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Embryo E2 > T2 review > Flashcards

T2 review Flashcards

1
Q

Where does the mesoderm originate and how does it move?

A

from the epiblast, moves through the primitive streak as bottle cells

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2
Q

What is the pathways of mesoderm development?

A

originates from epiblast, passes through primitive streak as bottle cells, spreads laterally and establishes a continuous layer between ectoderm and endoderm.

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3
Q

What are the divisions of the mesoderm?

A

paraxial (segmented somite), intermediate (urogenital), lateral plate (lines limbs and most internal organs).

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4
Q

What forms first, somites or somitomeres?

A

Somitomeres

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5
Q

When do somites form?

A

after 20 pairs of somitomeres are formed, somites then form caudal to the 7th pair of somitomeres at the expense of the eighth pair of somitomeres.

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6
Q

How many pairs of somitomeres are kept constant at the caudal end of the paraxial mesoderm?

A

11 pairs

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7
Q

What is the wavefront mechanism?

A

opposing gradients of FGF-8 and retinoic acid, controlled by MESP-2, the causes the differentiation of somites, called somitogenesis.

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8
Q

What is the segmentation clock?

A

leads to the pattern for the somite formation.

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9
Q

What are the TF in segmentation clock?

A

Lunatic fringe and C-hairy, which are TF on Hox genes, and the receptors are EphA and EphB

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10
Q

What are the proteins that result in the fissure between the two adjacent somites.

A

Cells at anterior expressed EPHA, the receptor.

Cells at the posterior express EPHB, the ligand.

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11
Q

What divides the borders between adjacent somites?

A

Lunatic fringe (anterior - Eph A) and C hairy (posterior - Eph B)

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12
Q

What is the TF involved in differentiation of the ventral part of the somite?

A

shh

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13
Q

What is the TF involved in differentiation of the dorsal part of the somite?

A

wnt

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14
Q

What separates dermomyotomes into dorsal and ventral myotomes?

A

Pax 3, Pax 7, and paraxis

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15
Q

Dermomyotomes differentiate into what two things?

A

dermis and skeletal muscle

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16
Q

What inhibits BMP-4

A

noggin

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17
Q

Hox genes are involved in what?

A

cranial/caudal differentiation

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18
Q

What does intermediate mesoderm respond to?

A

BMP and activin

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19
Q

What does intermediate mesoderm express

A

Pax2

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20
Q

What type of mesoderm is associated with pronephros and mesonephros?

A

intermediate mesoderm

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21
Q

Cells migrating through the anterior primitive streak form what?

A

form outflow tract (vena cava and aorta)

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22
Q

Cells migrating through the middle primitive streak form what?

A

form ventricles

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23
Q

Cells migrating through the posterior primitive streak form what?

A

form atria

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24
Q

What cells form the cardiac crescent?

A

cells migrating through the anterior, middle, and posterior primitive streak.

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25
Q

What signaling molecules cause the formation of the cardiac crest?

A

BMPs and FGFs

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26
Q

From what does the cardiogenic plate arise?

A

Splanchnic mesoderm

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27
Q

proepicardium primordium is the source of what non cardiac cells?

A

pericardium and myocardial fibroblasts

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28
Q

Why is the oropharyngeal opening formed?

A

Because there is contact between the ectoderm and endoderm with no mesoderm in between them.
The lack of mesoderm forms the oropharyngeal opening.

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29
Q

Initial signaling for endoderm formation occurs during gastrulation and depends on what?

A

nodal, signaling molecule.

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30
Q

What are the three circulatory arcs of the 4 week embryo?

A

Vitelline, allantoic, and embryonic

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31
Q

All extraembryonic tissues have what germ layer?

A

mesoderm

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32
Q

Amnion and chorion consists of what germ layers?

A

Mesoderm and ectoderm

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33
Q

Yolk sac and allantois consists of what germ layers?

A

Endoderm and mesoderm

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34
Q

What are the characteristics of the previllous embryo?

