Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

T2P Tactics Exam > T2P Question Bank > Flashcards

T2P Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

Publication to find information about airport lighting

A

FIH Section B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Publication to find information about Two Way Radio Failure procedures

A

FIH Section A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Max airspeed below 10,000’ ______

A

250 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Max airspeed _____ below 2,500’ within _____nm of class ______ and _____ airspace

A

200 KIAS / 4 / C / D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Max airspeed underlying Class B airspace

A

200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Max Holding Speed up to 6,000 feet

A

200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Max Holding airspeed 6,001’ to 14,000’

A

230 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Max Holding airspeed above 14,001 feet

A

265 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

USAF fields unless otherwise depicted

A

310 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Holding airspeed @ USN fields unless otherwise depicted

A

230 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Holding Timing

A

At or below 14,000’ MSL - 1 Minute Leg
Above 14,000’ MSL - 1.5 Minute Leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Trouble T mean on SID or Approach Plate

A

An obstacle penetrates the 40:1 OIS and therefore a departure procedure and/or different weather minimums are published. If there is a trouble T, a diverse departure is not authorized. Look in the front of the approach book for specific guidance or procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the criteria for diverse departures?

A

200’/nm, cross departure end at 35’, climb to 400’ before making any turn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Difference between “descend via” vs “cleared for” on a STAR

A

Descend via - follow published vertical lateral guidance
Cleared via - lateral guidance but maintain last assigned altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

You arrive at an airport and are not on a published transition route and subsequently cleared for the approach, what are your actions.

A

Maintain last assigned altitude until you are established on a published portion of the approach procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Differences between Class C and D airspace.

A

Class C - Sur to 4000’ AGL within 5 nm of core, 1200’ to 4000’ within 10nm of core, 2 way comms, mode C
Class D - Sur to 2500’ AGL within 4nm of core, 2 way comms
Both - 200 KIAS max within 4nm and below 2500’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Actions in the event of lost comms

A

FIH section A - AVEFAME
Route (AVEF) - Assigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed
Altitude (AME) - Assigned, Min, Expected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Circling airspeeds categories and what is airspeed base on?

A

Based on Max Certified Landing Weight (IAS)
Cat A - less 91 knots
Cat B - 91 or more to 121 knots
Cat C - 121 or more to 141 knots
Cat D - 141 or more to 166 knots
Cat E - 166 knots or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Standard Circling Radii

A

Cat A - 1.3
Cat B - 1.5
Cat C - 1.7
Cat D - 2.3
Cat E - 4.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Expanded Circling Radii (inverse C)

A

Cat A - 1.3
Cat B - 1.7
Cat C - 2.7
Cat D - 3.6
Cat E - 4.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is Circling Radii defined

A

defined off the end of runways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Minimum altitudes over congested vs non-congested

A

Congested - 1000’ above highest obstacles within 2000’ of aircraft
Non- Congested - 500’ above the surface except over water or sparsely settled areas and no less than 500’ from any person, vehicle, vessel, or structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

IFR min altitudes in Mountainous vs Non-Mountainous areas

A

Mount - 2000’ above highest obstacle within 4nm of course to be flown
Non-Mount - 1000’ above highest obstacle within 4nm of course to be flown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is MOCA

A

Minimum obstruction Clearance Altitude - lowest altitude that meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route and assures acceptable navigation signal coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is MSA

A

Minimum Safe Altitude - provides 1000’ of obstacle clearance within a specified distance of the navigation facility on which it is based. Includes minimum sector altitude and emergency safe altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Dimensions and Altitudes of Victor and Jet airways

A

Victor - 1200’ AGL up to not including 18,000’ MSL
Jet - 18,000’ MSL up to and including FL450

4nm of centerline for both V / J routes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Transponder Codes
VFR
VR Route
SR Route
Hi-jack
Nordo
Emergency

A

VFR - 1200
VR Route - 4000
SR Route - 1200
Hi-Jack - 7500
Nordo - 7600
Emergency - 7700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When are you required to report a change in TAS to ATC

