Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

A&E, T&O & ICU > T&O > Flashcards

T&O Flashcards

1
Q

19M pain in R hand after punching a wall.
bruising/swelling on ulna side of hand. unable to make a fist due to pain.
what bone is broken?

A

5th metacarpal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

where is lunate

A

articulates with radius centrally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

67M painful swollen knee for 24 hours. temp 37.6, hr 104, bp 116/80.
L knee is red, swollen, hot to touch, no weight bearing, reduced range of motion.
raised CRP, raised neutrophils and platelets.
immediate Ix?

A

joint aspiration for microscopy and culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

67M painful swollen knee for 24 hours. temp 37.6, hr 104, bp 116/80.
L knee is red, swollen, hot to touch, no weight bearing, reduced range of motion.
raised CRP, raised neutrophils and platelets.
Dx?

A

septic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

joint types affected by RA

A

multijoint, symmetrical, gradual onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what does serum uric acid help diagnose

A

gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does anti CCP AB test diagnose

A

RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the dermatome nerve of middle finger

A

c7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the dermatome nerve of thumb

A

c6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the dermatome nerve of little finger

A

c8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

7M with sprained ankle, in pain, red, swollen.
what is the mediator causing pain?

A

bradykinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

23F pain and swelling in R ankle after inverting it playing netball. no bony tenderness, able to weight bare but painful.
what ligament is torn?

A

anterior talofibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

88F falls from standing height at home.
afterwards she has ++ pain in R groin, difficulty mobilising.
R leg shortened and externally rotated.
Dx?

A

fractured NOF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

88F falls from standing height at home.
afterwards she has ++ pain in R groin, difficulty mobilising.
R leg shortened and externally rotated.
fractured NOF diagnosed. why is the leg shortned?

A

fractured bone is less able to resist forces of pulling from leg muscles so it is pulled up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

48M L wrist drop and numbness over L hand.
drank bottle of whisky, fell asleep with arm over back of chair.
reduced power of L wrist extension and numbness of radial aspect of L hand. Dx?

A

radial nerve injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

48M L wrist drop and numbness over L hand.
drank bottle of whisky, fell asleep with arm over back of chair.
reduced power of L wrist extension and numbness of radial aspect of L hand. what is underlying pathophysiological process?

A

neurapraxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is neurotmesis

A

most severe nerve injury - cut straight through nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is neuroma

A

tissue develops over damaged area over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is mildest type of nerve damage

A

neurapraxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

32M sharp pain at base of thumb having FOOSH off ladder.
pain on moving thumb and when pinching / gripping. no swelling but is tender.
Dx?

A

scaphoid fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

20F fell from horse, R shoulder pain and anterior shoulder dislocation. what nerve is most likely to be damaged?

A

axillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

20F fell from horse, R shoulder pain and anterior shoulder dislocation. how do you test that the axillary nerve has been damaged?

A

sensation over regimental patch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

25M assaulted with beer glass, cut hand/wrist. concern that median nerve is damaged - how is this assessed?

A

abduction of thumb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what nerve controls most of the movement of the hand

A

ulna nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is the bone pneumonic for the function of bone
B - biochem, biomech, biomaterial O - osteoblasts / clasts / cytes N - number of bones in body (206) e - extracellular fluid
26
what is the most common bone cell
osteocytes
27
how many bones are in the body
206
28
how many bones are in the foot / spine / hand
26 26 27
29
what is the make up of bone extracellular fluid with %
35% organic - collagen 65% inorganic - Ca, phosphate
30
what are the phases of gait
stance and swing
31
what is the pattern of normal gait called
heel toe
32
name some abnormal gaits
waddling gait antalgic gait high stepping gait foot drop gait in toring tip toeing charlie chaplain
33
what causes waddling gait
dislocation of hip - congenital (DDH) or acquired
34
define antalgic gait
unilateral PAIN causing INABILITY TO WEIGHT BARE on the affected side, thus REDUCED STANCE phase
35
what causes high stepping gait
loss of sensation of the foot
36
what is foot drop
loss of dorsiflexion of the foot
37
what causes foot drop
common perineal nerve damage
38
how is foot drop gait different to high stepping gait in terms of aetiology
foot drop = motor issue high stepping = sensation issues
39
is stance phase reduced in short leg gait
no
40
who has in toeing gait
children
41
what causes intoeing gait
antiversion of femur
42
what causes tip toeing gait
tight achilles tendon or habit
43
what is charlie chaplain gait
toes pointed out and sitting into hip
44
what causes charlie chaplin gait
retroversion of NOF
45
what tool measures the angle of the joints
goniometre
46
which joint angle can't be measured and why? what is done instead?
shoulder internal rotation - tummy gets in the way - get the pt to reach to their scapula instead
47
what % of the bodies ca is in the bone
95%
48
what materials can prosthese be made from
titanium hydroxyapetite
49
what is the precursor of osteoporosis
osteopenia
50
what type of collagen is present in bones
type 1
51
what is a lack of collagen in bones called
osteogenesis imperfecta
52
long bone vs short long bone
long = 2 growth plates short long = 1 growth plate
53
name the parts of the bone from top to middle
epiphysis physis = growth plate metaphysis diaphysis
54
what is the salter harris classification for
fractures of growth plates
55
what is type 1 salter harris classification
fracture straight across growth plate
56
what is type 2 salter harris classification
fracture above the growth plate which is flat then curves up
57
what is type 3 salter harris classification
fracture of the epiphysis
58
what is type 4 salter harris classification
fracture of the epiphysis and metaphysis
59
what is type 5 salter harris classification
fracture of the whole growth plate
60
which salter harris classification has the best / worst prognosis & why
1 and 2 best - growth plate not affected 3-5 worst - grwoth plate affected so might impair growth
61
what is the healing rate in a child for a fracture
<6 months as they have faster growth rate
62
contrast deformity and disability in terms of when you'd intervene with a fracture
if deformity only, wait for child to finish growing then intervene if disability, intervene immediately
63
what is a tumour of the metaphysis called
osteogenic sarcoma
64
who gets osteogenic sarcoma
adolescents
65
what is a tumour of the physis called
giant cell tumour
66
what does a giant cell tumour look like
soap bubble
67
when do giant cell tumours occur
after growth stops
68
what are the types of joints
biochem: synovial, cartilagenous, fibrous mechanical: hinge, ball and socket
69
what is in a synovial joint and where does it come from
synovial fluid from synovium around joint
70
why is synovial fluid important
provides nutrition to the articular cartilage which has no blood supply of its own
71
why is the synovial fluid important in septic arthritis
it is the only nutrition source for the cartilage, so if its infected, the cartilage may die and you get osteoarthritis of the joint
72
what is another name for cartilagenous joint
symphysis
73
give examples of cartilagenous joints
pubic symphysis sternum/xiphisternum
74
where are cartilagenous joints found
MIDLINE only
75
what is another name for fibrous joints
sindesmosis
76
give an example of a fibrous joint
inferior tibia fibula joint
77
what is diastasis
seperation of bones joined in a fibrous joint
78
what is the pneumonic for reasons to see an orthopaedic dr
PISSOFF pain instability swelling stiffness orthotics function
79
what will the patient say if they have joint instability
my leg gives way or locks
80
what is important to remeber / examine when a person comes in with pain of one joint only
check related joints for referred pain
81
which joints are most commonly assessed in paces
knee > hip > hand > spine > shoulder > feet
82
what is the hip socket called
acetabulum
83
what is the ball of the hip joint called
head of the femur
84
what is ligamentum terres
attaches from flava (dip on NOF) to hip joint
85
what is one way to section up the femur anatomically
intra / extracapsular
86
what is the mortality of fractured NOF
30%
87
how do you measure leg length
ASIS to medial malleolus
88
where is the hip joint
midpoint of inguinal ligament NOT asis very deep
89
what is shentons line and what is key to remember about it
line from femur > NOF > across pelvic bone > across top of foramen it should be SMOOTH
90
physis present on a bone. what does this mean?
its immature bone
91
when do physes fuse in boys / girls
18 / 16
92
list the 7 stages of a clinical ortho exam
look feel move special tests measure other joints NV status
93
what do you look for in a joint exam
skin changes scars shortening swelling stance gait
94
what do you feel for in a joint exam
warmth tenderness swelling bony landmarks
95
what movements do you do in a joint exam
flex ext abduction adduction rotation
96
what do you measure in a joint exam
length circumference
97
name special tests for a hip exam / knee exam
hip - thomas, trendelenburg, simmons knee - drawer's, lachmanns, MCL/LCL
98
how do you assess NV status in a LL joint exam
touch toe and see if they feel it ask to wiggel toes ask to flex / ext toes against resistance feel pulses feel temp
99
what is simmons test
get pt to kneel on one knee and squeeze calf their foot should plantarflex
100
what does a positive simmons test indicate
rupture of achilles
101
what is trendelenburgs test
get pt to stand on one leg to observe if they dip their hip or can keep it straight
102
what does a positive trendelenburg test indicate
muscle wasting / nerve damage to gluteal
103
what is thomas' test
hand on spine, bring one leg to chest and extend the other - should be flat
104
what does a positive thomas' test indicate
fixed flexion deformity of the hip
105
what type of joint is the knee joint
synovial, modified hinge joint
106
how many menisci does the knee have
2
107
where else in the body are menisci found
TMJ and sternoclavicular joint
108
Mx for tear of medial meniscus? why?
removal of torn section - there is no blood supply to this area so won't heal
109
Mx for tear of peripheral meniscus? why?
fixation via keyhole surgery - there is a blood supply so it will heal
110
name the ligaments in the knee
ACL PCL 2 menisci medial and lateral collateral ligaments
111
what type of bone is the patellar and where else in the body are these found
sesamoid bone under the big toe
112
what is the knee axis
straight line from centre of head of femur to condyles of femur/tibia to maleoli of ankle
113
name congenital deformities of the knee
discoid meniscus hyperextension valgus deformities varus deformities
114
what sx do patients present with if they have discoid meniscus
clunking of kne e
115
how is congenital hyperextension of the knee managed
bending it back each day by 10 degrees and strapping it until its backto normal. never do it all in one go though
116
define varus
towards midline
117
define valgus
away from midline
118
what is physiological knee varus called
bow legs
119
what is physiological knee valgus called
knock knees
120
list 3 metabolic issues of the knee
gout pseudogout pagets
121
what is the issue for a gouty knee
gout is uric acid crystals which are spikey so can damage cartilage
122
how is a torn ACL Mx
reconstructed with hamstring tendon
123
relevant Qs to ask pt in an ortho exam
age pain stiffness swelling referred operation
124
what is true locking vs pseudolocking of the knee
true = won't be able to move joint pseudo = small amount of flexion. due to spasm of the hamstring muscle
125
scar on the back of knee. likely cause?
vascular surgery
126
what is patellar tracking and what does it indicate
wtach patellar move as knee moves - if it goes lateral it means its dislocated recurrently
127
longitudinal scar down midline of knee ?
total knee replacement
128
1cm scars either side of patellar tendon ?
arthroscopy scars
129
causes of a warm knee
infection inflammation trauma - haematoma malignant tumours - osteogenic sarcoma
130
how do you assess for fluid in the knee
shift or bulge test
131
what is lachmans test
knee at 20 degrees flexion. grab thigh and then tibial tuberosity, then try and push tibia forward
132
what is drawer's test
look for posterior sag of tibia by bringing both heels together and looking at knees. sit on their foot, make sure hamys are relaxed, then put hands round the back of knee and try pull their tibia forward
133
how do you assess the MCL/LCL
stabilise the lower leg and move it valgus / varus
134
what is the apprehension test
flex knee and try to move knee cap laterally to assess if its dislocatable
135
how do you measure circumference of knee
10cm above and below
136
what test assess meniscal issues
mcmurrays (not often done as its painful
137
4 features of osteoarthritis
LOSS loss of joint space osteophytes subchondral sclerosis subchondral cysts
138
how can you describe a knee replacement
total or compartmental cemented or not constrained or not
139
what should you asses prior to doing a hand exam
shoulder function - hands on back of head, then reach for scapula elbow function - supine/prone, flex/ext
140
sensation of the hand (median, ulna, radius)
ulna = little finger and half of ring finger, bothsides median = rest of hand minus base of thumb / backs of palm radial = thumb and base of thumb
141
dermatomes of hand
c6 = thumb c7 = middle finger c8 = little finger
142
motor supply of hand muscles
all ulna except LLOAF which is median
143
deformities of the hand
mallet swan neck clawing thumb in hand carpal tunnel arthritis ones
144
name arthritis deformities of the hand
boutonnieres z deformity of thumb swan neck
145
what is the carpal tunnel
osseous-fibrous tunnel with flexor retinaculum on top at base of wrist
146
what is contained in the carpal tunnel
median nerve and 9 other things
147
commonest causes of carpal tunnel
pregnancy myxoedema RA osteoarthritis
148
Mx of RA
Medical - analgesia, biological agents, DMARDs Disease aids - OT, PT, splints Surgery - arthroplasty
149
RA signs on hands
Z or swan neck deformity
150
Why would you do a hemiarthroplasty rather than a THR for an intracapsular NOF
capsular is very vascular so preserve it in hemi

A&E, T&O & ICU (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions