critical Heat flux

A

the heat transfer per unit area to cause DNB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

discuss how CHF change over core height

A

CHF decreases from the bottom to the top of the core

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define departure from nucleate boiling ratio

A

CHF divided by AHF at any point along a fuel rod

T.S. limit >/= 1.14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Discuss what the concern is with RCS hot leg becoming saturated

A

Delta-T is no longer representative of reactor power output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

State the basis for heat flux hot channel factor

A

Fuel temp <4700F
Maintain cladding temp <2200F
Maintain DNBR >/=1.14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define FqZ (Heat flux Hot Channel Factor)

A

the ratio of highest linear power density at core height Z along any fuel rod to the core average fuel rod linear power density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

State the Kw/ft that would cause fuel melt and cladding ocidation

A

21 Kw/Ft = 4700F (fuel melt)

18 Kw/Ft = 2200F (cladding Oxidation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define FnDelta-H (Nuclear Enthalpy rise Hot Channel Factor)

A

Ratio of the total power produced by the highest power fuel rod to the total power produced by the average fuel rod power

  • is a measure of a maximum total power produced in a fuel rod
  • basis: DNBR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define Axial Flux DIfference

A

AFD = Ptop - Pbottom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define Axial Offset

A

Ptop-Pbottom/Ptop+Pbottom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

State the T.S. for AFD

A

If unacceptable:
restore to within limits within 15 min
OR
restore power to <50% within 30 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Summarize guidance for AFD control

A
Inside admin band: do NOTHING
Outside band (ARO): push-pull-drift
Outside band: push-pull
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

State acceptance criteria for rod control

A

+/- 10% load change
+/- 5% per minute load ramp rate
50% step load rejection with auto steam dumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

State the function of the Setpoint Study

A

A setpoint study which defines NSSS control system setpoints and time constants to be used for initial plant start up and subsequent operation as verified by startup testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

State Reactor response to a SLOW reactivity addition accident

A

No power overshoot before RPS trip

Core protected by OTDT trip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

State Reactor response to a FAST reactivity addition accident

A

power overshoots before rods insert
Core protected by FTC
- High Flux/ high rate trips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

State Reactor response to a PROMPT reactivity addition accident

A

Large power overshoot
FTC limits power rise
RX eventually trips from PR flux trip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

State why single rod withdrawal is worse than a bank withdrawal

A

A single rod withdrawal causes significant localized hot channel factor peeking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

State RCS response to a Rod drop accident with rods in manual

A

Tave decreases adding negative reactivity

Decrease is not enough to restore power to original level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

State plant response to a Rod drop accident with rods in AUTO

A

Rods withdraw due to PMM (if no C-11)

slight power overshoot causing rods to drive back in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the analyzed rod ejection accident

A

LOCA and reactivity addition accident
FTC required to terminate power rise
RX trip on high flux rate
BOL full power would result in 10% fuel melt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

During an increased Secondary Heat removal accident why is BOL with auto rods is most limiting

A

Less negative MTC
Temp and pressure are more stable
power is higher and dominant so DNBR decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

State design features that minimize the consequences of steam line breaks

A
Flow restrictor in outlet of SG nozzle
MSI actuation
SI actuation
ASME class 1 piping
Various RX trips
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

State most limiting factor in MSLB accident

A

Most reactive RCCA is assumed to be stuck fully withdrawn after reactor trip

  • allows possible re-criticality
  • results in higher peaking factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Explain why HZP and EOL for MSLB is severe

A

HZP: maximum SG water inventory
EOL: MTC is most negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

State DNB parameters of concern

A

Tave = 595.1F
PZR press >/= 2185#
- restore within 2hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

For a Decreased Secondary heat load removal accident state why a low-low SG water level with a LOP is severe

A

Minimizes the SG heat transfer capability and increase the amount of RCS stored energy at the time of RX trip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

State how RCS Bleed and Feed is accomplished

A

Used during loss of all feed event (loss of heat sink)

- Both PORVs and one CCP + SI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Explain why it is important that the initiation of bleed and feed be delayed criteria is met

A
WR level in and 3 SG < 30%
PZR pressure > 2385#
- SG mass still available for cooling
- Cooling helps repressurization
- lower RCS pressure allows more ECCS flow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

List stages for Large Break LOCA

A

Blowdown
Refill
Reflood
Recirculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Discuss SBLOCA worse case and location

A

Cold leg 4” SBLOCA is the worse case due to loop seal and that steam is prevented from being vented from the core

37
Q

State the UFSAR worse case LBLOCA

A

Loss of one train of ECCS

Both trains of CBS work

38
Q

Explain why for SBLOCAs the core can become uncovered

A

A loop seal forms in the intermediate leg which slowly depletes inventory and causes core uncovery
- once level is low enough the loop seal is broken and reflood can commence

39
Q

Describe how to determine a SGTR from a LOCA

A

an uncontrolled SG NR level increase

40
Q

Describe major actions in E-3 that are required to recover from a SGTR

A

Identify and Isolate the ruptured SG
Cooldown RCS
Depressurize RCS
Terminate SI

41
Q

Explain my stopping an RCP is not desirable during a SGTR

A

CDR for natural circ is slower

normal sprays are not available for depressurization

42
Q

For a SGTR state the UFSAR major assumptions

A

1 intact ASDV fails to open
Ruptured SG ASDV fails open
LOP
Normal plant parameters

43
Q

For a SGTR state the consequences for not meeting the TCAs

A

Water may relieve out of the SG safeties, radiological mess

44
Q

For loss of flow accidents that the core safety limit of concern

A

DNBR >/= 1.14

45
Q

Explain RCP under voltage trip reasoning

A

this is an anticipatory trip that senses flow maybe too low

46
Q

Explain RCP under frequency trip reasoning

A

The RCP flywheel won’t have enough inertia for adequate coast down

47
Q

State relationship between loss of flow and OTDT trips

A

OTDT is a DNB trip

OTDT assumes nominal flow

48
Q

Explain why a seized RCP rotor is the most severe low flow accident

A

There is no flywheel coast down

significant DNB occurs

49
Q

State the most significant post-LOCA H2 contributor

A

zirc water reaction

50
Q

State why transfer to hot leg recirc is desired

A

Prevents boron precipitation

condenses any steam in the outlet plenum

51
Q

List the 5 indications of natural circulation

A
Subcooling >40f
Hot leg temps - stable or decreasing
Core exit thermocouples - stable or decreasing
SG pressures - stable or decreasing
Cold leg temps - at Tsat for SG pressure
52
Q

Discuss why Delta-T can not be relied upon in natural circulation

A

Delta-T is only valid for forced flow

53
Q

State limits on subcooling if natural circ is being used

A

this allows vessel head to cooldown

  • > 50F with 2 CRDMs running
  • 100 and 130F if CRDMs fans are not funning
54
Q

State how to enhance natural circ

A
PZR level at 25%
RCS subcooling at 50f
SG NR at 50%
CDR at 50F/hr
ALL CRDM fans on
55
Q

State the two factors that determine the severity of a SBO

A

Duration of the event

Response of the RCP seals

56
Q

Discuss why the RCP seals are the most susceptible in a SBO

A

If cooling is lost then seals will degrade >550F

This will cause a LOCA and core uncovery if power is not restored

57
Q

Describe two corrective measures that must be taken to minimize a SBO

A

Cool down RCS

Depressurize the RCP

58
Q

Describe UFSAR SBO conclusions

A

4 HR duration
4 HR battery capacity
CST required volume: 137,000gallon
Core is not expected to become uncovered

59
Q

State worse case ATWS event

A

Loss of secondary heat sink

- loss of load (2959#) RCS pressure

60
Q

State assumed RX power after ATWS

A

after 10 min RX power is 5% due to steam demand and EFW capacity

61
Q

Discuss how to limit an ATWS event

A

Trip the turbine w/in 30 seconds (preserves SG inventory)

Initiate SG flow w/in 60 second

62
Q

List the operator actions to mitigate ATWS event

A

Insert negative reactivity
trip turbine w/in 30 seconds
EFW actuation within 60 seconds
Verify PORVS and safeties open when required

63
Q

State the temp for inadequate core cooling

A

CETC >1100F, assumes core damage will happen

64
Q

State conditions for inadequate core cooling

A

No CCPs or SIPs

65
Q

State in order of preference inadequate core cooling recovery methods

A

ECCS actuation
Secondary Depressurization
RCP restart
RCS depressurization

66
Q

Explain response of normal response of NI following a reactor trip

A

Prompt drop to 6%
stable -1/3 SUR
SR detectors should reenergize at 5e-11 about 15 to 20 min

67
Q

Explain what determines equilibrium fission rate in a shut down RX

A

Directly proportional to source strength (higher at EOL)

Inversely proportional to SDM

68
Q

Why does SR counts increase as voiding increases with RCPs running

A

RCS is saturated and progressively voiding
Indicated SR level rises as a much larger fraction of the neutron population reaches the NIs (less shielding from coolant)

69
Q

Why does SR counts change as voiding increases without RCPs

A

SR counts increases as core uncovers and downcomer empties

SR counts then decrease as level drops further and source strength drops

70
Q

Explain the response of incore NI as the core is uncoverd

A

During uncovery the outputs above the water level rise significantly
The outputs below the water level will read lower and show more variation

71
Q

State how to calculate Subcooling margin

A

Use WR RCS pressure (PT-403,405)
Determine Tsat for pressure
Subtract highest average CETC quadrant temperature

72
Q

What does a negative subcooling margin mean

A

Indication of superheat at core exit

73
Q

What does 40F subcooling margin mean

A

Saturation temperatures at core exit

74
Q

Discuss why CDR is more restrictive

A

CDR is more restrictive due to the tensile stress on the inner vessel wall causing the vessel to be closer to max allowed stress

75
Q

State the four conditions that must be present for Pressurized thermal shock

A

Severe cooling and high rate
High internal pressure
High NDT
Critical flaw

76
Q

State the three things as an operator that can be done to reduce PTS

A

Stop the cooldown
Terminate SI
Soak the RCS

77
Q

State the Containment design basis for a LBLOCA

A

LBLOCA in the intermediate leg

Combines effect of high core reflood rate plus SG heat addition

78
Q

State issue with FR-Z.1 versus other FRPs

A

FR-Z.1 there is no alternate recovery actions can be provided because CBS is the only ESF system that will mitigate a rise in containment pressure

79
Q

State parameters for entry into Containment status tree

A

pressure >52#
OR
Pressure >18# and Phase A and B isolations not isolated

80
Q

List the four major classifications on post accident fuel conditions

A

Undamaged fuel
Failed cladding
Overheated fuel
Core Melt

81
Q

Describe the fission products unique to each type of post accident fuel conditions

A

Failed cladding - Xenon, Krypton, Iodine
Overheated Fuel - Xenon, Krypton, Iodine and CESIUM
Core Melt - Strontium and Barium

82
Q

State auxiliary parameters to asses core damage

A

Containment H2
CETCs
RVLIS
Containment radiation level

83
Q

Describe how Iodine spiking occurs

A

Iodine transfuses through a cladding defect into the RCS

84
Q

Describe where Post accident samples can be drawn from

A
Chemistry samples from Loops 1 or 3
OR 
RHR pump discharge
all through the PASS System
Radiation on sample can be very high
85
Q

State which Radiation monitor is most useful to the plant to determine containment rad levels

A

Post LOCA Containment area radiation monitors

86
Q

State how to estimate radiation doses in containment

A

Take external dose rates at the hatch and solve for internal dose

87
Q

Describe how the operator determines the dose to the public

A

Raddose V is used to calculate

88
Q

State what must be done to use CSF for EAL entry

A

Conditions must be evaluated and verified via hardwire indications