A

5% or knots, which is greater from filed TAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Formation Standard by ATC

A

Less than 1 mile either laterally
Less than 100 ft vertically from lead by each wingman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Takeoff and Landing Fuel Management

A
  • Tanks No. 1 / 4 contain 500 to 1000 # more fuel per tank than No. 2 / 3
  • Main tanks are full except for fuel used for taxi, takeoff, and climb, but not less than 7060# in No. 1 / 4 and 6410# in No. 2 / 3 when externals contain usable fuel
  • Fuel unbalance is within limits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Enroute Fuel Management

A
  • External and/or Aux Tanks contain usable fuel, tanks No. 1 / 4 are maintained at a max fuel level of 8310# and contain 500 to 1000# more than No. 2 / 3.
  • External and/or Aux tanks do not contain usable fuel, No. 1 / 4 are maintained at 8310# till No. 2 / 3 are reduced to 1520#. No. 1 / 4 will supply all motors till reaching 1520# and then direct feed.
  • Fuel unbalance is within limits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Max taxi speeds and turn angles

A
  • 20 knots to 20 degrees
  • 5 knots to 21-60 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Max normal takeoff and Max alternate takeoff weight

A
  • 164,000
  • 175,000
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Taxi speeds and turn limits above 164,000

A
  • 10 knots
  • shortest distance possible
  • light braking
  • nose gear steering - 20 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Max Crosswind for takeoff and landing

A

35 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which engine is considered the critical engine during a 3 engine go around

A

No. 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Limitation regarding fuel in the fuselage tank with fuel in the externals?

A
  • Externals should be empty when there is less than 20,000# of fuel in the fuselage tank, or the aircraft is restricted to level flight until external tanks are empty
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Differences between “WARNING” and “CAUTION”

A
  • Warning - operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed.
  • Caution - operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Difference between “Land as soon as possible” vs. “Land as soon a practicable”

A
  • Possible - land at first airfield at which safe landing can be made
  • Practicable - means extended flight is not recommended. Landing site and duration of flight is at the discretion of PIC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What do you cover in a Takeoff Brief?

A
  • Normal vs Static Takeoff
  • Aircraft Weight
  • Critical Field Length
  • Refusal Speed
  • Takeoff speed
  • Pilots intentions should an emergency arise prior to or after refusal
  • RCR
  • Departure procedures
  • Fuel dumping considerations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What would your calls be in the right seat if you had an actual refusal speed during a takeoff?

A

Call V1 at refusal speed and rotate at Vrotate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When do the outboard propellers have permission to autofeather?

A

Always

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When do the inboard propellers have permission to autofeather?

A
  • <15,500’ - after 2 seconds and other engines operating normally
  • > 15,500’ or other engines not operating normally the propeller will windmill at 100%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How does the aircraft decide which FADEC is the master?

A
  • Everytime an engine start is initiated with weight on wheels, the FADEC selection automatically alternates
  • FADEC fault serious enough to render the control FADEC incapable of safe operations it will alternate
  • ALT selection on the FADEC control panel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When does the FADEC not require power from the aircraft electrical system?

A

at 40% NG it switches to PMA power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When an autofeather criteria is met, what does the FADEC do?

A
  • Attempt to maintain engine speed at idle NG
  • If flameout, initiates ignition and monitors for relight
  • If no relight occurs by time NG gets below 56%, FADEC shuts off fuel to shutdown engine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Mission computer auto shutdown is disarmed/disabled when?

A

ATCS switch is selected OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Does a FADEC need to be in control in order to be the master for the Prop Synchrophasing?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How does the airplane protect against an under speeding propeller?

A

FADEC decreases blade angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

ATCS schedules power from 50-100% over what range?

A

40 KCAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

During Ground Operations, where does the air come from for Oil Cooler Augmentation?

A

14th Stage Bleed Air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In the Ground (BETA) and reverse range, what is the power lever angle (PLA) a function of?

