T-minus 5 Flashcards

1
Q

SBARR

A

Who

  • Introduce yourself including your name and grade.*
  • Clarify the name and grade of the person you are speaking to.*
  • Provide the basic details of the patient you are calling about (e.g. name, gender, date of birth and hospital number).*

Where

Provide the patient’s location (e.g. “The patient is located on the haematology ward at the Royal Hospital”) and your own location if different.

When

Provide the timing of the current problem (e.g. “The patient began to deteriorate 15 minutes ago”)

What and why

  • Make it very clear what aspect of the patient’s management you need advice on and explain your current working diagnosis if relevant (e.g. “I need your advice on how we should manage the intracerebral haemorrhage.”).*
  • If there have been decisions about the escalation of care and resuscitation, these should also be discussed.*
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2
Q

SBARR

Background

A

Relevant medical details include:

  • Admission reason
  • Date of admission
  • Current diagnosis
  • Relevant past medical and surgical history
  • Relevant medications (e.g. warfarin if the patient has presented with a bleed)
  • Allergies (particularly if the allergy may impact the choice of treatment)
  • Relevant investigation results
  • Current management and the patient’s clinical response
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3
Q

SBARR

Assessment

A

The assessment part of SBARR involves communicating your objective clinical assessment of the patient including:

Vital signs: blood pressure, pulse, respiratory rate, SPO2 and temperature.

Clinical examination findings: in the context of an acutely unwell patient an ABCDE approach of reporting your findings can be useful to provide a coherent structure.

Overall clinical impression: this is your working diagnosis (e.g. “the patient appears septic” “the patient is neurologically deteriorating“).

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4
Q

SBARR

Recommendation

A

State the following

State your suspected diagnosis, what you think needs to happen and in what time frame you expect those things to happen.

“This lady has suffered an acute intracerebral haemorrhage and given the ongoing clinical deterioration she needs urgent review by the neurosurgical team.”

Ask the following

  • Whether they can review the patient and in what time frame they would be able to do this.
  • Whether there is anything further you could do (e.g. requesting investigations, administering treatments).
  • Whether a transfer to another clinical environment is required (e.g. ward, theatre, ICU).

“Are you able to come and review the patient now? In the meantime is there any other treatments or investigations you’d suggest? Are you happy to accept this patient for transfer urgently to the neurosurgical high dependency unit?”

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5
Q

SBARR

Response and review

A

Check that they have accurately understood the current clinical situation and check if they have any further questions.

Clarify expectation of response (e.g. “So you’ll be coming within the next 5 minutes to review the patient?”).

Document the discussion in the patient’s notes, including the details of those involved in the discussion (name, grade, bleep, their advice and timings).

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6
Q

CAGE history

A
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7
Q

CXR

A

B

C

D

E

A

A

  • trachea
  • carina
  • hilar enlargement

B

  • lung fields
  • pleura

C

  • cardiac size
  • cardiac borders

D

  • diaphragm
  • costophrenic angles

E

  • mediastinal contours
  • bones
  • soft tissues
  • tubes valves, pacemakers
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8
Q

Chemically mediated nausea treatment

A

Secondary to hypercalcaemia, opioids, or chemotherapy

  • If possible, the chemical disturbance should be corrected first
  • In the context of other chemically mediated syndromes, for example due to opioid medications, there are a number of suggested medications
  • Key treatment options include ondansetron, haloperidol and levomepromazine
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9
Q

Urinary history

A

Pain: typically associated with urinary tract infection (UTI), including sexually transmitted infections (e.g. chlamydia, gonorrhoea).

Frequency: commonly associated with UTIs.

Urgency: may be associated with UTIs or detrusor instability.

Nocturia: associated with UTIs and prostate enlargement (e.g. benign prostatic hyperplasia).

Haematuria: associated with UTIs, trauma (e.g. catheter insertion) and renal tract cancers (e.g. bladder cancer, renal cancer).

Urinary hesitancy, terminal dribbling and poor urinary stream: associated with enlargement of the prostate (e.g. prostate cancer, benign prostatic hyperplasia).

Urinary incontinence: associated with a wide range of pathology including UTIs, detrusor instability and spinal cord compression (e.g. cauda equina syndrome).

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10
Q

Management of cow’s milk protein intolerance

A

Management if breastfed

  • continue breastfeeding
  • eliminate cow’s milk protein from maternal diet. Consider prescribing calcium supplements for breastfeeding mothers whose babies have, or are suspected to have, CMPI, to prevent deficiency whilst they exclude dairy from their diet
  • use eHF milk when breastfeeding stops, until 12 months of age and at least for 6 months

Management if formula-fed

  • extensive hydrolysed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula for infants with mild-moderate symptoms
  • amino acid-based formula (AAF) in infants with severe CMPA or if no response to eHF
  • around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk
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11
Q

CMPI prognosis

A

CMPI usually resolves in most children

in children with IgE mediated intolerance around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years

in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance most children will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years

a challenge is often performed in the hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

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12
Q

Illicit Drug history

A
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13
Q

Diabetes Breaking bad news station

A
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14
Q

Osce station

Marrion (mum) wants to find out about her 16 year old daughter’s medical history

A
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15
Q

Hearing voices OSCE

(8)

A
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16
Q

Discharge from hospital osce station

A
17
Q

Causes of AF

A
18
Q

Week 6 screening tests

A
19
Q

Gynae History

Obstetric History

A

Gynae History

  • When did you first get your period?
  • Are you currently sexually active?
  • Have you ever had an STI before?
  • When was your last smear test?