A

no villi

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35
Q

What are the characteristics of the primary villous embryo?

A

ectodermal

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36
Q

What are the characteristics of the secondary villous embryo?

A

mesodermal

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37
Q

What are the characteristics of the tertiary embryo?

A

appearance blood vessels

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38
Q

What are villi that are anchored to the cytotrophoblastic shell?

A

anchoring villi

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39
Q

Villi increase what?

A

surface area

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40
Q

The lumen of the uterus is called what?

A

decidua parietalis, comes from lateral plate mesoderm.

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41
Q

What are the functions of the placenta?

A

diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide, diffusion of foodstuffs, excretion of waste products.

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42
Q

What are the characteristics of the early placenta?

A

Thick, permeability low, small surface area, and diffusion conductance is minuscule.

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43
Q

What are the characteristics of the late placenta?

A

Thin, permeability high, large surface area, and large increase in placental diffusion.

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44
Q

What is the PO2 of the mother and fetus near the end of pregnancy?

A

50 and 30, respectively

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45
Q

What is the reason why adequate oxygenation can occur with such low pressure gradient?

A

Bohr effect

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46
Q

When is HCG measurable?

A

8-9 days after ovulation

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47
Q

What is HCG secreted by?

A

syncytial trophoblast cells (into maternal fluids)

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48
Q

When is the maximal secretion of HCG?

A

10-12th week of pregnancy

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49
Q

What is the function of HCG?

A

Causes corpus luteum to increase section of progesterone and estrogens.

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50
Q

What is the main source of progesterone?

A

The placenta

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51
Q

What are the functions of progesterone?

A

Causes decidual cells to develop in the endometrium
Decreases contractility of pregnant uterus
Increases secretions of fallopian tubes and uterus
May work with estrogen to prepare breasts for lactation

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52
Q

When does HCS begin to be secreted?

A

beginning of week 5

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53
Q

What are the functions of HCS?

A

to get glucose to fetus.
Causes decreased insulin sensitivity and decrease utilization of glucose by mother.
General metabolic hormone

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54
Q

The placenta is highly permeable to alcohol and excessive ingestion can produce what defect in the fetus?

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

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55
Q

What happens in erythroblastosis fetalis?

A

hemolysis of fetal RBC

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56
Q

What is hydrops fetalis?

A

edema in fetus. water accumulation in fetus

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57
Q

Placenta previa?

A

abnormal implantation of the embryo, causing a mechanical block of the birth canal. This is a “disruption”

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58
Q

Hydatidiform mole?

A

Swellings of the chorionic villi, caused by maternal imprinting.

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59
Q

Malformations?

A

primary errors of morphogenesis. they are usually multifactorial, involving etiological agents including genetic and env factors.

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60
Q

Disruptions?

A

disturbances in otherwise normal morphogenetic processes. Ex amniotic bands

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61
Q

Deformations?

A

disturbances in otherwise normal morphogenetic processes. Typically cases by abnormal biochemical forces such as uterine constraints. Ex clubfoot

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62
Q

Sequences?

A

a series (cascade) of events triggered by one initiation factor. Ex is oligohydramios (decreased amniotic fluid) which leads to a variety of events, including fetal compression and other problems stemming from the fetal compression.

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63
Q

Syndromes?

A

constellations of congenital anomalies that are thought to be pathologically related but cannot be explained on the basis of a single local initial event, but are often caused by a single event.

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64
Q

Turner’s syndrome

A

One X.
Female with underdeveloped sex characteristics, low hairline, broad chest, folds on neck, usually sterile, usually of normal intelligence.

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65
Q

Poly X syndrome

A 
Several X (XXX)
Usually tall and thin, often fertile, most have normal intelligence.
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66
Q

Thalidomide

A

No or malformed limbs

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67
Q

Alcohol

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

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68
Q

Retinoic acid

A

incorrect hox gene differentiation

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69
Q

Folic acid

A

anencephaly and spina bifida

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70
Q

What are maternal factors resulting in fetal growth restrictions?