A
  • Ground Range - FADEC schedules blade angle as a function of PLA, NP maintained at 99%
  • Reverse Range - FADEC schedules torque as a function of PLA, NP maintained at 101%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

In the flight range, how is Horsepower (Hp) and RPM governed?

A
  • Horsepower by PLA
  • RPM to 100% by adjusting Blade Angle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Placing engine start switch to stop in flight for the No. 2 /3 causes props to do what?

A

Windmill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Placing engine start switch to stop in flight for the No. 1 / 4 causes props to do what?

A

Go to minimum drag angle (feather)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How can a pilot override the automatic stop feature during start?

A

Holding the start switch to start position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What will auto shutdown the start sequence?

A
  • Engine No light off
  • Engine Stagnated Start
  • Engine Flameout
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

If engine fails and auto-ignition fails, what happens?

A

Engine is shutdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Following a propeller failure, what will the engine do?

A

Engine will latch at idle fuel with NG approximately 70-75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the minimum bleed air required to start engines? is a momentary drop below acceptable?

A

22 PSI and yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Five indications you would stop a start with the fire handle?

A
  • Engine Fire
  • MGT High
  • Start Valve Open
  • Visible Fire
  • Visible fluid leak
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Describe the Start Process.

A
  • 14% NG, FADEC arms the fuel and ignition circuits
  • 4 seconds later, ignition energized and fuel flow
  • Fuel flow indication may not be indicated until approx. 40% NG
  • Starter cutout and igniters stop at 65% NG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

If fuel has been sprayed into the engine without ignition, what action should be taken?

A

Motor the engine for at least 30 Seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

When attempting a subsequent start, NG must be 0 for how long to reset what?

A

30 Seconds / NG independent overspeed circuit check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Pushing the throttles past what will automatically switch engines to high speed?

A

30 degrees PLA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What will the propeller NP be in HOTEL Mode?

A

20-30 % NP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Recommendations for taxiing in hotel mode?

A

Taxiing with more than two symmetrical engines in the HOTEL mode is not recommended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is recommended procedure for stopping the engines in HOTEL mode and why?

A

Move the propeller switch to normal to allow NP to return to low speed ground idle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Action for hot oil while in HOTEL mode?

A

Place prop switch to normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Can engines be shutdown in HOTEL mode?

A

Yes, but is not recommended routinely because of minor oil seal leakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

If takeoff power is less than or equal to max continuous power, will a timer start?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

For most inflight engine shutdowns including takeoff and landing speeds above taxi speeds use the fire handle and place the start switch to stop except for?

A

Utility or Booster System Pressure High

73
Q

What happens if the high pressure prop oil loses all pressure?

A

Counterweights drive blade angle to approx 66 degrees and NP will stabilize at less than 40%

74
Q

Do the FADECs control the AUX feather pump?

A

No, they are controlled independently and powered through the PROP AUX PUMP MCBs

75
Q

Holding the Propeller switch to unfeather does what?

A

Used on the ground, activates the auxiliary feather pump and commands the propeller to unfeather and will drive to full reverse unless the switch is released.

76
Q

Where does the Fuel to the APU come from?

A

No. 2 Tank

77
Q

What is the APU starter duty cycle - 6.5 NATOPS

A

90 Seconds on, 5 mins off for 3 cycles, wait minimum 60 minutes before trying again

78
Q

Why are there 3 FLCVs in the outboard tank?

A

2 for wing flex and allow greater fuel load in flight and 3rd one is installed but not operational

79
Q

How does the plane pick the working transfer pump in the external tank?

A

Everytime the tank transfer pump is turned on the pump alternates

80
Q

Can both external tank pumps work at the same time?

A

Yes, only in fuel dumping

81
Q

Where does the fuel go when the SPR drain is activated? How long does it take?

A
  • No. 3 tank
  • 2.5 minutes
82
Q

Does the fuel quantity indicator include the fuel in a failed indicating tank?

A

No

83
Q

What will be displayed for a failed fuel tank indicator and a degraded fuel tank indicator?

A
  • Dashed for failed
  • Random fuel quantity if degraded
84
Q

If the transfer pump in the fuselage tank is failed, can the fuel be transferred?

A

Yes, by aircraft pressurization

85
Q

What are the fuel balance limits?

A
  • 1000# between symmetrical tanks
  • 1500# between wings
  • One aux full and other empty, provided all other tanks are symmetrically fuel or unbalanced toward the opposite side within the above limits
86
Q

During alternate APU start does the fire detection system work and does the fire handle operate normally?

A

No fire detection system will not work but the fire handle will operate normally to secure the APU and discharge extinguishing agent if needed

87
Q

Max MGT for a re-start attempt?

A

175 C

88
Q

Max time for NG indication?

A

10 seconds

89
Q

Max time for engine and prop oil pressure indication?

A

15 seconds after NG and NP respectively

90
Q

What is powered by the Aux Hyd System?

A
  • Ramp and Door
  • Emergency Brakes
  • Emergency Nose gear extensions
  • Emergency AR hose deployment and retraction
  • Ground Test of Utility System
91
Q

With less than 2000# of fuel in the No. 2 tank, what needs to be turned on to get fuel to APU?

A

No. 2 Boost pump

92
Q

During Cold weather operations, how long must you allow the APU to stabilize before applying a bleed air load?

A

4 minutes

93
Q

How can you tell if external power is on and connected?

A

Small white round eyeball light encircled by a green ring. Light will illuminate when 3-phase external AC power with correct phase sequence and no open phases is connected to the aircraft

94
Q

What function is available in the CNI-MU ECB page that is not on the CNBP ECB page?

A

Strap and unstrap functions on the CNI-MU

95
Q

Which exterior lights have covert function?

A

All except leading edge and bottom anti-collision

96
Q

What happens when covert is selected for exterior lights?

A

Non-covert exterior lighting is disabled and the COVERT/FORMATION dimmer knob controls brightness of exterior COVERT lighting

97
Q

How can you adjust the individual COVERT lights?

A

Lighting trim page on AMU

98
Q

Do not turn on landing lights unless?

A

There is sufficient cooling from taxi or engine operation

99
Q

How long does the emergency lighting work in the flight station and what does it illuminate?

A

Minimum of 30 Minutes, standby instruments and reading lights

100
Q

What is another source of aux hydraulic pressure other than the electrical pump?

A

Hand Pump

101
Q

When the aux pump is de-energized, where can pressure be read from?

A

The direct pressure gauge in the cargo compartment

102
Q

What is the purpose of the aileron diverter valve and how does it generally work?

A

Improved handling qualities at speeds below 270kts with the autopilot not engaged. It bypasses the pressure reducing valve to supply normal hydraulic pressure to the aileron boost package

103
Q

How is elevator trim controlled in normal and emergency?

A

Normal - Yoke
Emergency - Center Console

104
Q

When does the spring-loaded flap brake engage

A

When the flap gets to the selected position and hydraulic flow is shut off

105
Q

What will happen when the flap lever is set at more 80% with refueling pods and gear not down and locked?

A

Landing gear warning audio will sound and cannot be silenced unless gear is down and locked or flaps set to less than 80%

106
Q

What happens to the chaff buckets on the external tanks when the flaps are extended past 15%

A

They are disabled

107
Q

For landing, what must the flaps be past in order to not get the flaps call?

A

40% but can be silenced via AMU GCAS flap inhibit line select

108
Q

For takeoff, what must the flaps and trim be set at in order to not get the flaps or trim calls?

A
  • Flaps 50% +-8%
  • Trim - 0 +-5 degrees elevator trim
109
Q

Once the emergency flap brake is activated for asymmetrical flaps, can the flaps be moved?

A

Not until on the ground and brake is reset by maintenance

110
Q

Where should airspeed be kept during stall recovery?