Obstetric History

  • Have you had any problems with your current pregnancy?
  • Have you ever been pregnant before?
  • Have you ever had a miscarriage?
  • Headaches, swelling in legs, visual disturbances?
20
Q

Respiratory system antibiotics

A
21
Q

Urinary tract antibiotics

A
22
Q

Skin infection antibiotics

A
23
Q

Ear, nose & throat antibiotics

A
24
Q

Genital system antibiotics

A
25
Q

Gastrointestinal infection antibiotics

A
26
Q

Types of laxative

A
27
Q

Features of Klinefelter’s syndrome

A

Klinefelter’s syndrome is associated with karyotype 47, XXY

Features

  • often taller than average
  • lack of secondary sexual characteristics
  • small, firm testes
  • infertile
  • gynaecomastia - increased incidence of breast cancer
  • elevated gonadotrophin levels
28
Q

Features of Kallman’s syndrome

A

Kallman’s syndrome is a recognised cause of delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism.

It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait.

The clue given in many questions is lack of smell (anosmia) in a boy with delayed puberty

Features

  • ‘delayed puberty’
  • hypogonadism, cryptorchidism
  • anosmia
  • sex hormone levels are low
  • LH, FSH levels are inappropriately low/normal
  • patients are typically of normal or above average height
29
Q

Androgen insensitivity syndrome features

A

Features

‘primary amenorrhoea’

undescended testes causing groin swellings

breast development may occur as a result of conversion of testosterone to oestradiol

30
Q

Central cause of hypertonia

(4)

A

Causes of neonatal hypotonia include:

  • neonatal sepsis
  • Werdnig-Hoffman disease (spinal muscular atrophy type 1)
  • hypothyroidism
  • Prader-Willi

Maternal causes

  • maternal drugs e.g. benzodiazepines
  • maternal myasthenia gravis
31
Q

Mcune Albirght syndrome

A

McCune-Albright syndrome is not inherited, it is due to a random, somatic mutation in the GNAS gene.

Features

  • precocious puberty
  • cafe-au-lait spots
  • polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
  • short stature
32
Q

Meningitis in children: organisms

A

Neonatal to 3 months

  • Group B Streptococcus: usually acquired from the mother at birth. More common in low birth weight babies and following prolonged rupture of the membranes
  • E. coli and other Gram -ve organisms
  • Listeria monocytogenes

1 month to 6 years

  • Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus)
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus)
  • Haemophilus influenzae

Greater than 6 years

  • Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus)
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus)
33
Q

Paediatric foot conditions

A
34
Q

Scarlet fever

A

Features

  • fever: typically lasts 24 to 48 hours
  • malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting
  • sore throat
  • ‘strawberry’ tongue
  • rash

fine punctate erythema (‘pinhead’) which generally appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles

Management

  • oral penicillin V for 10 days
35
Q

Criteria for the use of therapeutic cooling in neonates:

(4)

A

Neonates with a gestational age ≥36 weeks and birth weight >1800g

History of acute perinatal event during delivery associated with period of hypoxia, and/or an Apgar score ≤5 at 10 minutes or at least 10 minutes of 
positive-pressure ventilation 


Severe metabolic acidosis on cord gas, or blood gas taken within 1hr of birth

Evidence of moderate-severe HIE – demonstrated by onset of seizures, and/or on the basis of clinical assessment of consciousness level, spontaneous activity, posture, tone, primitive reflexes, and autonomic systems.

36
Q

Undescended testis

Complications

Management

A

Complications of undescended testis

  • infertility
  • torsion
  • testicular cancer
  • psychological

Management

Unilateral undescended testis

  • NICE CKS now recommend referral should be considered from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age
  • Orchidopexy: Surgical practices vary although the majority of procedures are performed at around 1 year of age

Bilateral undescended testes

  • Should be reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24hours as the child may need urgent endocrine or genetic investigation
37
Q

The following conditions are inherited in a X-linked dominant fashion:

A

Alport’s syndrome (in around 85% of cases
Rett syndrome
Vitamin D resistant rickets

38
Q

School exclusion for

Impetigo

Diarrhoea & vomiting

Mumps

Chickenpox

Rubella

Measles

Whooping cough

A

Impetigo - Until lesions are crusted and healed

Diarrhoea & vomiting - 48 hours

Mumps - 5 days from onset of swollen glands

Chickenpox - All lesions crusted over

Rubella - 5 days from onset of rash

Measles - 4 days from onset of rash

Whooping cough - 2 days after commencing antibiotics

39
Q
A