Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A319/320/321 > Systems Review Questions > Flashcards

Systems Review Questions Flashcards

Questions from 10 JUL 2013 PH RC7

1
Q

With the NOSE taxi and takeoff light ON, when will those lights automatically extinguish?

A

Landing gear retraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

With the STROBE switch in AUTO when do the strobe lights operate?

A

When the landing gear strut is not compressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When will the LOGO lights illuminate?

A

NAV & LOGO switch ON and main gear compressed or slats extended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If the LAND light selector is moved from RETRACT to OFF, what does the landing light do?

A

It extends but is extinguished

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Is the ANN LT TEST switch used during preflight?

A

No, ANN LT TEST switch is a maintenance function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What flight deck lighting is maintained if normal electrical power is lost?

A

Right dome light, Standby compass, CAs instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What would an amber temp indication in either the Pack Outlet Temp or Pack Compressor Outlet Temp indicate?

A

Excessive temps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is the Hot Air Pressure Regulating Valve controlled?

A

HOT AIR pb on the overhead panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If bleed air is being supplied by the APU or if one pack fails, pack flow will go to what rate?

A

HIGH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

With the APU supplying bleed air, what will the pack flow be if the PACK FLOW switch is in LOW?

A

HIGH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

There are three temperature selectors for the various zones in the aircraft. The pack controllers will deliver air at the coolest demanded temperature to the mixing units. How are the individual zones maintained at a comfortable temp if the air being demanded is always the coldest?

A

By mixing hot bleed air through trim air valves into the distribution network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Inflight, what happens if HP bleed air pressure is insufficient?

A

Engine speed is increased automatically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is indicated by a FAULT light in the HOT AIR pb?

A

Duct overheat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The pack flow control valve automatically closes for engine start when the mode selector is moved to IGN/START. When does the valve automatically open?

A

After successful start or 30 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many motors are installed on the crossbleed valve?

A

2 – one for automatic mode and one for manual mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Can external air be used to supplement low APU bleed pressure?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If the APU bleed valve is open and the X BLEED selector is in AUTO, what is the position of the X BLEED valve

A

Open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When would the RAM AIR pb be used?

A

Ventilation and/or smoke removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens to the outflow valve when the RAM AIR pb is selected ON?

A

The outflow valve opens when the cabin differential pressure is < 1 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If SYS 1 (or SYS 2) were displayed in amber on the ECAM CABIN PRESS page, what would be indicated?

A

System fault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is indicated if the Cabin Vertical Speed is indicated in amber?

A

High cabin rate of climb/descent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What occurs when the DITCHING pb is selected on?

A

All valves below the water line close except for the outflow valve if the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL is in MAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

With the LDG ELEV selector in AUTO, what altitude is used for landing field pressurization reference?

A

FMGC database information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

With the LDG ELEV selector at 2, what would be the landing elevation?

A

2,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When does the pressurization system switch between auto-controllers?

A

After each landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the FAULT light in the MODE SEL switch on the CABIN PRESS panel indicate?

A

Both automatic systems have faulted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Is cargo heat provided to the forward cargo compartment?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What ECAM page is selected to verify aft cargo compartment temperature?

A

ECAM COND page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What would the FAULT light in the AFT ISO VALVE indicate?

A

A fault has been detected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How many CAB FANS are installed?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If either the BLOWER or EXTRACT pb is selected to OVRD, will the system run on the OPEN or CLOSED configuration?

A

CLOSED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How can you tell the APU is up to speed and the generator is available?

A

APU electrical power is available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When would the corresponding APU N% speed be displayed in amber or red?

A

When an overspeed occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is indicated when the APU EGT indication is displayed in amber or red?

A

An overtemp condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

With external power supplying the buses and the APU operating, what action is required to select APU power?

A

Deselect external power by pushing the EXT PWR pb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The APU START pb is pressed and illuminates blue. What does this mean?

A

The APU starter is energized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When would the APU fault light illuminate?

A

APU automatic shutdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are some possible reasons for an APU auto shutdown?

A

High oil temp, low oil pressure, overspeed, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Is altitude a consideration when considering use of the APU as a source of bleed air and/or electrical power?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How does the crew confirm that the data contained in the FMGC database is valid?

A

Check the database validity period on the Aircraft Status page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When would a takeoff shift be entered into the PERF TO page?

A

When departing from a runway intersection (non-GPS only)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

If NAV is engaged and the aircraft flies into a flight plan discontinuity, what will occur?