A

A minimum of 5-10 knots above stall until recovery to level flight

111
Q

During stick-pusher test, within what time do both buttons need to be pressed?

A

5 seconds

112
Q

How many times can you try to test the stick pusher before it must cool and what is cooling time?

A
  • once and 5 mins for cooling
113
Q

Flap Retraction schedule based on Takeoff weight

A
  • < 100,000# - Raise flaps passing FUSS (135kts)
  • 100,000-140,000 - begin at 135 kts and end at FUSS (Vobs+25)
  • > 140,000 - raise flaps in 10% increments every 5 kts starting at Vobs+5 and ending at FUSS (Vobs+25)
114
Q

Max Continuous APU Temp?

A
  • Max Con EGT - 680
  • EGT exceeds 710 for 3 seconds yield ACAWS to alert crew to reduce APU loading
115
Q

Engine MGT limits

A
  • Start - < 807
  • Max Cont MGT - < 833
  • Takeoff Power MGT - <852
116
Q

Tire Speeds

A
  • Nose - 139
  • Mains - 174
117
Q

POD Pumps rated to

A

45 PSI +-10

118
Q

When do you require an Alternate (time period and weather)

A

Weather at destination is forecasted to be less than 3000/3 during the period 1 hour before and after ETA

119
Q

Weather mins at Alternate if one is required?

A
  • Dest is 0/0 to below published mins, 3000/3 is required at Alternate
  • Dest is published mins and below 3000/3, Non precision mins plus 300/1 and Precision mins plus 200/ 1/2
  • Dest is 3000/3, no alternate required
120
Q

CNAF fuel requirements with and without and alternate?

A
  • Alt not required - fuel to fly from takeoff to destination, plus a 10% reserve of planned fuel requirements
  • Alt is required - fuel to fly from takeoff to approach fix serving destination and thence to an alternate field, plus a 10% of planned fuel requirements
  • No case shall planned fuel reserve after final landing at destination or alternate, if one is required, be less than that needed for 20 mins of flight, computed by max E at 10k
  • min fuel reserve requirements for specific model aircraft
121
Q

SOP/NATOPS Overhead fuel?

A

6000# overhead

122
Q

When do you need an ETP?

A

On all overwater flights, ETP will be calculated at flight plan cruise altitude and 10K on four engines

123
Q

Difference between PSR and PNR

A
  • PSR - Point of Safe Return - point along the planned route at which the aircraft can return to the departure airfield and arrive with no more and no less than required fuel
  • PNR - Point of No Return - point along the planned route at which aircraft can return to the departure airfield and arrive with zero fuel
124
Q

CNAF rule regarding Oxygen?

A

Unpressurized vs Pressurized chart in 3710
- Unpressurized - below 10k - Not required
- below 13k and above 10k - required for all except other occupants - limit 3 hrs
- Pressurized - FL250 and below - readily
- FL250 - FL350 - Pilot - Immediately and all others is readily

125
Q

Void Time for Weather Brief?

A

3 hours past briefing or ETD + 0.5hrs

126
Q

Weather mins for Instrument Takeoff

A
  • Special Rating - No takeoff ceiling or visibility mins apply, takeoff shall depend on judgement of PIC and urgency of flights, note - only an Aircraft Commander with Special Instrument Rating can be at the controls to make departure if weather conditions are below mins
  • Standard instrument rating - published mins but no less than 300/1 for non precisions and 200/ 1/2 for precisions for the landing runway
127
Q

ORM process

A

(IAMIS)
- Identify Hazards
- Assess Hazards
- Make Risk decisions
- Implement Controls
- Supervise

128
Q

CRM Skills

A

(DAMCLAS)
- Decision Making
- Assertiveness
- Mission Analysis
- Communication
- Leadership
- Adaptability/ Flexibility
- Situational Awareness

129
Q

Alcohol Rules

A

Consumption of any type of alcohol is prohibited within 12 hours of any mission brief or flight planning and free of the effects

130
Q

Anti-Exposure Suits required?

A

Water temp below 50F or OAT below 32F

131
Q

When does crew day start and end for planning purposes?

A

2 hours prior to scheduled takeoff time and should terminate 1 hour after engine shutdown of the last flight

132
Q

Maximum Crew Duty Day

A

Normal Crew -
- Autopilot - should not exceed 18 hrs if started between 0500 to 1659 and 15 hrs if started between 1700 t o 0459
- No Autopilot - Should not exceed 12 hrs
Augmented Crew -
- Autopilot and berthing Facilities - should not exceed 24 hrs
- No Autopilot - should not exceed 18 hrs

133
Q

Crew Rest Rules

A

Non-duty time before flight duty, includes time for meals, transportation, rest, and must include the opportunity for 8hrs of uninterrupted sleep time for every 24 hour period. Does not begin until after termination of official duties and required prior to reporting for preflight duties. Can be reduced to less than 12 hours, but a shortened crew rest must always include an opportunity for 8 hrs of uninterrupted sleep.
OPSO - approve down to 10 hrs
CO - approve to less than 10 hrs

134
Q

Min Oxygen requirements
- Overwater
- Over land

A

Overwater - 18 L
Overland - 10 L

135
Q

Restriction in the event a TPC has not flown in last 15 days

A

Cannot sign for an aircraft to fly a night flight until a day sortie has been completed

136
Q

Takeoff and Landing Limits for BASH is MODERATE or HIGH

A

Mod - Limited to meet mission requirements - One Takeoff and Landing
High - Limited to meet operational necessity

137
Q

VMGR Mission

A

Support the Marine Air-Ground Task Force (MAGTF) commander by providing Air-to-Air refueling (AAR), Assault Support (AS), Close Air Support (CAS), and Multi-sensor Imagery Reconnaissance (MIR), day or night, under all weather conditions during expeditionary, joint, or combined operations.

138
Q

Six Functions of Marine Aviation

A
  • Offensive Air Support (OAS)
  • Anti-Aircraft Warfare (AAW)
  • Assault Support (AS)
  • Control of Missile and Aircraft (CMA)
  • Aerial Reconnaissance (AR)
  • Electronic Warfare (EW)
139
Q

What is MSA?

A

Minimum Safe Altitude - an altitude that provides adequate terrain clearance based on the location of the aircraft while allowing the aircraft to remain in the low altitude regime. MSA provides a safe altitude to fly if visual terrain clearance is not possible due to weather or light conditions. MSA is computed by adding 1,000ft to the elevation of the highest obstacle or terrain within 5NM of centerline of a particular route segment, rounded up to the next 100ft increment.

140
Q

What is ESA?

A

Emergency Safe Altitude - altitude that ensures terrain clearance. Computed by adding 1,000ft (2,000ft Mountainous Terrain [FAR part 95]), to the elevation of the highest obstacle or terrain feature within 25NM of centerline of the low-level route rounded up to next 100ft increment. Single ESA for the entire route.

141
Q

Minimum Runway requirements for takeoff and landing for ALZ training / Sustainment / Operational

A

** Compute Landing Distance or ground roll with 4 engines in reverse and full brakes**
Training - Less than fully qualified crew and proficient crew
- Landing - 3000ft or ground roll + 1000’
- Takeoff - 3000ft or ground run + 1000’, AMFLMETO + 500’, which ever is greater
Sustainment / Operational -
- Landing - Ground roll + 500’ computed with 4 engines reverse and full brakes, no winds, 150% tailwinds
- Takeoff - Ground run + 500’, AMFLMETO with no wind, 150% tailwind, whichever is greater
MFLMETO distance does not provide adequate safety margins for engine loss below VMCA. Takeoff with field lengths between AMFLMETO and MFLMETO require approval by appropriate authority

142
Q

IR Cooled approaches should be planned at speeds between ______ and _____ and aircrews should plan to not exceed _____.

A

210-250, Vh

143
Q

During Combat offload (COL) operations the load weight on the ramp must not exceed _____ pounds.

A

15,000 lbs

144
Q

If all checklist have not been completed by the ______ call a “No Drop” will be called. No Drop calls are acknowledge by _____.

A

10 sec call / all Crew positions

145
Q

When climbing or descending during preplanned weather penetration lead shall call passing each 500ft of altitude with _____.

A

Heading, Airspeed, Vertical Speed

146
Q

CRM Calls associated with respective GCAS/TAWS Alerts

A

ALTITUDE - Correcting
Terrain Ahead - Acknowledged
Obstacle Ahead - Acknowledged
Terrain - Clear and Correcting
Pull Up - Immediate power and climb to avoid terrain

147
Q

Parachutist may operate without supplemental oxygen during unpressurized flight up to ______ ft, provided time above _____ does not exceed _____ for each sortie.

A

13,000 / 30 mins

148
Q

Drop Zone surveys are valid for how many years after what date on the DZ survey?

A

5 yrs from date surveyed

149
Q

The RCVRs and Tankers will monitor primary and alternate AAR freqs and will have electronic RV equipment on a minimum of _____ min prior to ARCT

A

FWAAR - 15 mins
HAAR - 10 min

150
Q

RV Delta (Head on Offset) the tankers will arrive abeam the _____ , ______ mins prior to the ARCP.

A

ARIP / 3 mins

151
Q

The ARCT is the control time for the _____ helo at the _____.

A

Lead / ARCP

152
Q

HAAR - No Visual Contact procedure and when to use it?

A
  • Loss of Visual Contact, Electronic contact maintained - turn right 45 degrees of track heading, slow to refueling speed and configure as required
  • transmit “no visual contact”
  • after 30 seconds, turn left and resume track heading
  • Tanker will remain 1-2NM behind RCVRs until visual contact is re-established
153
Q

HAAR RCVR timing tolerance will be on-time to _____, Tanker will be on-time to _____.

A

1 min early / 1 min late

154
Q

Min visibility for NVG AAR RV?

A

Electronic - 3SM
Visual - 1SM (NVD Man says 3SM)

155
Q

Cruise Profiles

A

Long Range Cruise (LRC) - set fuel flow and cross check HP from operating chart for particular flight gross weight and altitude
Constant TAS - Maintain climb power on the aircraft until the desired TAS is obtained. Reduce HP for the remainder of flight to maintain TAS as the aircraft becomes lighter
High-Speed Cruise - Fly Max Continuous HP for all gross weights, altitudes, and OATs, observe Vh limits
Max Endurance - Speed with minimum fuel flow for maximum time in the air. When Max E is required, use power settings to maintain the airspeed form the performance charts for the gross weights and altitude

156
Q

Describe Factors affecting range

A

FAITHPAW -
- Fuel Temp - change in fuel density - lower temp = higher weight
- Altitude - Engine specific fuel consumption improves with increasing altitude, Max range is obtained by cruise-climb operation
- Icing - Losses up to 15% of range and 25-30% of power
- Temperature - Hot air makes particles further apart, +10C gives +2% in LRC and +5% in HSC
- Headwind - +70HW increases KIAS by 4knts for every 10kias above 70knts. 1K for every 5KIAS or below
- Partial Power - Altitudes below FL250 2/3 engine operation may extend range but should be charted
- Alternate Fuel - varying densities, JP8 is more dense than JP4
- Weight - weigh less = use less fuel

157
Q

Vmca1

A

A1 TR 0w5
- ATCS Operational
- No. 1 Engine Failed with prop auto-feathered
- Max Takeoff power commanded on all remaining engines
- Max Rudder deflection limited by 150# of rudder pedal force or max rudder control surface deflection
- Zero Rudder Trim
- Minimum flying weight
- Bank angle less than 5 away from failed engine
increases 23KIAS with wings level

158
Q

Rotation Speed Defined

A

Ensures liftoff speed is greater than Vmca and the obstacle clearance speed is at least 1.2 times the power off speed

159
Q

How is Threshold speed defined?