A

Preeclampsia, chronic hypertension, maternal use of drugs/alcohol/nicotine, and maternal malnutrition.

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71
Q

What is fetal hydrops?

A

accumulation of edema fluid int he fetus during intrauterine growth

72
Q

What is the most common cause of hemolytic anemia until recently, between mother and fetus?

A

blood group and incompatibility

73
Q

What is immune hydrops

A

hemolytic anemia caused by blood group incompatibility.

74
Q

What is the cause of non-immune hydrops

A

chromosomal abnormality

75
Q

What is kernicturus?

A

High levels of bilirubin in the blood, so much so that it moves out of the blood into the brain, causing brain damage.

76
Q

In order for the intermediate layer of the epidermis to form, the inactivation of what needs to occur?

A

p63 via MIR-203

77
Q

What are the two sublayers of intermediate layer of the epidermis and what is significant about them?

A

stratum spinosum, the appearance of keratohyalin granules

stratum granulosum, interconnected by fillagrin.

78
Q

What causes the three layers of epidermis to form?

A

Activation of p63

79
Q

When is the periderm formed?

A

formed by the end of the first month

80
Q

When is the three-layered epidermis formed?

A

formed by the end of the third month

81
Q

Apoptosis happens during what time?

A

sixth month

82
Q

Where are melanoblasts and merkel cells derived from?

A

neural crest

83
Q

Where are Langerhan’s cells derived from?

A

bone marrow

84
Q

What is significant about immigrant cells?

A

they are not developed in the epidermis but migrate there.

85
Q

What is instructive induction?

A

one germ layer instructing another germ layer how to differentiate.

86
Q

What are the epidermal derivatives?

A

hair nails mammary glands

87
Q

hair nails mammary glands are developed by interactions of what germ layers?

A

ectodermal-mesodermal

88
Q

What contributes to the hair follicle, hair shaft, sebaceous glands, nails, eponychium, hypochium, and secretory components of mammary?

A

ectoderm

89
Q

What contributes to the hair papilla, outer hair follicle and arrector muscle?

A

mesenchyme/mesoderm

90
Q

What is the function of estrogen in regards to mammary glands/ducts?

A

stimulation of duct growth

91
Q

What is the function of progesterone in regards to mammary glands/ducts?

A

stimulation of formation of secretory alveoli

92
Q

What is the function of prolactin in regards to mammary glands/ducts?

A

Milk protein and fat synthesis

93
Q

What is the function of oxytocin in regards to mammary glands/ducts?

A

Milk letdown

94
Q

Common pathway of bone/cartilage differentiation uses what?

A

TGF-B

95
Q

Membranous pathway of bone/cartilage differentiation uses what?

A

Runx-2 and Osx

96
Q

Permanent cartilage pathway of bone/cartilage differentiation uses what?

A

Sox-9

97
Q

Endochondral bone pathway of bone/cartilage differentiation uses what?

A

Runx-2, ihh, BMP-6

98
Q

From what is the centrum derived?

A

ventral and medial sclerotomes

99
Q

From what are the neural arches derived?

A

dorsal regions of sclerotomes

100
Q

From what are the costal processes/ribs derived?

A 
proximal = myf5 and myf6
distal = BMP
101
Q

From what Hox gene is occipital-cervical boundary derived?

A

Hox 3

102
Q

From what Hox gene is cervical-thoracic boundary derived?

A

Hox 6

103
Q

From what Hox gene is attached-floating ribs boundary derived?

A

Hox 9

104
Q

Single Hox gene knockouts?

A

when a single Hox genes are knocked out, only minor morphological effects are noted. When all the members of a paralogous group are inactivated, however, profound effects appear.

105
Q

Knockout of all hox 10 paralogues?

A

when all the Hox10 paralogues are knocked out, ribs form on all the lumbar and sacral vertebrae. This finding suggests that hox10 represses the influence of the more anterior Hox genes. without hox 10 lumbar vertebrae are not formed.

106
Q

Knockout of all hox 11 paralogues?

A

suppresses the influence of hox10 and allows the sacrum to form. One of the striking features of axial development is the redundancy of the genes that pattern the vertebrae. Without hox 11 sacral vertebrae are not formed.

107
Q

Mutation of single Hox gene?

A

a mutant of a specific hox gene is likely to produce only a minor anatomical defect, whereas the non-function of an entire paralogous group produces major effects.

108
Q

What Hox gene do you need to form a normal Atlas/Axis joint?

A

HoxA7

109
Q

What happens when HoxA7 is knocked out?

A

A proatlas is formed and stays around and no Dens is formed.

110
Q

What is one of the first bones to become ossified, arises from neural crest, and follows intramembranous pathway?

A

Clavicle

111
Q

The cartilaginous portion of the viscerocranium forms what?

A

pharyngeal arch I and II

112
Q

What are the two subdivisions of the viscerocranium?

A

Cartilaginous portion and membranous portion (which forms the bones of the face)

113
Q

Ossification centers form within the cartilage allow continued growth and are separated from each other by synchondroses. Elongation of primary ossification centers is due to what?

A

shh

114
Q

What is expressed in all sutures?

A

Noggin

115
Q

What TF closes sutures?

A

BMP

116
Q

What TF inhibits BMP so sutures dont close prematurely?

A

noggin

117
Q

What is the name for the intersection of more than two bones?

A

fontanelles

118
Q

Where do all skeletal muscles originate?

A

somites or somitomeres

119
Q

Are myogenic cells mitotic or postmitotic?

A

mitotic

120
Q

Are myoblast cells mitotic or postmitotic?

A

postmitotic

121
Q

At what point are nuclei moved to the periphery?

A

myotubes

122
Q

In what stage of skel musc development do myoblasts line up and adhere to one another?

A

myotubes

123
Q

What forms muscle fibers?

A

myotubes

124
Q

What cells are mitotic and myogenic, and can add to existing myofibers but they cannot make new ones?

A

satellite cells

125
Q

What cell replace damaged muscle by proliferating, fusing, and differentiating into skeletal muscle fibers?

A

satellite cells

126
Q

Satellite cells become mitotic in times of stress because of what?

A

C-Met receptor is the binding site for hepatic growth factor. HGF binds C-Met.

127
Q

What transcription factors allow myogenic cells to remain mitotic?

A

FGF and TGF-B

128
Q

What transcription factors stops mitotic activity in myogenic cells?

A

p21

129
Q

What family of TF is able to convert non-muscle cells to cells capable of expressing muscle proteins?

A

MyoD family

130
Q

What genes separately can activate MyoD and cause myogenic cells to become myoblasts in somites?

A

Pax3 and Myf5

131
Q

MyoD causes the formation of what genes?

A

myoblast genes

132
Q

Tendons of hypaxial muscles and limb muscles arise from where?

A

Lateral plate mesoderm

133
Q

Where do hypaxial muscles arise from?

A

ventral buds of myotome

134
Q

Where do epaxial muscles arise from?

A

dorsal lip of myotome

135
Q

Where do epaxial tendons arise from

A

syndetome layer within somites.

136
Q

Muscles of the head and neck are derived from where?

A

paraxial somitomeres

137
Q

Musculature from the lower jaw is derived from where?

A

splanchnic mesoderm

138
Q

T/F: There are no somite around the head/neck region.

A

True

139
Q

Cardiac muscle is derived from where?

A

splanchnic mesoderm

140
Q

How are early cardiac muscle cells able to maintain their ability to divide?

A

by partially disassembling their contractile apparatus prior to cell division.

141
Q

What are the parts oft he tripartite brain? At what time?

A

Prosencephalon, Mesencephalon, and Rhombencephalon. Four weeks

142
Q

What are the parts of the pentapartite brain? At what time?

A

Telencephalon and Diencephalon (from Prosencephalon), Mesencephalon (from Mesencephalon), Metencephalon and Myelencephalon (from the Rhombencephalon).

143
Q

In what stage does the limiting membrane occur?

A

early neural tube wall

144
Q

What type of epithelium is found in the late neural tube wall?

A

stratified epithelium.

145
Q

If the metaphase plate is parallel, what occurs?

A

the daughter cell closest to the lumen remain proliferative and the daughter cell further from the lumen becomes a neural blast (which gives rise to neurons).

146
Q

If the metaphase plate is perpendicular, what occurs?

A

both daughter cells become proliferative

147
Q

Ventral signaling

A

shh

148
Q

Dorsal signaling

A

BMP, Pax 3, 7, and snail-2

149
Q

Where is the isthmic organizer located and whats its function?

A

it is a signaling center between the mesencephalon and the metencephalon

150
Q

What is the principle signaling molecule of Isthmic organizer and what genes does it act on?

A

FGF8/Wnt1 which induce the expression of EN1, EN2, Pax2, and Pax5

151
Q

T/F: shh restricts Pax.

A

True

152
Q

What prosomeres define the diencephalon?

A

P1-P3

153
Q

What prosomeres define the dorsal and ventral thalamus?

A

P2-P3

154
Q

What field is a large area of the forebrain and represents the prechordal region of the neural tube?

A

secondary rhombencephalon.

155
Q

What is the growth pattern of motor axon outgrowth?

A

growth begins in the spinal cord and grow towards the periphery.

156
Q

Where are the cell bodies of sensory neurons derived?

A

neural crest cells

157
Q

How do sensory neuron axons grow?

A

toward the spinal cord and towards the periphery

158
Q

What determines whether migrating neural crest cells differentiation into autonomic neurons or other neural crest derivatives?

A

BMPs

159
Q

Are Sympathetic or Parasympathetic cells typically adrenergic?

A

Sympathetic

160
Q

Are Sympathetic or Parasympathetic cells typically cholinergic?

A

Parasympathetic

161
Q

Where do the symapthetic preganglionic motor neurons arise from?

A

intermediate (lateral) horns of gray matter

162
Q

T/F: Sympathetic postganglionic motor neurons are myelinated.

A

False

163
Q

Where are radial glial cells located?

A

in the ventricular zone

164
Q

Radial glial cells are a subdivision of what type of cell?

A

astrocytes

165
Q

What is the major topographical change in the myelencephalon?

A

pronounce expansion of the roof plate to form the thin roof over the fourth ventricle.

166
Q

What is a segmentation gene that is involved in the formation of rhombomeres 3 and 5

A

Krox 20

167
Q

Expression of which set of genes seems to be responsible for the differentiation of specific nuclei in the myelencephalon?

A

Hox genes

168
Q

What are the derivatives of the metencephalon?

A

pons (basal plate) and cerebellum (alar plate)

169
Q

T/F: granule cells and purkinje cells have opposing migratory routes.

A

True

170
Q

What type of cells migrate anteriorly along dorsal region of Rhomomere 1 and interiorly through purkinje layer?

A

granule cells

171
Q

What type of cells migrate radially through granule cells?

A

purkinje cells

172
Q

What are the three patterning centers in the forebrain?

A

Rostral patterning center (FGF8)
Dorsal Patterning center (BMPs Wnts)
Ventral patterning center (Shh)

173
Q

What are the major derivatives of the alar pates of the mesencephalon?

A

tectum (superior and inferior colliculi)

174
Q

Where is Otx-2 located and how is it related to shh?

A

it confines shh to the basal part of the midbrain

175
Q

Where do the cerebral peduncle form and what is their function?

A

ventrolateral region of the mesencephalon

they carry fibers between the cerebral hemispheres and the spinal cord.

176
Q

Derivatives of diencephalon?

A

thalamus-es

Embryo E2 (1 decks)

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