A

NAV will disengage and the aircraft will revert to HDG/TRK mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Box prompts on the MCDU indicate what?

A

Data entry is required for minimum FMGS operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Dashes on the MCDU indicate what?

A

Data is being calculated by the FMGC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

If inflight we lost both FMGCs due to internal failure, could we still navigate and complete our flight?

A

Yes, by using the RMP. Lift the guard and press the NAV button and you can dial appropriate freqs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the difference between OPT and REC MAX?

A

OPT is based on present GW, temp, and cost index – best economy btwn fuel and time savings

REC MAX is based on GW and ISA deviation – provides 1.3g load protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Inflight with the autopilot engaged, will movement of the pitch trim wheel cause the autopilot to disengage?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What occurs when the altitude knob on the FCU is pulled?

A

OPEN CLIMB or DESCENT engages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the function of the LOC pb?

A

The AP and/or FD is armed to capture the localizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Once APPR is armed but not captured, provide an example of the methods that may be used to disarm it

A

As long as the aircraft is above 400’ RA:

  • Press the APPR pb a second time
  • Press the LOC pb
  • Arm NAV by pressing the HDG/TRK knob on the FCU
  • Disengage both APs
  • Engage GA mode
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If I were hand flying the precision approach w/o the aid of the FD or AP, would I still push the APPR pb to arm the approach?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Name some examples of when the AP will disengage

A
  • Takeover switch is pressed
  • Sidestick is moved beyond the load threshold
  • The other AP is engaged (except when LOC G/S modes are engaged)
  • Thrust levers set to TOGA on the ground
  • DA - 50’ when APP is engaged on an RNAV approach
  • THS wheel moved
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When can the second AP be engaged?

A

After selecting APPR during an ILS approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Do any procedures require the use of the EXPED button?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What action would the pilot take to use SELECTED SPEED?

A

Pull the SPD MACH selector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

If the pilot desired an immediate level off, what action should be taken?

A

Push the V/S selector knob

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Is V/S “0” altitude hold?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Is altitude alerting automatically inhibited with the AP on?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Must the FD be on for the windshear function of the FACs to operate normally?

A

No, it’s independent of the FD on/off switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does the APPR pb do?

A

Arms the FD and/or AP to capture the glideslope and localizer / non-precision approach course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The CAPT & PURS switch should always be in which position?

A

CAPT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

With the RDCR GND CTL pb in AUTO, when do the CVR and DFDR energize?

A
  • For 5 minutes after electrical power application
  • 1 engine running
  • Continuously during flight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

In order to test the CVR, the Parking Brake must be in what selected position?

A

ON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

When will the DFDR operate?

A
  • On the ground w/1 engine running

- Continuously in flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How would you erase the data on the CVR?

A

On the ground with parking brake set, press the CVR ERASE pb for 2 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

When the MECH pb is pushed, what signals are received in the landing gear bay?

A

Blue light and horn. Horn will sound as long as button is held.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What can you expect if you push the EMER pb?

A

Three high-low chimes (6 bells) and commencement of the FA emergency procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The Audio Switching selector allows us to replace a failed ACP with the 3rd occupant’s ACP. After switching, is the 3rd occupant’s ACP still operational?

A

The 3rd occupant’s acoustic equipment is no longer usable and the crewmember with the failed ACP will have to use the ACP located overhead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How should the PA button be positioned on the #3 ACP?

A

Selected out in the 3 o’clock position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How do we make a PA using the ACP?

A

Press and hold the PA pb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How is the ATT or MECH flashing lights extinguished after a call?

A

By pressing the RESET key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How is a FA call answered?

A

Press the ATT transmission key, then press and release the CAB reception knob and adjust the volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Can any communications radios be controlled from any RMP?

A

Yes. All comms radios can be controlled from any of the 3 RMPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Are there any procedures in the PH which direct us to use the EMER GEN TEST switch?

A

No, this is a maintenance function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

An amber SMOKE annunciation in the GEN 1 LINE pb indicates what?

A

Smoke in the avionics ventilation system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

If the GEN 1 LINE pb is selected to OFF, is there any equipment still powered by generator 1?

A

Yes, one fuel pump in each tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

If the GEN 1 LINE pb is selected to OFF, what becomes the source to AC bus 1?

A

Generator 2 through the bus tie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What will cause the RAT to extend automatically?

A

Loss of AC bus 1 & 2 and airspeed > 100 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

In flight with the airplane powered normally (both generators), we push the RAT MAN ON switch. What will power the AC and DC ESS buses?

A

Emergency generator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the difference between the RAT MAN ON switch on the EMER ELEC PWR panel and the switch labeled similarly on the HYD panel?

A

With the electrical RAT MAN ON, the blue hydraulic system drives the emergency generator. With the switch on the HYD panel, only the blue hydraulic system is available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What does a fault light in a BAT pb indicate?

A

Charging current is outside limits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What does the indication ___% in the GEN 1 icon indicate?

A

Generator 1 load is ___%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Upon entering the flight deck prior to the first flight of the day, what should the battery voltage be?

A

Greater than or equal to 25.5 V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the primary purpose of the batteries?

A

Emergency electrical and APU starting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

During preflight, what options are available if the battery voltage for either battery is

A
  • Replace the battery

- Complete a 20-min charge and recheck for sufficient voltage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

During the Safety & Power On checklist, why is the battery check accomplished with the batteries in the OFF position?

A

To determine the exact battery voltage. In the AUTO position, the acft is essentially in an emergency electrical configuration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

If the BATT switches are in AUTO overnight without any other power, will the batteries discharge completely?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Under what conditions are the batteries connected to the DC BATTERY BUS

A

Each battery’s BATTERY CHARGE LIMITER automatically connects the batteries when:

  • APU is starting
  • In the emergency electrical config
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

When is the main galley bus automatically shed?

A

Single generator operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

If the main galley bus sheds automatically on a single generator or power source, how is it powered on the ground?

A

All galley buses are supplied with APU or External power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What does the FAULT light in the IDG pb indicate?

A

High oil temperature or low oil pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What precautions exist when disconnecting an IDG?

A
  • Do not hold the disconnect pb for more than 3 seconds

- Engine must be running or windmilling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

If the pilot inadvertently pushes the IDG disconnect, can it be reconnected?

A

Not in flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The normal priority for supplying electrical power to the AC buses is:

A

Engine generator, External power, APU, generator for other engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What does the FAULT light indicate in the GEN 1 pb?

A

A fault has been detected because:

  • GCU tripped

OR

  • GLC (generator line contactor) opened
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the normal source of power for the AC ESS BUS?

A

AC BUS 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Could AC BUS 2 be used to power the AC ESS BUS?

A

Yes, it is automatically supplied by AC BUS 2 when AC BUS 1 is lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What does the FAULT light indicate in the AC ESS FEED pb?

A

A fault has been detected (AC ESS BUS is not powered). Follow ECAM procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What does the green AVAIL light indicate in the EXT PWR pb?

A

External power is connected and within normal parameters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

If the green AVAIL light is present in the EXT PWR pb and a green AVAIL light is present on the APU, what is the source of electrical power with the engines shut down?

A

APU since the EXT PWR must be selected ON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

If both engines were started at the gate using external power, would the EXT PWR ON light still be illuminated?

A

Yes, however the engine driven generators are supplying power to the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

If EXT power is in use during APU start, does the green AVAIL light in the APU START pb indicate it is now the source of power?

A

No. External power has priority over the APU. The green APU AVAIL light indicates that the APU generator is available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

If landing in the Emergency Electrical configuration, when will the DC BAT BUS be automatically connected to the batteries?

A

Loss of AC BUS 1 & 2 and speed below 100 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

If landing in the Emergency Electrical configuration and speed decreases below 50 kts, the AC ESS BUS is shed. What would be the indication to the crew?

A

Loss of display units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the significance of the green CBs?

A

They’re ECAM monitored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Why do the Wing Tip Brake CBs have red caps installed on them?

A

To prevent inflight resetting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

The FASTEN SEAT BELTS, NO SMOKING, and EXIT signs come on automatically when the cabin altitude exceeds _________ feet, regardless of the respective switch position

A

11,300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

When will the emergency lighting system illuminate automatically?

A

When normal aircraft electrical power system fails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is included in the aircraft emergency lighting?

A
  • Overhead emergency lights
  • Exit signs
  • Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

How many fire bottles are provided for the cargo compartments?

A

1 bottle supplies both compartments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How many channels must detect smoke to receive a Cargo Smoke warning?

A

Both channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

When is the fire detection and extinguishing system tested?

A

First flight of the day during the Flightdeck Preparation Flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

If the FIRE pb were released out, would that action affect the fuel system?

A

Yes, it closes the low-pressure fuel valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

When is the engine extinguishing agent switch armed?

A

When the engine fire switch is released out

115
Q

Where are the engine fire sensing elements installed?