A

100% Flap - 1.32 Vs
50% Flap - 1.28 Vs
0% Flap - 1.28 Vs
Max Effort - 1.1 Vs + 5.5KIAS
Vs - Power Off Stall Speed

160
Q

Define Vmcg

A

Minimum airspeed during takeoff ground run at which, when the critical engine is suddenly made inop, it is possible to maintain control of the aircraft using rudder control alone and takeoff safely using normal piloting skill while maintaining takeoff power on the remaining engines

161
Q

Define CFL

A

Critical Field Length - Runway distance required to accelerate on all engines to critical engine failure speed, experience and engine failure, then continue takeoff or stop within the same distance

162
Q

Define Critical Engine Failure Speed

A

Critical Engine Failure Speed - (Base on CFL) - speed to which the aircraft can accelerate, lose an engine and then either continue the takeoff with the remaining engines or stop in the same total runway distance

163
Q

Define Refusal Speed

A

Based on runway available and is max speed to which the aircraft can accelerate with engines at takeoff power and then stop within the remainder of the runway available, with 2 symmetrical engines in reverse, 1 engine in ground idle, 1 propeller feathered, and Max anti-skid brakes. When refusal > T/O speed, T/O becomes refusal

164
Q

Define Acceleration time check

A

Time normally required to accelerate to a given speed (3 knt Tolerance). Use the highest of 60 to 120 knts in increments of 10 that will not exceed refusal speed minus 10 knts

165
Q

Brake Energy Limit Speed

A

Max speed at which anti-skid braking can be applied without exceeding the energy absorption limit of the brake system

166
Q

Define Minimum Power Restoration Speed

A

In the event of an outboard engine failure, the ATCS senses the loss of the engine and rapidly retards the torque on the opposing outboard engine. ATCS reduces the opposing engines torque by 50% the max takeoff torque. Schedules back the torque linearly over 40KCAS

167
Q

Define Takeoff Distance

A

Distance required to accelerate from brake release to takeoff speed, lift off, and climb to a 50’ obstacle

168
Q

Define Takeoff ground run

A

Distance required to accelerate from brake release to liftoff

169
Q

Air Traffic Control Ceiling

A

Altitude at which the max rate of climb at Max cont power and best climb speed is 500’/min

170
Q

Cruise Ceiling

A

Altitude at which the max rate of climb at Max cont power and best climb speed is 300’/min

171
Q

Service Ceiling

A

Altitude at which the max rate of climb at Max cont power and best climb speed is 100’/min

172
Q

Absolute Ceiling

A

Altitude at which the max rate of climb at Max cont power and best climb speed is 0’/min

173
Q

How to perform a drift down?

A

When terrain is factor maintain altitude until reaching driftdown speed and then descend at driftdown speed until reaching service ceiling

174
Q

Runway Condition Reading values

A

Good - 15 to 22
Med - 12
Poor - 5

175
Q

Propeller Crosswind Limitation for Takeoff

A

Crosswind between 15-35 kts and wind direction +/- 45 degrees relative to runway
- set HP to 2500 until 35 KIAS and then advance to takeoff power
- add 200’ for all T/O distances
- subtract 200’ form runway distance for refusal speed

176
Q

Are landings affected by propeller crosswind limitation?

A

No

177
Q

How to apply headwind for acceleration time check, takeoff / landing distances / obstacle clearances

A

Acceleration time check - 100%
Takeoff / Landing Distances - 50%
Obstacle Clearance - Do no use

178
Q

How to apply tailwind for acceleration time check, takeoff / landing distances / obstacle clearances

A

Acceleration time check - 10%
Takeoff / Landing Distances - 150%
Obstacle Clearance - 150%

179
Q

How do gust affect takeoff and Landing Speeds?

A

Always increase rotation, takeoff, approach, thresholds, and touchdown speed by full gust increment not to exceed 10 knts

T2P Tactics Exam (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions