TA 1 Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 moments for hand hygiene?

A

Before contact with patient or patient’s environment, before a clean or aseptic procedure, after exposure or risk of exposure to blood and or bodily fluids, after contact with a patient or patient’s environment.

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2
Q

When is soap preferred over an alcohol-based hand rub?

A

Food handling, after using the washroom, providing care for a patient with vomiting or diarrhea, or when a patient is on sporicidal precautions.

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3
Q

What is a PCRA?

A

A point of care risk assessment.

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4
Q

What is assessed during a PCRA?

A

The task, patient, and environment..

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5
Q

What PPE is required for contact precautions?

A

Gown and gloves.

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6
Q

What are some examples of pathogens requiring contact precautions?

A

MRSA and VRE.

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7
Q

What PPE is required for droplet precautions?

A

Eye protection and mask.

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8
Q

What are some examples of pathogens requiring droplet precautions?

A

Pertussis, mumps, rubella, N. meningitidis.

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9
Q

What PPE is required for contact/droplet precautions?

A

Eye protection, mask, gown, and gloves.

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10
Q

What are some examples of pathogens requiring contact/droplet precautions?

A

Adenovirus, influenza, covid, RSV, Rhinovirus, enterovirus, parainfluenza, and group A strep.

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11
Q

What PPE is required for airborne precautions?

A

N95 mask.

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12
Q

What are some examples of airborne pathogens?

A

Tuberculosis and measles.

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13
Q

What PPE is required for airborne/contact precautions?

A

N95 mask, gown, and gloves.

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14
Q

What are some pathogens that would require airborne/contact precautions?

A

Varicella and shingles.

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15
Q

What PPE is required for sporicidal precautions?

A

Gown and gloves.

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16
Q

What are some special considerations for airborne pathogens?

A

Must be in a negative pressure room and staff must always wear n95.

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17
Q

What are some special considerations for sporicidal precautions?

A

Must wash hands with soap and water, not hand sanitizer.

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18
Q

What are some common normal microbial organisms and where are they found?

A

E. coli (large intestine), Streptococci (upper respiratory tract), and staphylococci (skin).

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19
Q

Name the types of microorganisms we will encounter from smallest to largest.

A

Virus, bacteria, fungi, and protozoa.

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20
Q

What are the primary bacterial shapes?

A

Cocci (spherical), bacilli (rods), and spirochetes (spiral).

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21
Q

What is the difference between gram negative and gram positive bacteria?

A

Gram negative stain pink and gram positive stain purple.

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22
Q

What type of stain is used to identify bacteria belonging to mycobacterium?

A

Mycobacterium = TB; Acid fast stain aka Ziel Neelsen stain.

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23
Q

What are autotrophs?

A

Organisms that require simple inorganic nutrients to survive.

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24
Q

What are heterotrophs?

A

Organisms that require complex organic nutrients.

25
Q

What are aerobes?

A

Organisms that require oxygen for metabolims.

26
Q

What are anaerobes?

A

Organisms that do not require oxygen.

27
Q

What are facultative anaerobes?

A

Organisms that have limited oxygen tolerance.

28
Q

Describe what prions are and what they do.

A

Self-replicating proteins that destroy other proteins in the brain. Transmissible by ingestion of infected material, no preventative treatment or vaccine, no cure, no host immune response, always fatal.

29
Q

What are Rickettsiae and Chlamydiae?

A

Complex structures that resemble bacteria but act like viruses as they require a living host. Rickettsiae (typhus) is transmitted by insects and chlamydiae (pneumonia, sinusitis, pharyngitis) is transmitted by contact or airborne.

30
Q

Define virulence.

A

The degree of pathogenicity (how severe and infectious).

31
Q

What are the phases of bacterial growth?

A

Lag (initial infection), log (exponential growth), stationary (bacteria stop as nutrient supply is exhausted), death

32
Q

What is hepatitis?

A

Inflammation of the liver.

33
Q

How do the modes of transmission differ between types of hepatitis?

A

Hep A- fecal/oral
Hep B- blood/bodily fluid
Hep C- blood

34
Q

What are the portals of entry for microorganisms?

A

Skin, mucous membranes, placenta, and parenterally.

35
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of infection?

A

Fever, redness, inflammation, swelling, pain, nausea, malaise, purulent discharge, increased white blood cells.

36
Q

What is the temperature boundary for fever?

A

> 38.9 C

37
Q

What causes the increase in body temperature in fever?

A

Constriction of blood vessels, increased metabolic rate, shivering.

38
Q

Why do lymph nodes swell in response to an infection?

A

Microbes from tissue become trapped in lymph node, lymphocytes multiply, and potentially having an individual infected node.

39
Q

Which biological molecule initiates the inflammatory cascade?

A

Histamine.

40
Q

What are the four signs of inflammation?

A

Heat, redness, swelling, pain.

41
Q

What causes heat and redness in inflammation?

A

Vasodilation.

42
Q

Why is vessel permeability increased in inflammation?

A

Recruitment of phagocytic WBCs to the area to destroy bacteria, lymphocytes to recognize pathogen antigens to start antibody production, antibodies (which may already be present) coat the bacteria for phagocytosis, and clotting factors move to injury site and surround microbes.

43
Q

What do antiviral drugs target?

A

The mechanism of viral replication.

44
Q

What is humoral immunity?

A

A type of learned immunity where specific protective antibodies are formed by transformed B-cells after an antigen is encountered.

45
Q

What is cellular immunity?

A

A type of learned immunity where T-cells learn to recognize and destroy large invading microorganisms.

46
Q

What is an antigen?

A

A substance that induces a specific immune response.

47
Q

What is an antibody?

A

A result of an immune response; proteins called Ig.

48
Q

What is the role of IgM?

A

It is the first antibody produced by the immune system and is present on B cells and is responsible for their activation. Binds pathogens.

49
Q

What is the role of IgG?

A

Smallest and most abundant, can bind pathogens, long lasting (indicates past exposure), capable of crossing the placenta.

50
Q

How are antibodies produced?

A

Lymphocytes (T and B cells) make contact with an antigen, B cells proliferate into a clone, clone divides into plasma cells (which produce antibodies) and memory cells (which do not produce antibodies but wait to be activated for future use).

51
Q

What is a toxoid?

A

An inactivated bacterial exotoxin that retains its antigenic properties.

52
Q

What is a Mantoux test?

A

The Tuberculin Skin Test where small amounts of purified tubercle are injected intradermally.

53
Q

Define virulence.

A

A pathogens heightened ability to infect or harm a host and produce disease.

54
Q

Define pathogen.

A

The bacteria, virus, or microorganism that can cause disease.

55
Q

Define saprophyte.

A

An organism that lives on dead organic matter (fungi or bacteria).

56
Q

Define seroconversion.

A

An individual who test negative for an antibody before immunization and positive after immunization.

57
Q

Define endemic.

A

A disease that occurs continuously in a particular population but has low mortality.

58
Q

Define epidemic.

A

A sudden or sever outbreak within a region or group.

59
Q

Define pandemic.

A

Occurs when an epidemic becomes very widespread and affects a whole region, continent, or the world.