A
  • Pylon nacelle
  • Fan
  • Core
116
Q

If a failure in both engine fire loops occurs within 5 seconds of each other, what will occur?

A

An engine fire warning will occur

117
Q

How would the crew know if any component of the fire detection system fails?

A

ECAM message(s)

118
Q

If an APU start is initiated on battery power only, is fire protection available?

A

Yes. If the fire occurs during APU start, the APU will auto shutdown and the extinguisher will discharge

119
Q

If the FIRE pb were released out, would that action affect the electrical system?

A

Yes, it deactivates the generator

120
Q

How many fire bottles are available for fighting an engine fire?

A

2 for each engine

121
Q

How many fire bottles are available for fighting an APU fire?

A

1

122
Q

If an APU fire occurs on the ground, what must be done to shut down the APU and extinguish the fire?

A

Nothing. On the ground, the APU will automatically shut down and the APU fire extinguisher will discharge after the fire warning appears. The external horn sounds and a red light illuminates in the external control panel

123
Q

A DISCH light on either the ENGINE or APU fire agent switch indicates?

A

The extinguisher bottle has lost pressure

124
Q

If there is an APU fire in flight, will the APU automatically shutdown?

A

No. The APU must be shut down manually and the agent manually discharged

125
Q

With battery power only, what would an APU fire test look like?

A

APU FIRE pb and SQUIB illuminated

126
Q

If the aircraft is powered, what indications would be seen during the APU fire test?

A
  • APU FIRE pb illuminated red
  • SQUIB / DISCH lights illuminated
  • Both red MASTER WARNING lights illuminated
  • ECAM would display the APU FIRE warning
  • APU page would be on the system display page
127
Q

How would low hydraulic pressure be indicated on the F/CTL page?

A

G, B, or Y would be displayed in amber at the corresponding positions on this page

128
Q

What indicators would the FO reference during the Flight Control Check?

A

Flight Control Position Indicators for aileron, elevator, spoilers, and rudder

129
Q

On what other ECAM page would spoiler deployment be indicated?

A

ECAM WHEEL page

130
Q

How many ELAC computers are installed and what are their functions?

A

2 Elevator Aileron Computers provide normal elevator, stabilizer, and aileron control

131
Q

What would the FAULT light in the ELAC 1 pb indicate?

A

It’s on when a failure has been detected or during power up for 8 seconds

132
Q

How many SEC computers are installed and what are their functions?

A

3 Spoiler Elevator Computers provide spoiler control and standby elevator/stabilizer control

133
Q

What control surface do the FACs control?

A

Rudder

134
Q

Is there any rudder pedal feedback for yaw dampening or turn coordination functions?

A

No

135
Q

What flight control computer provides reactive windshear detection?

A

FAC

136
Q

If one FAC is lose, are any FAC functions lost?

A

No, the second FAC will handle the demand

137
Q

Can the rudders be moved with both FACs inoperative?

A

Yes, mechanically

138
Q

Do the sidesticks move with autopilot inputs or with inputs from the opposite sidestick?

A

No

139
Q

What would result if both sidesticks were moved at the same time during flight with the AP off?

A
  • Both inputs are summed algebraically
  • Dual Input warning will sound
  • Green sidestick priority lights will flash
140
Q

Are hydraulics required to fly the aircraft in mechanical backup?

A

Yes

141
Q

Will the red arrow portion of the SIDESTICK PRIORITY light illuminate in front of the pilot losing or gaining priority?

A

Losing

142
Q

What indications are present when inputs are being made simultaneously to the sidesticks?

A

The green CAPT & FO portions of the sidestick priority lights flash and the aural Dual Input warning sounds when neither takes priority

143
Q

Config 1 is selected for takeoff. What slats/flaps combination is indicated?

A

Flaps 1 + F

144
Q

Config 1 is selected on approach. What slats/flaps combination is indicated?

A

Flaps 1, which is slats only

145
Q

If the flaps are not retracted after takeoff, what happens?

A

The trailing edge flaps retract at 210 kts

146
Q

Does the rudder trim rotary switch have any effect with the autopilot engaged?

A

No

147
Q

What does the RESET button on the rudder trim do?

A

Resets rudder trim to 0 if the AP is off

148
Q

What happens to extended speed brakes when Flaps FULL is selected on the A320?

A

Speed brakes retract

149
Q

During landing, when does partial spoiler extension occur?

A
  • Reverse selected on at least 1 engine and 1 main gear strut compressed
150
Q

During landing, when does full ground spoiler extension occur?

A
  • Touchdown of both main gear

- Both thrust levers at idle OR at least 1 engine in reverse thrust

151
Q

Are there any procedures that call for the pilot to use the VOR switch installed on the EFIS Control Panel?

A

Yes: VOR approaches and when DME information is needed

152
Q

Is the radar display available in all modes of the ND selector?

A

No, radar is not available in PLAN

153
Q

When the LS/ILS pb is selected, where will the localizer and glideslope scales be displayed?

A

Onside PFD

154
Q

If the Standby Attitude Indicator power source fails, how will this be indicated?

A

A flag will appear if the power supply or instrument fails

155
Q

What does STS indicate when displayed on the EWD?

A

The STATUS page holds messages

156
Q

If the upper ECAM display fails, what happens automatically?

A

EWD display replaces the SD display on the lower ECAM

157
Q

What if the lower ECAM display unit failed? Could we display the lower ECAM information?

A

We can press & hold a systems page pb on the ECAM Control Panel and the page will be displayed on the upper ECAM. We can also select CAPT or FO on the ECAM/ND XFR rotary switch on the switching panel

158
Q

What is the purpose of the EIS Switching Panel?

A

Permits cockpit display screens to access secondary sources

159
Q

Can the lower ECAM display be transferred to another display unit?

A

Yes

160
Q

DMC 1 (2) has failed. Can the information on the affected displays be restored?

A

Yes. Rotate the switch labeled EIS DMC to replace the failed DMC with DMC 3

161
Q

What happens when the TO CONFIG pb is pressed?

A

An application of takeoff power is simulated. A warning occurs if the aircraft is not in takeoff configuration

162
Q

If during the flight we received continuous spurious warning messages that we knew to be incorrect, is there any way to cancel this caution?

A

By depressing the EMER CANC pb we can cancel Level 1 and Level 2 Caution messages only (along with the Master Caution). However, that specific caution is now inhibited for the remainder of the flight

163
Q

We have pressed the EMER CANC pb. How can we restore the system to normal?

A

Press the RCL pb for more than 3 seconds. The Level 1 and Level 2 Caution messages that have been suppressed are recalled. Messages that we have cleared will be recalled

164
Q

How could we check the Status page for inoperative systems or maintenance messages?

A

Press the STS pb and the status page is displayed on the lower ECAM. If there is no status message present, NORMAL is displayed for 5 seconds

165
Q

Why is it very important to maintain a “lights out” condition on the ECP during flight?

A

Because the automatic phase of flight function and display of the relative system on the lower ECAM during an abnormal will be inhibited by the page we have displayed manually

166
Q

We have 3 DMCs which acquire and process all information and signals received from the sensors and computers to generate the images to be displayed on all of the Display Units. Where is the information normally displayed by DMC 1? DMC 2?

A
  • DMC 1 supplies data to PFD 1, ND 1, and the Upper ECAM

- DMC 2 supplies data to PFD 2, ND 2, and the Lower ECAM

167
Q

How is a DMC failure displayed?

A

Basic aircraft: A diagonal line on the display units driven by the failed DMC

Enhanced aircraft: “INVALID DATA” is displayed on the units driven by the failed DMC

168
Q

If a display unit failed, would the screen have a diagonal line displayed?

A

No, the screen would be blank

169
Q

How many VOR and DME receivers are on the aircraft?

A

2 VOR and 2 DME

170
Q

If all systems were working normally and a crewmember wanted to remotely tune a VOR through the RMP, would that have any effect on the FMGC NAV functions?

A

Yes, auto tuning and FMGC radio position updating are superseded and RAD NAV page is blanked. NAV on RMP 3 will have no effect

171
Q

When would we use the RMP to tune an ILS?

A

When both MCDUs or FMGCs are inoperative or when the aircraft is in an Emergency Electrical configuration

172
Q

Can 2 different ILS freqs be tuned at the same time?

A

No

173
Q

If the LOC or G/S fails, what would be indicated on the PFD?

A

LOC or GS in red on the PFD of the failed receiver. In ROSE ILS, we would see a red LOC or GS flag

174
Q

What is the fuel feed sequence?

A

A319/320: Center tank then wing tanks

A321: Fuel flows from the center tank to the wing tanks, which feed the engines. The tanks empty in the following sequence: Aft ACT, Forward ACT, Center, Wing

175
Q

The transfer valves automatically open when the wing inner tank fuel quantity drops to _______

A

1,650 pounds

176
Q

The transfer valves have opened. When will they close?

A

Automatically at the next refueling operation

177
Q

With the MODE SEL switch in AUTO, when will the center tank pumps operate on the A319/320?

A
  • 2 minutes after each engine is started

- When slats are retracted in flight until 5 minutes after the center tank is empty

178
Q

Is refueling possible if the aircraft batteries are the only source of power?

A

Yes

179
Q

Can fuel be gravity fed to the engines?

A

Yes, inflight

180
Q

How many fuel pumps are in each fuel tank in the A319/320?

A

2

181
Q

Which hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps?

A

Green and Yellow

182
Q

Name some of the major users of the Green hydraulic system

A

(Look at panel next to the Upper ECAM for hints)

  • Landing gear
  • Autobrakes
  • NWS (on basic aircraft)
183
Q

The Yellow hydraulic system has an engine driven pump. What other means do we have to pressurize the Yellow system?

A
  • Electric pump
  • PTU
  • Hand pump for cargo doors
184
Q

How many pumps does the Yellow hydraulic system have (not counting the PTU)?

A

3: Engine, electric, and hand

185
Q

What does the Yellow hydraulic system hand pump supply pressure for?

A

Opening the cargo doors

186
Q

When does the PTU operate?

A

When pressure between the Green and Yellow hydraulic systems drop to a predetermined level

187
Q

Can fluid be transferred between hydraulic systems?

A

No

188
Q

Will the PTU operate during Cargo Door operation?

A

No

189
Q

When is the PTU tested?

A

During the second engine start

190
Q

Is it possible to pressurize the Green hydraulic system on the ground via the PTU?

A

Yes

191
Q

What are the hydraulic priority valves, and what is their function?

A

They cut off heavy load units if system pressure drops below a predetermined value

192
Q

With the airplane on the ground and the Blue electric pump switch in AUTO, when will the Blue pump be energized?

A

When 1 engine is running

193
Q

To emergency extend the gear, the crew has to turn the gear crank 3 turns clockwise. What does this action accomplish?

A

It shuts off hydraulic pressure to the gear, opens the doors, and unlocks the gear

194
Q

After emergency extension, do the gear doors remain open?

A

Yes

195
Q

Do we have NWS after emergency gear operation?

A

No

196
Q

What would happen if the rain repellent pb were pushed on the ground with the engines shut down?

A

Nothing

197
Q

Is it permitted to select WING ANTI-ICE on the ground?

A

No

198
Q

On the ground, will the Wing Anti-Ice valves open?

A

Only during a 30 sec test sequence if pneumatic supply is available

199
Q

After takeoff, when should WING ANTI-ICE be selected ON, if needed?

A

At thrust reduction altitude, after selection of LVR CLB

200
Q

On approach, when should WING ANTI-ICE be selected OFF?

A

At the FAF inbound unless in severe icing

201
Q

What part of each wing is anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air?

A

The 3 outboard slats

202
Q

What part of the engine is anti-iced?

A

Nacelle

203
Q

What happens when either anti-ice valve is open with regard to engine RPM?

A

Minimum idle RPM is increased if necessary

204
Q

When does probe heat come on automatically?

A

When at least 1 engine is running

205
Q

Window heat operates at what power level in flight?

A

Normal

206
Q

Where does the crew look to verify that the parking brake is on?

A

Confirm on the ECAM Memo

207
Q

What is the purpose of the brake check accomplished immediately after the aircraft starts moving?

A
  • Checks brake efficiency

- Confirms Green pressure has taken over and that Yellow pressure is 0 on the Triple Indicator

208
Q

If AUTO BRK is displayed in green, what is indicated?

A

Auto Brake is armed

209
Q

What does the UNLK light in the LDG GEAR indicate?

A

Gear is in transition or not locked in the selected position

210
Q

What does HOT in the BRK FAN light indicate?

A

Brakes are too hot (accompanied by ECAM)

211
Q

Will the lights on the LDG GEAR panel illuminate if LGCIU 1 is not powered?

A

No

212
Q

Does the alternate brake system have the same capabilities as normal brakes?

A

Yes, except Auto Brakes are inop

213
Q

Is NWS available with Green hydraulic pressure inop?

A
  • Basic aircraft: no

- Enhanced aircraft: yes, powered by the Yellow system

214
Q

When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only, how many brake applications can the pilot expect?

A

7 full brake applications

215
Q

What is the maximum degree of NWS available using the hand wheel?

A

+/- 75 degrees

216
Q

When using the rudder pedals for NWS, the steering angle starts to reduce _____ kts and progressively reduces to 0 degrees at ____ kts

A

40, 130

217
Q

The green DECEL light on the Auto Brake switch illuminates when the actual airplane deceleration corresponds to what percent of the selected rate?

A

80

218
Q

When is the antiskid system automatically deactivated?

A

Below 20 kts

219
Q

When is brake pressure applied to the brakes during landing using the LO setting? MED?

A

LO: 4 sec after ground spoiler extension
MED: 2 sec after ground spoiler extension

220
Q

Are there any operations described in the PH that requires the use of MAX Auto Brakes during landing?

A

No

221
Q

Is the Anti-Skid system operational with Yellow alternate brakes?

A

It may or may not be available

222
Q

What does the Red Arrow indicate on the landing gear panel?

A

Landing gear not down and locked when the aircraft is in the landing configuration

223
Q

The brake pressure on the Triple Position indicator reads which system pressure?

A

Yellow

224
Q

Which hydraulic system does the parking brake use?

A

Yellow

225
Q

When the parking brake is on, is the anti-skid active?

A

No

226
Q

How any ADIRUs does the aircraft have?

A

3

227
Q

When the Mode Selectors are positioned to NAV during a full alignment, what indications should be noted on the panel?

A
  • The ON BAT light illuminates momentarily

- It’s followed by 3 ALIGN lights on each respective IR on the GNADIRS panel

228
Q

What does the ON BAT light indicate?

A

1 or more IRs are being supplied only by the aircraft battery. It also illuminates momentarily at the beginning of a full alignment

229
Q

If the ADIRS switches are already in NAV, how do you accomplish a quick alignment?

A

Turn the Mode Selectors OFF and back ON within 5 seconds and select ALIGN IRS on the INIT page

230
Q

What would occur if the pilot were to take longer than 5 seconds to cycle any of the Mode Selectors from OFF back to NAV?

A

Full alignment

231
Q

Can the present position be entered through the GNADIRS panel or must we use the MCDU?

A

It can be entered on the GNADIRS panel through the numeric keyboard

232
Q

Does the center OFF, 1, 2, 3 switch turn the GNADIRS unit off?

A

No, only the upper display

233
Q

What would cause the ADIRS ALIGN light to flash?

A
  • IR alignment fault
  • No present position entry after 10 minutes
  • Difference between position at shut down and entered position exceeds 1 degree of Lat or Long
234
Q

The entered position causes the ALIGN lights to flash. If the coordinates are correct, how is the problem corrected?

A

Check the city pairs and re-enter them if necessary

235
Q

What would a steady FAULT light in IR 1 indicate?

A

IR 1 is lost

236
Q

Would a fault in IR 1 cause ADR 1 to fail?

A

No

237
Q

What would a flashing IR FAULT light indicate?

A

Attitude and heading may be recovered in ATT mode

238
Q

Are we allowed to pushback during the alignment process?

A

No, movement will cause a system fault

239
Q

After selecting the IR Mode Selectors to NAV, when should you select ALIGN IRS on the INIT A page?

A

Immediately after selecting NAV to avoid excessive ADIRS drift

240
Q

If you were to rotate the IR 1 Mode Selector to OFF, would that affect ADR 1?

A

Yes, although they are independent systems, they share an ON/OFF switch

241
Q

If IR 1 were to fault inflight, what information would be lost on PFD 1? How is it displayed?

A

Attitude and heading information is lost. Red ATT and HDG flags are displayed

242
Q

If IR 1 were to fault inflight, the DDRMI will show a compass card flag. Why?

A

IR 1 drives the DDRMI compass card until it is switched

243
Q

What IR information may be recovered if an IR FAULT light is flashing?

A

Attitude and heading may possibly be recovered by turning the IR Selector to ATT

244
Q

Are the IR track, wind, and heading information displayed on the IR overhead panel relative to true or magnetic?

A

True

245
Q

If the SYS pb is selected OFF on the EGPWS panel, what is inhibited>

A

All basic EGPWS alerts (modes 1-5)

246
Q

What is the purpose of the FLAP MODE pb?

A

To inhibit nuisance warning when an ECAM calls for landing with a reduced flap setting

247
Q

What is the purpose of the LDG FLAP 3 pb?

A

It is used when landing in Config 3

248
Q

If a TERR fault light is illuminated, would that affect the basic EGPWS modes?

A

No

249
Q

Where is ILS 1 and ILS 2 displayed?

A
  • ILS 1 is displayed on the CA PFD and FO ND

- ILS 2 is displayed on the FO PFD and CA ND

250
Q

Radio Height is displayed on the PFD at what altitude?

A

Below 2,500’

251
Q

What information from the ADR is displayed on the PFD?

A

Airspeed and altitude

252
Q

When is sidestick position and max sidestick deflection displayed on the PFD?

A

On the ground after the first engine start

253
Q

If RADIO ALTIMETER 1 fails, is radio altitude information lost on either PFD?

A

No

254
Q

What information do the FACs provide that is indiated on the PFD?

A

All characteristic speeds:

  • VLS
  • Vmax
  • Vfe
  • ALPHA MAX
  • ALPHA PROT
  • F Speed
  • S Speed
  • Speed trends
255
Q

Can the loudness of the aural alert and voice messages be controlled by the loudspeaker volume knob?

A

No

256
Q

With the TERR ON ND pb OFF, what happens if a terrain caution is generated?

A

Terrain data is automatically displayed on the ND and the ON light illuminates

257
Q

How can the pilot differentiate terrain from radar sweeps?

A

Terrain sweeps from the center outward

258
Q

Does EGPWS use radar signals to ground map terrain?

A

No, it uses a worldwide terrain database

259
Q

When do the passenger oxygen mask doors open automatically?

A

The cabin altitude exceeds 14,000’

260
Q

What is cockpit crew oxygen supplied by?

A

A single high pressure bottle

261
Q

What is the purpose of the CREW SUPPLY pb?

A

Controls the supply valve in the avionics bay

262
Q

What indications do we have on the ECAM when the CREW SUPPLY pb is off?

A

OXY in front of the oxygen pressure on the DOOR page is amber

263
Q

What is passenger oxygen supplied by?

A

A chemical generator system

264
Q

How long will the passenger oxygen system will provide a supply of oxygen?

A

13 minutes

15 minutes according to the Training Manual

265
Q

The cockpit crew oxygen masks provide what type of oxygen above 35,000’?

A

100% regardless of the position of the N/100% selector

266
Q

How can the passenger oxygen system be activated?

A
  • Automatically at 14,000’ cabin altitude

- Manually by pressing the MASK MAN ON pb

267
Q

What does the MASK MAN ON pb do?

A

It energizes the system and opens the doors

268
Q

When will the flow of oxygen begin for the passengers?

A

When the mask is pulled toward the seat

269
Q

When might a manual start be considered?

A

If an automatic start aborts due to low starter inlet air pressure

270
Q

If the ENG MAN START 1 pb is pressed, will the engine begin to motor?

A

No, the ENG MODE Selector must be set to either CRANK or IGN/START

271
Q

During a manual start of the #1 engine, does the ENG MAN START pb have to be pressed to close the start valve?

A

No, it closes automatically when N2 is ≥ 50%

272
Q

What are the five positions of the Thrust Levers?

A

TOGA, FLEX/MCT, CL, IDLE, and MAX REV

273
Q

How is AT usually activated on the ground?

A

By setting the Thrust Levers at the FLX or TOGA detent when the engines are running

274
Q

How is AT usually activated inflight?

A

By selecting the Thrust Levers to the CL detent

275
Q

How is activation of AT confirmed?

A

A/THR is displayed in white in column 5 of the FMA

276
Q

What is Thrust Lock?

A

Prevents thrust variations when the AT fails/disconnects

277
Q

What is Alpha Floor?

A

A protection that commands TOGA thrust regardless of thrust lever position

278
Q

What is TOGA Lock?

A

After the aircraft leaves Alpha Floor conditions, TOGA thrust is frozen and Thrust Lever movement has no effect until AT is disconnected

279
Q

What happens if the instinctive disconnect pbs are pushed and held for 15 seconds?

A

The AT system is disconnected for the remainder of the flight. There is no Alpha Floor protection

280
Q

What does the FAULT indication on the ENG panel mean?

A
  • Automatic start abort

- Fuel valve disagreement

281
Q

With the ENGINE MODE switch in NORM, when will ignition be provided?

A
  • CFM: Flameout and EIU failure

- IAE: Flameout, EIU failure, slats extended, Engine AI on

282
Q

What does the FADEC control?

A

The Full Authority Digital Engine Control controls start sequencing, fuel metering, and engine limits

283
Q

What happens if one FADEC fails?

A

The FADEC is dual channel so the other channel will provide full authority for all engine functions

A319/320/321 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions