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North American T-28 > T-28 NATOPS Test > Flashcards

T-28 NATOPS Test Flashcards

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1
Q

Assume the takeoff attitude when the…… becomes effective and let the aircraft flight itself off the deck at……-…… knots.

A

Elevator. Between 85 and 90 knots.

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2
Q

All ____ circuits are protected from overloads by push to reset circuit breakers.

A

DC. Pg 1-7

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3
Q

The minimum oil pressure for continuous flight is 65 PSI

A

True Pg 1-54

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4
Q

Inverted flight in the T 28 is permitted for how long?

A

10 seconds. Pg 1-53

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5
Q

The minimum fuel pressure for start is:

A

13 psi Pg 3-11

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6
Q

What is the pressure of the front and main tire?

A

Nose gear tire will 80 pounds PSI main gear tire 55 psi.

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7
Q

Where is the engine driven hydraulic pump drain?

A

Starboard cowling nose section.

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8
Q

After securing the engine and extinguishing the flames following an engine fire in flight, an engine restart will be attempted.
True or false

A

False, Do not attempt to restart the engine. Pg 5-2

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9
Q

All ____ circuits are protected by fuses.

A

AC. Pg 1-21

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10
Q

What is the total capacity and total usable capacity of the engine oil tank?

A
  1. 2 gallon tank,
  2. 8 gallons are usable with
  3. 4 gallons of foam and expansion space.
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11
Q

What is the inherent danger of the loss of the electric fuel boost pump above 10,000 feet?

A

Above 10,000 feet the engine driven pump will draw air as well as fuel therefore not providing enough fuel for the engine to operate.

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12
Q

The mixture control is in the _____ position while starting the engine.
A. Rich
B. Normal
C. Idle cutoff

A

C. Idle cut-off. Pg 3-11

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13
Q

Can the parking brake be set or released from the rear cockpit?

A

No, the only parking brake handle is in the front cockpit.

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14
Q

Caution should be used to avoid undershooting during a dead engine landing; however, if undershooting is anticipated, what corrective actions can be applied?

A

The glide can be extended by moving the prop to full decrease or raising the flaps to 1/2 or raising the landing gear. Do not raise flaps when lower than 600 feet. Gear should be extended by 300 feet. The gear will retract in 7 seconds and extend in 4 seconds.

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15
Q

For ditching, the landing gear may be positioned at the pilots discretion. True or false

A

False. The gear should be retracted. Pg 5-7

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16
Q

Due to the type of fuel system in the T 28, it is possible to encounter an uneven fuel flow due too……

A

The tank vent under the flaps are creating unequal pressure or the aircraft is flown out of balance for an extended period.

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17
Q

Carburetor icing critical temperature is -10 to +5C. True or false

A

True. Pg. 1-54

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18
Q

What two switches must be positioned before the gear position lights will come on?

A

EXT MASTER switch and the Landing gear must be down and locked. Pg 1-27

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19
Q

With the engine when windmilling, the landing gear can be retracted in approximately 4 seconds.
True or false

A

False. 7 seconds to retract and 4 seconds to extend.

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20
Q

In aircraft having ASC 36 complied with, what bus(es) receive power when the DC POWER switch in the rear cockpit is placed in the EMER OFF position?

A

Only the battery bus. All other buses are off. Fig 1-10

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21
Q

What is the procedure for a high speed bailout?

A
  1. Disconnect headset and oxy
  2. Seat belt and shoulder harness locked.
  3. Canopy handle EMERG OPEN
  4. Elevator trim full forward
  5. Aircraft roll inverted
  6. Seat belts release
  7. Pull D-rig when clear
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22
Q

To bail out during a spin
A. Bail out to the inside of the spin
B. Bail out to the outside of the spin.

A

B. Outside of the spin. Pg 5-7

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23
Q

With complete loss of hydraulic fluid, is normal operation of the brake system possible? Why?

A

Yes, there is enough fluid remaining in the standpipe for normal break operation.

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24
Q

How many electrical buss’s does the T 28 have?

A 
Four, 
battery bus (which is basically a hot buss)
primary buss
secondary buss
monitor buss
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25
Q

In the event of an engine-driven hydraulic pump failure in flight:
A. It is possible to lower the flaps to the down position, but not an intermediate position
B. It is necessary to move the canopy handle to the EMERGENCY position in order to open the canopy
C. The brakes, gear and speed brake can be operated
D. All of the preceding are correct.

A

C. The brakes, gear and speed brakes operate with the use of the hand pump.

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26
Q

Minimum and maximum oil pressure in flight is:

A

65 psi min, 90 psi max, Pg 1-54

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27
Q

What is the recommended oleo strut extension of the main gear?

A

2.5 inches

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28
Q

What rpm should the aircraft idle at while on the ground?

A

1200 rpm, it may be reduced while taxing, 1200 when stopped

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29
Q

If complete electrical and hydraulic failure is experienced, the nose gear will not extend.
True or False

A

False, the nose gear will be extended by the spring bungee. Pg 1-25

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30
Q

For starting and run up, the supercharger should:

A

In the low blower position. Pg 1-11, 3-11

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31
Q

RPM in excess of 2800 requires an engine inspection.

True or false

A

False. Over 3000 requires and inspection. Pg 1-53

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32
Q

Total usable fuel is _____.

A

178 gallons, 87.5 each wing and 3 gallons in the sump. Pg 1-16 and Pg 1-52 (177 gallons usable)

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33
Q

What is the maximum allowable manifold pressure at 7000 feet when operating at 1800 rpm in low blower? Chart on Pg 1-56

A

28.5 Chart on Pg 1-56

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34
Q

In order to perform the recommended procedure for bailout, airspeed must be reduced below 140 knots. True or false

A

True. Speed should be between 100 and 125 knots. Pg 5-6

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35
Q

The external flap handle performs its designed purpose by ______?

A

Lowering the flap for entry by moving the flap handle to full down if not already down and releasing hydraulic pressure.

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36
Q

One of the two cylinder head temperature indicators normally reads higher than the other. To which cylinder does the higher temperature relate?

A

Cylinder 6 normally higher and indicates in the front cockpit, Pg 1-8

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37
Q

What is the maximum g load at 150 knots?

A

4.5 positive g’s and 2 negative g’s

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38
Q

Why will the loss of the port cowling cause severe damage to the canopy in flight?

A

Propeller slipstream will cause the cowl to fly off rotated around the nose striking and destroying the canopy.

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39
Q

In the event of a complete electrical failure in flight, the flaps may be extended by:

A

Placing the flap in the down position and using the hand pump.

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40
Q 
Maximum acceptable rpm drop during the ignition system check is \_\_\_\_. 
A. 50 
B. 75 
C. 85 
D. 100
A

B. 75. Pg 3-13

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41
Q

Where is the emergency canopy air bottle located and what is the normal pressure range?

A

The emergency air bottle is located in the baggage compartment. The normal range is 1600-1980 psi. 1300 min.

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42
Q

An external canopy handle is provided on the _____ side of the fuseluge. Is it possible to operate the canopy hydraulically with the external handle?

A

Port. Yes, all functions are available.

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43
Q

What is the best glide speed?

A

130 knots with flaps and gear up

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44
Q 
To prevent excessive engine cooling, a simulated engine failure emergency will not be initiated above \_\_\_\_ feet. 
A. 2500 
B. 10,000 
C. 5000 
D. 3500
A

C. 5000. Pg 5-4

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45
Q

What are the allowable aerobatic maneuver’s?

A 
Inverted flight not to exceed 10 seconds
Loop 
Immelmann turn
Aileron roll
Wing over
Chandelle
Spins except inverted spins
Barrel roll
1/2 Cuban eight
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46
Q

If an engine fire occurs after the engine starts you should proceed as follows:
A. Fuel shut off handle off.
B. Mixture idle cutoff
C. Ignition and DC POWER switches to off
D. All of the procedure.

A

D. All are correct. Pg 5-1

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47
Q

When ditching in high wind or irregular sea state, the best procedure is to approach into the wind and touch on ______.

A

Falling side of the wave. Pg 5-7

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48
Q

In-flight with the gear and flaps retracted, a hydraulic pressure indication of 0 to 100 psi:

A

Is normal

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49
Q

Because of additional stresses is imposed on the T 28, the maximum permissible acceleration in a rolling pull-out is:

A

Two thirds the max. Pg 1-55

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50
Q

Why is it necessary to scavenge the oil at 1200 rpm for 60 seconds prior to shutting down?

A

To recover oil from the lower cylinders to the oil tank. At low rpm the scavenge pump is inefficient. At 1200 rpm the scavenge pump will sufficiently pull the oil up and back into the oil tank. Pg 1-13

In addition, to allow the cylinder head temperature to stabilize at 150 degrees or less. Pg 3-20

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51
Q

Oil pressure for continuous operation is 65 to 75 psi.

