T&O Flashcards

1
Q

How is the medial collateral ligament most often damaged?

A

When force is applied to the lateral knee e.g. during a football tackle

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2
Q

What is damaged in “the unhappy triad”?

A

Anterior crucial ligament
Medial collateral ligament
Medial meniscus

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3
Q

Which nerves can be damaged in a proximal humerus #, mid shaft humerus # and supracondylar humerus #?

A

Proximal humerus: axillary nerve
Mid shaft: radial nerve (sits in radial groove)
Supracondylar: ulnar nerve

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4
Q

What is a Colle’s #?

A

Distal radius #
Dorsal displacement and dorsal angulation
Most commonly caused by FOOSH

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5
Q

How would you test a patients median nerve function?

A

Lay their hand flat on the table and ask them to ABduct their thumb
Test sensation by touching radial aspect of index finger

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6
Q

How would you test a patients radial nerve function?

A

Test their wrist and finger extension against resistance

Test sensation by touching dorsal aspect of thumb web space

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7
Q

How would you test a patients lunar nerve function?

A

Ask to ABduct fingers

Test sensation by touching ulnar aspect of little finger

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8
Q

What tests can be carried out on a px with ?carpal tunnel?

A

Tinel’s test
Phalen’s manoeuvre
Nerve conduction studies

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9
Q

What are some red flags for back pain?

A
Age <20 or >50
Hx of malignancy
Night pain 
Hx of trauma
Systemically unwell eg weight loss, fever
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10
Q

Leg pain worse on walking which resolves when sitting, crouching and leaning forwards is typical of what?

A

Spinal stenosis

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11
Q

What is the common causative organism in osteomyelitis?

A
Staph aureus
(Except in sickle cell where Salmonella predominates)
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12
Q

What predisposing factors can increase the likelihood of osteomyelitis?

A
Diabetes
Sickle cell
IVDU
Immunosuppression
Excess alcohol
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13
Q

What is the imaging of choice in suspected osteomyelitis?

A

MRI

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14
Q

What Abx oiled you use for osteomyelitis?

A

Flucloxacillin for 6 weeks

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15
Q

How long prior to surgery should HRT or oestrogen containing oral contraception be stopped?

A

4 weeks prior to surgery

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16
Q

How long before surgery should warfarin be stopped?

A

5 days

Cover with LMWH

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17
Q

What is the most common cause of heel pain in adults?

A

Plantar fasciitis

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18
Q

Why is lidocaine available pre-mixed with adrenaline?

A

It increases the duration of action of adrenaline and reduces blood loss by vasoconstriction
Never use near extremities due to risk of ischaemia

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19
Q

Why must lidocaine mixed with adrenaline not be used near extremities?

A

As it is a vasoconstrictor so there is a risk of ischaemia

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20
Q

Which blood group is the universal donor?

A

O negative

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21
Q

What radiographically signs indicate osteoarthritis?

A
LOSS
= 
Loss of joint space
Osteophytes 
Sunarticular sclerosis
Subchondral cysts
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22
Q

How does osteoarthritis typically present?

A
Joint stiffness after rest up to 30mins
Joint instability 
Pain on movement
Worse at end of day
Heberdens node
Bouchard nodes
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23
Q

How should osteoarthritis be managed?

A

Conservative: exercise, weight loss if overweight
Medical: paracetamol + topical NSAIDs (if ineffective, codeine + NSAID + PPI), intra-articularsteroid injection
Surgery: joint replacement

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24
Q

What are some risk factors for osteoporosis?

A
Family Hx
RA
Alcohol
Smoking
Post menopause 
Low BMI
Steroids
Hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, hypercalciuria
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25
Q

What will bloods for osteoporosis show?

A

Ca, Alkaline phos, Phosphate all in normal range

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26
Q

What test is used to assess bone density?

A

DEXA scan

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27
Q

What T scores indicate osteopenia and osteoporosis?

A

T -1 to -2.5 is osteopenia (just give lifestyle advice)

T -2.5 or worse indicates osteoporosis (lifestyle advice + tx)

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28
Q

What is the FRAX tool?

A

Risk assessment tool to estimate 10 year risk of osteoporotic # in untreated patients

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29
Q

What test can diagnose osteoporosis?

A

DEXA scan
Generates a T score (strandard deviations of mean young adult of same sex)
And Z score (SDs of same age adult of same sex, if this is abnormal it may be a secondary cause and not just age)

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30
Q

How should osteoporosis be managed?

A

Conservative: quit smoking, reduce alcohol, OT exercises, calcium rich diet

Medical:
- bisphosphonates: prevent resorption of bone so reduce bone turnover
E.g. alendronic acid is taken P.O. once a week with glass of water and must not lie down or eat for 30mins
-calcium and vitamin D
- strontium ranelate: inhibits breakdown (like BPs) but also promotes new formation, good if intolerant to BPs

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31
Q

How must bisphosphonates be taken?

A

Once a week
Orally
With plenty of water
Cannot lie down or eat for 30 minutes after taking

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32
Q

What is Paget’s disease of the bone?

A

Increases bone turnover due to increased osteoblasts, causing bone remodelling and weakness

33
Q

Hw will Paget’s Disease show on bloods?

A

Normal Ca and phosphate

Alkaline phos very Raised

34
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Adult version of Ricketts

Normal amount of bone but with low mineral content

35
Q

What would blood results show for osteomalacia?

A

Low Ca
Low phosphate
Raised alkaline phos (due to bone stimulation to replace low Ca)
Raised PTH

36
Q

How is osteomalacia treated?

A

Ca and vit D replacement

Tx underlying cause

37
Q

What is the most common joint affected in septic arthritis?

38
Q

What investigation must be done in a joint possibly affected by septic arthritis?

A

Urgent joint aspiration for synovial fluids microscopy

39
Q

What would synovial fluid show for a septic arthritic joint?

A

Yellow ish colour
Raised WCC
Organism cultured

40
Q

What are some risk factors for septic arthritis?

A
Pre existing joint disease
Diabetes
Age
Joint replacement
Immunosuppression
IVDU
Recent joint surgery 
CKD
41
Q

How is septic arthritis managed?

A

IV Abx
1st line fluxocacillin (clindamycin if penicillin allergic)
Analgesia
Maybe arthroscopic lavage

42
Q

How will a prolapsed disc causing radiculopathy at L5-S1 differ to one at L4-L5?

A

Both will have a positive sciatic stretch test
L5-S1 prolapse will affect the S1 nerve. This will show sensory disturbance on the sole and back of calf and motor disturbance due to weakened ankle plantarflexion
L4-L5 prolapse will affect the L5 nerve. This will show sensory disturbance by sensory loss at the medial side of the big toe, and motor disturbance by weakened ankle dorsiflexion

(An L3-L4 prolapse would show sensation loss on the medial side of the calf and weakened knee extension)

43
Q

Locking of the knee is more common with injuries to which part of the knee?

44
Q

What are the principles of # management?

A
  • anatomical reduction
  • stable fixation (cast, sling, external fix, internal fix)
  • preservation of blood supply
  • rehabilitation and mobilisation (involve PT, OT)
45
Q

How should open #’s be managed?

A
Photograph
Debridement of any foreign material
Cover in warm saline gauze
Reduce and splint if possible
Pressure on circulation 
Tetanus booster
IV Abx ASAP (co-amoxiclav or metro if pen allergy)
46
Q

How does tetanus work?

A

Blocks neurotransmitter release from the spinal cord

47
Q

What is a comminuted #?

A

Multiple fragments

48
Q

When describing displacement of a #, do we describe the movement of the proximal or distal fragment?

A

Distal fragment

49
Q

What is the effect of smoking on bone healing?

A

Smoking inhibits osteoblasts activity

Nicotine also causes vasospasms to reduce the blood supply to healing bone

50
Q

Which joints are Herbeden’s nodes and Bouchard’s nodes at in osteoarthritis?

A

Bouchards: PIPJ
Herbedens: DIPJ

51
Q

What are common causative organisms of septic arthritis?

A

Staph aureus
Salmonella if sickle cell disease
Neisseria gonorrhoea in young, sexually active people

52
Q

How is septic arthritis managed?

A

Abx (initially IV, UHL is flucoxacillin)

Irrigation and drainage of the joint in theatre

53
Q

How would you test for median nerve function?

A

Sensory: tip of index finger finger
Motor: hand flat on table and test thumb abduction against resistance

54
Q

How would you test for radial nerve function?

A

Sensory: dorsal aspect of webspace between thumb and index finger
Motor: test wrist and finger extension against resistance

55
Q

How would you test for ulnar nerve function?

A

Sensory: ulnar aspect of tip of little finger
Motor: hold paper between thumb and index finger, or oppose thumb to little finger against resistance

56
Q

Where will common fibulae nerve injury cause sensory loss?

A

Over the dorsum of the foot

57
Q

Where will sciatic nerve palsy cause sensory loss?

A

On the lateral side of the affect leg below the knee

58
Q

What are the nerve roots of the sciatic nerve?

59
Q

What is a Monteggia #?

A

of the proximal ulnar with dislocation of the radial head

60
Q

What is a galeazzi #?

A

Distal radial # with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint

61
Q

to which bone will cause tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox?

A

Scaphoid #

62
Q

What is the risk of a scaphoid #?

A

Avascular necrosis of the proximal fragment due to its distal to proximal blood supply

63
Q

What is Dupuytrens contracture?

A

Bands of palmar fascia develop into thick cords and can tether one or more fingers into a fixed flexed position
Ring and middle finger most commonly affected

64
Q

How is dupuytrens contracture managed?

A

Steroids injections can help with pain

Fasciectomy to remove the fascia once the contracture impedes the patients ADLs

65
Q

What nerve can be damaged with a humeral shaft #?

A

Radial nerve

66
Q

What are risks of a should dislocation?

A

High likelihood of recurrence
Future early arthritic changes likely
Risk to damage of axillary nerve

67
Q

How will the position of the leg be with a fractured femur?

A

Shortened and externally rotated

68
Q

Which artery supplies most of the blood supply to the femoral head?

A

Medial circumflex artery

69
Q

What does Gardner’s classification classify?

A

Intracapsular NOF #

1: incomplete #
2: complete # But undisplaced
3: complete and partially displaced
4: complete and fully displaced

70
Q

Describe a # that is classed as a a Gardner 3.

A

Intracapsular NOF # that is complete and partially displaced

71
Q

How are NOF #’s managed if they are a) intracapsular undisplaced, b) intracapsular displaced and c) extracapsular?

A

A) if comorbidities, hemiarthroplasty. If none, cannulated screws
B) if comorbidities then hemiarthroplasty, if none then total hip replacement (unless <70 try dynamic hip screws as THR won’t last rest of their life)
C) dynamic hip screws

Also rehabilitate with OT/PT and social care

72
Q

Positive Lachmans test is seen in which injury?

A

Anterior crucible ligament tear

73
Q

What are some differentials for knee swelling?

A
Septic arthritis
Reactive arthritis
Bursitis
Gout
Pseudogout
ligament tear
74
Q

What is Weber’s classification used for?

A

Classify fibula fractures

75
Q

What is Weber’s classification?

A

Type A below the syndesmosis (generally stable)
Type B at the level of the syndesmosis (likely to be unstable)
Type C above the syndesmosis (always unstable)

76
Q

When a fractured bone is reduced, what checks should be made afterwards?

A

Repeat x Ray
Repeat neurovascular exam
Check for any signs of compartment syndrome

77
Q

What are some immediate and some delayed complications of fractures?

A

Immediate: neurovascular compromise, compartment syndrome

Delayed: malunion, wound dehiscence, infection, joint stiffness

78
Q

What is hallux valgus?

A

Bunion deformity of the 1st metatarsal

79
Q

Under what circumstances should an acutely swollen joint not be aspirated?

A

If cellulitis is Also present as this could lead to sepsis