True or false

A

True. Pg 1-54

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52
Q

What happens when the canopy handle is placed in the emergency position? Can the canopy normal operation be resumed after selection of the emergency position?

A

When the handle is moved to the emergency open position, air pressure from the emergency air bottle will be supplied to the canopy actuating cylinder through separate lines. To be used again, the system must be bled. In order to bleed the system, the handle must be moved to the open position, WITHOUT PRESSING THE BUTTON, for 30 to 45 seconds. Then operate the canopy through several complete cycles through the normal operation.

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53
Q

In the event of complete electrical failure, instrument flying will be impossible. True or false

A

True. Pg 5-9

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54
Q

After adjusting the throttle to obtain manifold pressure equal to field barometric pressure, an acceptable power check will be:

A

T-28C 2175+-75 rpm T-28B 2275 rpm Pg 3-13

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55
Q

Maximum continuous operating rpm is:

A

2700 rpm Pg 1-54

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56
Q

The engine driven fuel pump provides pressure at …… psi?

A

21 to 25 psi.
If the engine driven fuel pump fails, the engine will still operate normally on the electric boost pump though flight above 10,000 feet will be limited.

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57
Q 
You would shift to low blower and retard throttle the lowest possible manifold pressure to sustain flight if the prop: 
A. Went into full high pitch 
B. Went into full increase rpm 
C. Linkage broke 
D. Went into full low pitch
A

A. Went into full high pitch. Pg 5-7

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58
Q

To scavenge the engine, ____ rpm will be maintained for 1 minute. A. 1300 B. 1000 C. 1200

A

C. 1200 rpm. Pg 3-20

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59
Q

In the event of a complete electrical failure in flight, the speedbrake:

A

Will close to a trail position if the speed brake switch is moved to off. Pg 1-25

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60
Q

Which instruments are operated by the pitot static system?

A

Airspeed indicator and Altimeter.

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61
Q

In an engine failure emergency, the prop the lever will be placed in full increase rpm position for increased glide range.
True or false

A

False. Full decrease would extend the glide. Pg 5-3

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62
Q

The maximum continuous rpm for operation at high blower is:

A

2600 rpm. Pg 1-57

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63
Q

What is the purpose of the oil system sump warning lights?

A

Illumination of this light may be an indication of an impending engine failure.

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64
Q

Holding 130 knots indicated airspeed, gear up, flaps up and no wind. The glide distance is ____ miles for each 5000 feet.

A

9 miles. Pg 5-4

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65
Q

Which of the following statements is false?
A. Landing lights may be controlled from either cockpit.
B. The engine maybe started from either cockpit.
C. Solo flight is permitted from the front cockpit only.
D. The parking brake may be released from either cockpit.

A

D. The parking brake may be released from the FORWARD cockpit only.

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66
Q

Two independent cylinder head temperature indication systems are provided, one for each cockpit. To which two cylinders are these temperature indicators connected and in which cockpit do they read?

A

Cylinder 6 in the forward cockpit and cylinder 5 in the rear cockpit. Pg 1-8

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67
Q 
In the emergency landing pattern, the desired straight-away should be: 
A. 1400-1600 feet 
B. 1600-1800 feet 
C. 1800-2000 feet 
D. 2000-2200 feet
A

C. 1800-2000 Pg 5-5

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68
Q

If it is necessary to bail out to during level flight, the _____ side should be used to take advantage of the downward force of the propeller wash.
Right or Left

A

Right side. Pg 5-6

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69
Q

When carrying out the precautionary emergency landing procedure, propeller control lever should be set:

A

1900-2000 rpm. Pg 5-3

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70
Q

RPM at takeoff climb and cruise

A

T/O 2700 rpm, 27-48”
Climb 2400 rpm, 24-36”
Cruise 2000 rpm, 20-30”

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71
Q

When complying with the precautionary emergency landing procedure, retard throttle to maintain straight and level flight between?

A

140 to 160 Knots. Pg 5-3

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72
Q

Desired continuous cylinder head temperature is 150 to 230 C. True or false

A

True. Pg 1-54

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73
Q

Maximum continuous cylinder head temperature in flight is 260°C.
True or false.

A

False. 245 is max continuous. 260 degrees is limited to 30 min. Pg 1-54

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74
Q

If it is necessary to bail out, the decision to abandon the aircraft in flight should be made as soon as possible for what reason?

A

If the decision to bailout is delayed, the building g-forces will build to a point where bailing out is extremely difficult or impossible. Pg 5-6

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75
Q

During ground operation of the T-28C, rpm between ___ and ___ should be avoided.

A

1900 to 2200. Pg 1-53

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76
Q

With a generator failure, is it possible to use the heater-defroster system?

A

No. The heater-defroster system in powered by the monitor buss. The monitor buss cannot be powered by the battery only. Fig 1-10

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77
Q

How are the cowl flaps operated and what buss powers them?

A

A spring loaded switch on the left console forward of the throttle quadrant. The switch has fixed open or spring loaded close positions and is powered by the secondary DC buss.

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78
Q

The voltmeter is graduated in DC volts. Normal indication is approximately:

A

27.7 volts Pg 1-21

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79
Q

Recommended rpm with a sump plug warning light is 1900-2000 rpm. True or false

A

True. Pg 5-3

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80
Q

Normal hydraulic pressure (system pressurized) is 1250 to 1650 psi.
True or false

A

True. Pg 1-54

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81
Q

The electric fuel boost pump provides pressure under a pressure of …… Psi.

A

19 to 24 psi

If the boost pump fails, the engine will operate normally up to 10,000 feet.

82
Q

Maximum airspeed with the landing lights extended is?

A

120 knots. Pg 1-53

83
Q

The maximum allowable rpm that can be used in high blower is:

A

2600 rpm. Pg 1-57

84
Q

The following and aborted takeoff, it is seen that the aircraft will run off the end onto an unprepared surface at a speed an excess of 15 knots, the landing gear should be retracted before leaving the runway.
True or false

A

True. Brake failure checklist

85
Q

With the hydraulic pump failure, which of the hydraulic systems can still be used?

A

All systems will work normal with the use of the hand pump.

86
Q

To prevent the tendency to undershoot in the emergency landing pattern, set up for a point one-third down the runway. True or false

A

True. Pg 5-3

87
Q

The fuel shut off handle controls the …… and the …….

A

Turning the fuel shut-off handle on from either cockpit: opens the FUEL SHUT-OFF valve and powers the DC powered boost pump. The boost pump is located in the in the right wheel well.

88
Q

How much hydraulic fluid is in the T 28?

A

2.5 gallons in the reservoir, 4.5 gallons system total. Pg 1-52

89
Q

During blower shift from high to low ratio, a sudden decrease in manifold pressure indicates ______.

A

The supercharger is disengaged. Normal operation. Pg 1-11

90
Q

To prevent possible seizure of the brakes pucks and brake disks, the parking brake should not be set if the brakes are overheated. True or false

A

True. Pg 3-20

91
Q

In preparation for solo flight, what items must be in the cockpit?

A

Flight suit, ID Tags, Flight gloves, Flight safety boots, Life preserver for over-water flights, Survival knife and sheath, Personal survival kit, Parachute.

92
Q

Which instruments would be lost with the failure of 28 V DC electrical system:
A. Oil temperature, cylinder head temperature, and tachometer
B. Oil temperature, carburetor air temperature, and tachometer
C. Cylinder head temperature, fuel pressure, and free air for temperature
D. Oil temperature, cylinder head temperature, and carburetor air temperature

A

D. Oil temperature, cylinder head temperature, and carburetor air
Fig 1-10, Pg 1-19

93
Q

In the emergency landing pattern, the most effective way to lose altitude is:
A. Delaying the final turn
B. Slipping on final
C. Advancing propeller to full increase rpm
D. Extending the speed brakes

A

B. Slipping on final. Pg 5-3

94
Q

What is the minimum crew requirement and which cockpit must the pilot fly from?

A

Minimum crew of one.
Solo from the front cockpit only.
Solo flight from the rear cockpit is prohibited, the cockpit heater control, the circuit breaker panel and the parking brake lever is not duplicated in the rear cockpit.

95
Q

What access route to extinguish a fuselage fire on the ground?

A

Open the baggage compartment to battle the fire. Pg 5-2

96
Q

Brake pucks should be no thinner than 1/16 of an inch. True or false

A

True, Pg 3-7 6,h

97
Q

What two methods are there of applying power to the bus(es) that are lost when the generator fails?

A

Lowering the landing gear or switching to BATT only will power the secondary bus. The monitor bus cannot be powered by battery only. Pg 1-16

98
Q

The power plant cowling consists of how many sections? When properly secured, the end of the shear pin should protrude how far through the shear pin receptacle?

A

5 separate panels of which 3 are hinged and movable. The rounded end of each shear pin should protrude 3/8 of an inch through the receptacle. Pg 3-7

99
Q

With the engine when windmilling, the landing gear cannot be retracted.
True or false

A

False. Pg 5-3

100
Q

To start the engine on prime, the mixture control lever should be and what position?

A

The mixture control should be in idle cut off.

101
Q

What is the minimum rpm for heater operation once the heater is started?

A

1000 rpm. Pg 1-33

102
Q

What is the purpose of the external flap handle?

A

To lower the flap for aircraft entry.

103
Q

The load meter indicates the percent of generator output being used. The normal range is 0.3 to 0.5.
True or false

A

True. Pg 1-21, 3-13

104
Q

If oil pressure does not register …… seconds or rise to …… psi in …… seconds, secure engine and investigate.

A

If oil pressure does not register within 10 seconds or rise to 40 psi within 20 seconds shut down the engine.

105
Q 
Which of the following would be lost in the event of an AC failure?
A. Turn and bank indicator 
B. Tachometer 
C. Altitude Gyro 
D. Cylinder head temperature
A

C. Attitude Gyro

106
Q 
When starting the engine utilizing an APU, the DC power switch should be in the: 
A. BAT & GEN position
B. OFF position
C. BAT ONLY position
D. APU position
A

B. OFF position Pg 3-11

107
Q

During a dead-engine landing, a decrease in flap setting is not recommended below ______ feet.

A

600 feet. Pg 5-3

108
Q

What does the fuel boost pump test switch do?

A

When the switch is moved to the test position it interrupts the power to the electric fuel boost pump allowing the engine driven fuel pump pressure to be pressure to be checked.

109
Q

Which statement is true?
A. The gear should be left down when landing on unprepared service
B. If the nose wheel fails to extend, raise the main gear to make a gear up landing
C. A wheels-up landing is preferred to landing with one main wheel extended

A

C is correct. Pg 5-10

110
Q

MIL-L06082, Grade 1100, may be used as an alternate oil. Recommended oil is ______?

A

MIL-L-22851

Phillips multi-grade 20W-50

111
Q

With the hydraulic failure caused by a break in the line, which of the hydraulic systems can still be used?

A

The flaps and the speedbrakes will not operate.

emergency gear extension, 
canopy emergency opening, 
speed brake emergency retraction, 
wheel brakes will operate normally, 
rocket emergency jettison
112
Q

If taxiing and is delayed for any reason and you were required to stop, maintain 1200 rpm.
True or False

A

True, 1200 rpm, Pg 3-13

113
Q

To ensure the proper canopy emergency operation, the emergency air bottle should be serviced to a minimum of?

A

1300 psi minimum. Normal range is 1600-1980 psi. Pg 3-9, 1-52

114
Q

In the event it is necessary to override the canopy handle (and button) and start movement of the canopy when it is being operated hydraulically, press the Canopy emergency button stop button.
True or false

A

True. Pg 1-31,32

115
Q

It is possible to maintain flight by use of the primer.

True or False

A

No, not enough volume to run engine at high power, but it may extend flight enough to make an emergency landing.

116
Q

When performing the exterior inspection, make certain the dipstick retaining wire is properly seated after replacing the dipstick and that the oil filter cap is properly secured. Oil quantity should be a minimum of ___ gallons for flight. A. 8.8 B. 9.0 C. 8.0 D. 7.5

A

C. 8.0 gallons. Pg 3-5

117
Q

It is possible to change the a-c electrical systems fuses in flight?

A

Yes. Located in the front cockpit, right side panel. Pg 1-21

118
Q

What three switches must be positioned before the landing lights will function?

A

EXT MASTER and landing light L & R. Pg 1-43

119
Q

Engine type and power?

A

Wright cyclone model R1820-86A

1425 horsepower plus the additional thrust provided by the jet effect of the exhaust

120
Q

When inbound to the station on an instrument approach, with the gear and flaps 1/2 down, what air speed should be maintained?

A

130 knots

121
Q

On a standard day, with 52.5 inches of manifold pressure and 2700 rpm, how much horsepower does the R1820-86A engine develop?

A

1425 horsepower Pg 1-7

122
Q

Recommended indicated airspeed and severe turbulence is:

A

125 to 185 knots recommended. Pg 1-53

123
Q

What is the maximum allowable carburetor air temperature? For each ____ degrees above the desired maximum, it is necessary to reduce MAP ____ inches.

A

38C degrees. For each 6C degrees above 38C, MAP should be reduced by 1 inch. Note Figure 1-26, Pg 1-57

124
Q

Most engine failures are gradual and afford the pilot ample indication of impending failure. An instant failure is rare and usually occurs only if ignition and or fuel flow completely fails. True or false

A

True. Pg 5-3

125
Q

With the propeller in FULL DECREASE rpm and the speed break up, engine rpm during a 130 knot dead-engine glide will be approximately ______ rpm. Generator will be ______.

A

With 130 knots glide and clean configuration the engine rpm will be 1150 and the generator output will be normal. Pg 5-4

126
Q

The nose wheel oleo strut should extend a minimum of _______ inches.

A

3.5 inches. 4 fingers.

127
Q

In the shutdown procedure, why is it necessary to let the cylinder head temperature stabilize at 150 degrees or less?

A

Retained heat in the engine may be sufficient to raise the temperature of the engine components above their limits. Intake pipes may crack or warp, rocker covers may warp and insulation on wiring could melt. Pg 1-12

128
Q

What is the Oil dilution switch used for and where does it get its power?

A

It is used to thin the oil viscosity whenever cold weather is anticipated. The switch is located on the right console switch panel, spring loaded to OFF and is powered by the primary DC buss.

129
Q

What are the speeds for approach and landing?

A

150 to 170 approach, slow to 120 downwind, across from touchdown, 20 inches at 100 knots on base, final at 90 knots

150, 120, 100, 90

130
Q

The minimum indicated voltage for start is 20 V.

True or false

A

False. 22 volts minimum. Pg 3-11

131
Q

What is the fuel capacity of each wing and capacity of the sump and the total fuel?

A

87 gallons usable in each wing, 3 gallons in the sump for a total of 177 usable gallons of fuel. (178 total, .5 gal unusable in each wing tank)

132
Q

The control lock not only locks the surface controls but also locks the:

A

Throttle in the closed position. Pg 1-24

133
Q 
Loss of propeller control and subsequent stabilization between 2000 and 2200 rpm indicates: 
A. Prop governor failure 
B. Prop governor linkage failure 
C. Prop governor counterweight failure. 
D. An oil leak in the propeller dome.
A

B. Linkage failure. Pg 5-7

134
Q

Proper fuel(s) specification for the T-28 is/are:

A

100LL

135
Q

With a windmilling engine, what electrical and hydraulic system will be inoperative. True or false.

A

False. All systems will be operational. All emergency systems will operate as well. Pg 5.3 5-4

136
Q

The landing gear will not be lowered at speeds in excess of:

A

140 knots

137
Q

List the items that are transfer on operation of the intercockpit control shift switch.

A
  1. Starter
  2. Cowl and Oil cooler flaps
  3. Speed Brakes
  4. External lights.
    Pg 1-16
138
Q

In the event the generator failure:
A. Circuit breakers for nonessential equipment should be pulled
B. Instrument flight can we maintained by placing the DC power switch in the appropriate position
C. Radio communications as possible with the DC POWER switch in the appropriate position
D. All proceeding are correct.

A

D. All are correct. Pg 5-8

139
Q

Best power-off glide speed to obtain maximum distance with gear and flaps retracted is:

A

130 knots Pg 5-6

140
Q

The fuel low-level warning light will illuminate if fuel quality falls below approximately:

A

200 lbs Pg 1-14

141
Q

Why is it necessary to check the baggage compartment door seal for wear and cracks?

A

If the seal is cracked, carbon monoxide could enter the cabin and cause carbon monoxide poisoning.

142
Q

What buss is the starter powered by?

A

Primary DC buss

143
Q

In aircraft having ASC 36 complied with, is it necessary to switch inverters when the generator fails in order to conserve power? Why?

A

No. Inverter #1 (250va) is powered from the primary bus. The primary bus is powered from the battery bus. Inverter #2 (750va) is powered from the monitor bus which will be off line. Fig 1-10

144
Q

The minimum and maximum oil temperature range is 40° to 95°.
True or false

A

True. Pg 1-54

145
Q

In the event of a propeller surge, the best corrective action is:
A. Placing the mixture control in normal and reducing speed to 140 knots
B. Placing the mixture control in rich and accelerating to 190 knots to expedite return.
C. Reducing rpm to 1600
D. Placing the mixture control in rich and checking carburetor air temperature.

A

D. Pg 1-12

146
Q

As the aircraft will settle on retraction of the flaps, the flaps will not be raised below 200 feet. True or false

A

False. The flaps should not be raised below 600 feet. Pg 5-3

147
Q

MAP used for take-off is 52.5 inches Hg. Maximum allowable MAP at sea level is 52.5 inches. True or false

A

True. Pg 1-54

148
Q

In aircraft having ASC 36 complied with, is it possible to select different inverters from each cockpit simultaneously?

A

Yes. The rear cockpit is normally on #1 inverter and the front cockpit can be on either. Fig 1-10

149
Q

What is the minimum in-flight oil pressure and when do you check for this indication on the ground.

A

65 psi. Before Takeoff Checklist Pg 3-14

150
Q

Where is the battery located in the T-28B and C?

A

Located in the tail section, port side on the B model and Port side, mid ship on the C model. Pg 1-2

151
Q

If the aircraft is damaged in flight, climb to at least 2500 feet prior to testing the aircraft slow flight characteristics. True or false

A

False. Climb to 5000 to check flight in landing configuration. Pg 5-7

152
Q

The T-28 has a …… volt DC electrical system powered by a …… ampere engine driven generator and a …… volt storage battery which serves as a standby power source.

A

28 volt
200 ampere
24 volt battery

153
Q

The minimum rpm recommended in-flight is:

A

1400 rpm. Pg 1-56

154
Q

If the engine fails shortly after take off:
A. Turn back to the field
B. In any event, land into the wind.
C. Maintain flying speed and land straight ahead
D. none of the preceding.

A

C. Maintain flying speed and land straight ahead. It is better to land under control. Pg 5-3

155
Q

When does the fuel low-level warning light illuminate?

A

The light comes on at approximately 200 pounds of fuel remaining.

156
Q

The electrical fuel boost pump drain is located in the ______

A

Rear of the starboard main landing gear wheel well under the sump tank.

157
Q

What is the airspeed limitation with the landing gear, arresting hook and or wing flaps extended? Landing light?

A

140 knots, hook, gear or flaps.

120 knots Maximum with the landing light extended

158
Q

If an engine fire occurs during the engine start, correct procedure is:
A. Mixture idle cutoff, continue priming, continue cranking in an attempt to start the engine.
B. Mixture idle cutoff, stop priming, continue cranking in an attempt to start the engine.
C. Mixture idle cutoff, stop priming, continue cranking in an attempt to clear or start the engine.

A

C. Pg 5-1

159
Q

When attempting an air start with the generator operating, the DC POWER should be placed in the _____ position.

A

BAT & GEN, Pg 5-6

160
Q

Maintain …… airspeed in a low approach instrument until completion procedure.

A

130 knots

161
Q

The sump fuel tank is located in the starboard wheel wheel. True or false

A

True Pg. 3-8

162
Q

All exterior lights may be controlled by:

A

By using the EXT MASTER light switch. Also, by the pilot that last operated his control shift switch.

Pg 1-43

163
Q

After the engine is running smoothly on prime, what is the procedure for selecting rich mixture?

A

When the engine is running smoothly at 1000-1200 rpm, move the mixture lever to rich. As the engine drops slightly indicating fuel is being supplied by the carburetor, release the primer. Pg 3-12

164
Q

What is the recommended power setting and the airspeed for holding T-28?

A

MAP as required 130 knots at 1800 rpm.

165
Q

The wing flaps will not be lowered at speeds in excess of:

A

140 knots

166
Q

During an in-flight restart, the DC POWER switch is placed in the BAT ONLY position for what reason?

A

To restart the electric fuel boost pump. Pg 5-6

167
Q

The carburetor air temperature and the cylinder head temperature indicators are DC powered?
True or false?

A

True. Powered by the Primary bus.

168
Q

What are the propeller limitations on the ground?

A

Do not operate a propeller in the range of 1900 to 2200 RPM on the ground.

169
Q

To prevent overheating of the supercharger clutch, shifts from high to low ratio will not be initiated at less than 5-minute intervals. True or false

A

False. Low to high is limited to 5 min intervals. Pg 3-15

170
Q

If smokes enters the cockpit from the air outlets, open the canopy for proper smoke elimination. True or false

A

True. Pg 5-3

171
Q

What is the maximum recommended gross weight for landing a T-28C.

A

10,900 Pg 1-55

172
Q

The proper trim tab setting for take-off is aileron -0 degrees: elevator -5 nose down: rudder -0 degrees. True or false

A

False. Pg 3-14

173
Q

Where is the engine driven fuel pump drain located?

A

Starboard cowling, nose section of the engine nacelle.

174
Q

The engine will be cranked through …… blades prior to turning the ignition switch to BOTH.

A

Turn the propeller through at least 12 blades. Pg 3-11 checklist

175
Q

During engine start, Oil pressure must rise to at least 40 psi within:

A

20 seconds. Pg 3-11p

176
Q

What are the reasons for operating the engine at 1200 rpm when taxiing is delayed?

A

This prevents plug fouling, creates propeller blast for engine cooling and ensures proper operation of d-c generator. Whenever the aircraft is stopped, operate at 1200 rpm. Pg 3-13

177
Q

Accessory section fires can be extinguished by inserting the fire extinguisher nozzle through the spring loaded access door in the front lower left side of the engine cowl.
True or false

A

False. The access door is located on the starboard side of the nose cowl. Pg 5-1

178
Q

Idle speed is approximately 750 to 850 RPM.

True or False

A

True. 750 to 850 is idle for taxiing. Idle while sitting still should be at 1200 rpm. Pg 3-13

179
Q

In the event of a propeller overspeed, you should:
A. Retard the throttle
B. Manipulate the PROP control lever in an attempt to restore governing
C. Raise the nose to increase the load on the propeller
D. All of the preceding

A

D. All of the above. Pg 5-7

180
Q

During warm-up, the cowl and oil cooler flaps should be in the:

A

Full open position position. Pg 3-11

181
Q

In the T-28, clean configuration, gross weight 7500 pounds, what is the power-off stall speed in a 30-degree bank? What is the power-off stall speed with gear and flaps down in a 30-degree bank?

A

85 and 72. Figure 4-2, PG 4-6

182
Q

Recommended EMERGENCY landing gear extension airspeed is 115 knots. True or false

A

True. Pg 5-8

183
Q

Where are the tank overboard vent located?

A

The vents are located under each flap.

184
Q

With the DC POWER switch in the BAT GEN position and the aircraft in the clean configuration, what buses are lost when the generator failure?

A

Secondary and monitor buses will be lost. Pg 1-16

185
Q

If hydraulic failure occurs in flight with the speed break open, positioning to speed brake switch to OFF allows air loads to close the break to trail position.
True or False

A

True. Pg 1-25, 5-8

186
Q

When performing the propeller check, a drop of approximately 400 rpm should be noted. True or false

A

True. Pg 3-13

187
Q

If the engine fails to start after 30 seconds continuous cranking, allow starter cooling for 5 minutes before repeating start procedure.
True or False

A

False. 3 minutes is sufficient. Pg 3-11

188
Q

A minimum of _____ RPM is required to start the heater? Why?

A

1300 rpm Higher airflow is required to activate the ram air pressure switch. Pg 1-33

189
Q

The recommended fuel pressure range for the continuous operations is:

A

21-25 psi Pg 1-54 Fig 1-25

190
Q

The GCA final should be flown at …… knots with …… flaps.

A

130 knots 1/2 flaps

191
Q

Does the operation of the command control shift switch turn on the AN/ARC-27? Is it necessary to have control of the AN/ARC-27 in order to change frequencies?

A

No, the Command control switch shifts control of the UHF radio to the cockpit the switch is located. Yes, you must have control to change frequencies.

192
Q

To conserve electrical power following generator failure, the small inverter should be selected and the circuit breaker for the large inverter should be pulled out. On aircraft not having ASC 36 incorporated, the small inverter is the number one inverter.
True or false

A

False. Pg 1-16

193
Q

Break checklist

A 
Roll into desired angle of bank
Retard throttle to 15 inches
Speed break-on
Lower landing gear at 140 knots
Speed break-off
Slow to 120 knots
Prop - 2400 rpm
194
Q

To allow an even fuel flow, the port and starboard fuel tank vent outlets should be ______ and ______.

A

Even and unobstructed.

195
Q

Fast throttle bursts should be made only while governing at ____ rpm or less.

A

2500 rpm or less. Note: 1-53

196
Q

At what airspeed will the rudder become effective?

A

The rudder is effective for directional control above 30 KIAS.

197
Q

What is the gross weight of an airplane for field landings?

A

8,500 pounds as configured

198
Q

Landing checklist

A 
Harness - locked
Blower - low
Mixture - Rich
Hook - as desired
Canopy - closed
Wheels, propeller, wings flaps - left to go (propeller 2200 RPM)
199
Q

Engine rpm in excess of ____ rpm requires an engine change.

A

3200 rpm. Pg 1-53

200
Q

What is the optimum air speed and altitude for bailout in a controllable flight situation?

A

The optimum air speed between 100 and 125 knots in speed and 5000 feet in altitude.

North American T-28 (1 decks)

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