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Citation X Systems > Systems > Flashcards

Systems Flashcards

1
Q

Length

A

72.33 feet

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2
Q

Height

A

18.97 feet

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3
Q

Wing span

A

63.45 feet

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4
Q

Horizontal Stab Span

A

26.09

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5
Q

Wheel Base (main to nose gear)

A

28.67

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6
Q

Oil capacities

A

13 quarts (system)
8 quarts (tank)

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7
Q

Oil capacity (APU)

A

2 quarts

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8
Q

Oil Capacity (ACM)

A

3.4 ounces

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9
Q

Fuel Capacity (pounds)

A

13000 pounds

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10
Q

Oxygen Capacity

(50 cubic foot bottle and 76 cubic foot bottle)

A

50…..1285 liters
76…..1977 liters

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11
Q

Hyd fluid reservoir

A

1.75 gallons

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12
Q

Engines

A

Allison AE 3007C-1

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13
Q

Engine thrust

A

6764 pounds

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14
Q

Bypass ratio

A

5:1

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15
Q

Maximum altitude limit (takeoff and landing)

A

14000 feet

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16
Q

Max tailwind component

A

10 knots

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17
Q

Max xwind component

  1. Manual flight controls
  2. Slats asymmetry
A
  1. 10 knots
  2. 10 knots
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18
Q

Max altitude for inflight use of speedbrakes

A

500 feet

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19
Q
  1. Max asymmetric fuel
  2. Emergency asymmetric fuel
A
  1. 400 pounds
  2. 800 pounds
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20
Q

Minimum wing fuel per tank for takeoff

A

500 pounds

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21
Q

Takeoff in high idle mode is prohibited:

A

Except for touch and goes

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22
Q

Max design ramp weight

A

36,400

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23
Q

Max takeoff weight

A

36,100

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24
Q

Max landing weight

A

31,800

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25
Q

Zero fuel weight

A

24,000

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26
Q

Takeoff weight is limited by the most restrictive of the following requirements:

A

36,100

Climb requirements (takeoff and landing performance charts section 4 AFM)

Takeoff field length (takeoff and landing performance charts section 4 AFM)

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27
Q

Landing weight is limited by the most restrictive of the following requirements:

A

31,800

Max landing by climb requirements or:

Brake energy (takeoff and landing performance charts section 4 AFM)

Landing distance (takeoff and landing performance charts section 4 AFM)

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28
Q

FADEC

A

All four must be operative for takeoff

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29
Q

Air Data Computers

A

Both must be operational for takeoff

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30
Q

Min start duct pressure prior to ground start

A

25 psi

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31
Q

Engine starting limits

Takeoff Max continuous

Cruise

A

800 degrees

907 degrees (5 minutes)

857 degrees (10 minutes)

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32
Q

Max oil temperature

A

127 degrees

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33
Q

FADEC automatic over speed shutdowns

A

105% N1
105.6% N2
Dual FADEC failure
Loss of CVG control

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34
Q

Min fan speed for takeoff

A

73.6% N1

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35
Q

The FADEC will automatically shut down the engine at

A

54% N2 or below

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36
Q

Windmilling air start ITT limit

A

888 degrees Celsius

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37
Q

Approved Fuels

A

Jet A, Jet A-1, Jet B, JP4, JP5, JP8

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38
Q

Min fuel temp for start (tank)

Max fuel temp for start (tank)

A

-37

+52

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39
Q

Min fuel temperature (engine) engine operating

Max fuel temperature (engine) engine operating

A

+4 C

98.9 C

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40
Q

Max altitude

A

51,000 feet

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41
Q

Center tank to wing transfer must be initiated…

A

Prior to 3100 pounds per side wing fuel.

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42
Q

Max fuel imbalance

Emergency

A

400 pounds

800 pounds

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43
Q

Approved hydraulic fluids

A

Skydrol

Hyjet IVA plus

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44
Q

Ground pneumatic cart limitation

A

30 psi

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45
Q

Max weight baggage compartment

A

700 pounds

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46
Q

Max weight ski tube

A

75 pounds

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47
Q

Generator limitations

A

400 amps < FL 410

300 amps > FL410

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48
Q

Cockpit and cabin pac selector switches

Operation in high mode not approved for

A

Takeoff and landing

Above FL450

When any bleed air anti icing switch is on

Above FL250 if single source and the isolation valve is open

Single pac operation above FL410 is prohibited

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49
Q

Battery cycle limitation

A

6 apu starts per hour

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50
Q

O2 system

A

Aviator’s breathing oxygen only

The use of medical oxygen is not approved

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51
Q

PFD data must be displayed

A

In the number 1 and 5 units only for dispatch

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52
Q

Autopilot min use height

A

1000’ AGL cruise flight

400’ AGL nonprecision approach

170’ AGL precision approach

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53
Q

ILS approaches using autopilot is prohibited…

A

With flaps up

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54
Q

Autopilot use with single IRS…

A

Is prohibited

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55
Q

Oxygen mask certification

Crew oxygen masks

Passenger oxygen masks

A

Crew: not approved for use above a cabin altitude of 40,000 feet.

Passenger: not approved for use above a cabin altitude of 25,000 feet.

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56
Q

At what cold temps should the batteries be removed?

A

Below -20c

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57
Q

Can you takeoff with an inoperable battery temperature warning system?

A

No. What else would the answer be?

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58
Q

What may occur if a battery limitation is exceeded?

A

A deep cycle, including a capacity check may be required to detect possible cell damage.

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59
Q

When is a battery cycle not counted during start?

A

If using a GPU to start the APU

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60
Q

Cockpit and cabin temp selector switches

Operation in high mode is not approved

A

During takeoff

Landing

Above 450

When any bleed air anti ice system is being used

Above 250 while single source and isolation valve is open.

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61
Q

During which operations is high mode approved?

A

During emergency operations, high mode is approved when the bleed air anti ice systems are on. But anti ice systems will be degraded.

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62
Q

When is single pac operation prohibited?

A

Above FL 410.

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63
Q

Autopilot minimum use height.

Cruise

Precision approach

Non precision approach

A

1000’ agl

170’ agl

400’ agl

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64
Q

What are the two times that autopilot usage is prohibited?

A

When flying with a single IRS or AHRS

While shooting an ILS with flaps up

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65
Q

Max operating Mach (MMO)

(above 30,650)

Mach trim off

A

Mach .92

Mach .82

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66
Q

Max operating knots (VMO)

8000 Up to 30,650

Below 8000

A

350 knots

270 knots

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67
Q

Max altitude for extension of flaps and landing gear.

A

FL 180

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68
Q

Max slat extended speed

A

250

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69
Q

Max flap extended speed

5

15

Full

A

250 knots

210 knots

180 knots

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70
Q

Max landing gear operating speed

A

210 knots

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71
Q

Max turbulent air penetration speed

A

300/.90

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72
Q

Max speed brake extension speed

A

No limit

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73
Q

Min speed brake extension speed

A

Vref+15

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74
Q

Min SE enroute climb speed

A

190 knots

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75
Q

Max tire ground speed

A

210 knots

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76
Q

Nose tire limitation

A

Only Goodyear tires are approved.

Must be inflated to 135 +/- 5 PSI unloaded.

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77
Q

Maximum operating altitude

A

51,000 feet

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78
Q

Engine air turbine starter limitation

A

3 consecutive starts followed by a 25 minute cool down.

One thirty second motoring equals one normal start.

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79
Q

No intentional stalls permitted above

A

FL 180

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80
Q

Load factor

Flaps up (retracted)

Flaps up (extended)

Flaps 5 degrees to full position (slats extended)

A

-1 to 2.7 G at 36,100 pounds

0.0 to +2 g at 36,100 pounds

0.0 to +2 g at 36,100 pounds

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81
Q

Max duration zero to negative G

A

10 seconds

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82
Q

Landing

A

+3.5 G at 31,800 pounds

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83
Q

Normal cabin pressure limitation

A

9.7 psi max diff

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84
Q

Cracked windshield

A

If only the outer ply (non structural) of the windshield is cracked, flight to a Mx base is permitted.

If either structural ply is cracked, restricted flight only on a ferry permit is permitted.

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85
Q

Min speed/configuration for sustained flight in icing conditions

A

200 knots/slats up. Except for approach/landing.

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86
Q

Do not apply external deicing fluid

A

When the APU is operating

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87
Q

Engine sync limitation

A

Prohibited during takeoff, landing, SE ops, FADEC/ADC/N1 reversionary.

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88
Q

When must the pulselight system be off and remain off?

A

During night ground and flight operations. Taxi, takeoff, and landing approach at 300’ and below.

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89
Q

The A/B Hydraulic systems may not be intentionally unloaded

A

Above 15,000 feet MSL.

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90
Q

Thrust reverser limitations

A

Restricted to ground ops on paved surfaces only.

Prohibited during touch and go landings.

Maximum reverse thrust limited to 75% N1 (TLA 46 degrees).

Reduced to idle at 60 knots (by 70 knots when single engine reversing, or when on slippery runway or NWS inoperative).

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91
Q

How many static wicks on the airplane?

How many can be missing?

A

18 total.

No more than two can be missing. There cannot be two adjacent static wicks missing at any one time.

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92
Q

Engine type

Thrust

A

Allison AE 3007 C-1

6764 pounds of thrust

High bypass ratio, two spool, axial flow turbofan engine

3 stage low pressure turbine

2 stage high pressure turbine

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93
Q

Engine bypass ratio

A

5:1

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94
Q

What do the PMA’s power?

A

Igniters (PMA is the only source of power for the ignition exciters).

FADECS until the PMA’s get up to adequate speed to generate sufficient electrical power. (Until 50% N2).

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95
Q

How will the FADECS schedule N1 thrust if both ADC’s become invalid?

A

The FADECS will use engine internal temperature and pressure to schedule thrust N1.

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96
Q

When will Engine Synch automatically shutoff?

A

During engine failure or when the throttle lever split exceeds 4 degrees.

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97
Q

In case of loss of 28V DC power or FADEC failure, what happens to the igniters?

A

The ignition is designed to fail safe (ignition automatically turns on). (Normally closed or energized open).

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98
Q

Ballast Fuel

A

Ballast fuel remains within the wing fuel tanks and cannot be used without causing the aft center of gravity limit to be exceeded.

Ballast fuel is unusable fuel.

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99
Q

Minimum control speed in the air (VMCA)

Flaps 5

Flaps 15

A

118 kts

110 kts

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100
Q

Minimum control speed during landing approach (VMCL)

Flaps 15

Full flaps

A

113 kts

106 kts

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101
Q

Minimum control speed on the ground (VMCG)

A

109 kts

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102
Q

Max voltage of DC system

A

28.5 vdc

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103
Q

Generator limitation

To 410

Above 410

A

400 amps

300 amps

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104
Q

Yaw dampener channels operational for dispatch?

A

BOTH upper and EITHER lower yaw dampener channels must be operational for dispatch.

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105
Q

Max refueling pressure

Max defueling pressure

A

55 psi

-10 psi

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106
Q

Fuel transfer/cross feed limitations

A

Simultaneous use of cross feed and center to wing transfer is prohibited when the wing fuel quantity is 2900 pounds or less per side. Fuel imbalance will result.

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107
Q

Can engine oils be mixed?

A

No. Only when an engine is new or overhauled.

Or using the “topoff” method.

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108
Q

Approved hydraulic fluids

A

Skydrol

Hyjet

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109
Q

APU

Max operating altitude

A

31,000 feet

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110
Q

APU maximum starting altitude/speeds

A

300 knots or less…31,000 feet

Up to 350 knots…20,000 feet

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111
Q

APU Max gen load

A

300 amps ground

200 amps flight

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112
Q

APU Starter duty cycle

A

Six consecutive APU starts per hour

Unsuccessful start attempts:

BATTERY:

Two cycles. 30 seconds on, 30 minutes off. Two cycles. 30 seconds on, 1 hour off.

GENERATOR/GPU:

Two cycles. 15 seconds on, 20 minutes off. Two cycles. 15 seconds on, 1 hour off.

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113
Q

When do icing conditions exist?

A

+10c or below in visible moisture.

Also, +10c or below operating on ramps or taxiways where snow, ice, standing water or slush can be ingested by or freeze on the engines.

114
Q

Maximum SAT for operation of bleed air

A

+20c. (Except for preflight checks)

115
Q

Minimum speed for sustained flight in icing conditions

A

200 kts slats up. Except for approach and landing.

Holding or extended flight in icing conditions with the slats extended is prohibited.

116
Q

Nosewheel steering circumference limits/capabilities

A

Rudder pedals…+/- 12 degrees

Tiller…+/- 80 degrees

Rudder and tiller together…+/- 92 degrees

117
Q

Max altitude with baggage compartment unpressurized

A

FL 410

Use of baggage compartment not authorized with cabin unpressurized

118
Q

When does the YSAS become active?

A

The upper rudder is electric. The YSAS reacts when the flap handle is moved out of up.

119
Q

What prevents free fall of the main cabin door when opening?

A

A counterbalance mechanism.

120
Q

Where does the APU receive its fuel from?

A

Left wing tank hopper pressurized by the left fuel boost pump.

121
Q

How to balance the fuel if necessary while operating the APU?

A

Crossfeed from the right, left boost pump off.

122
Q

Name some things the ECB will shut the APU down for.

A

Overcurrent
Overtemperature

123
Q

Indications when pressing the APU test button

A

APU FIRE
APU FAIL
APU RELAY ENGAGED
BLEED VLV OPEN
READY TO LOAD

124
Q

List the items located in the IAC

A

Fault warning computer
FMS
Flight guidance computer
Symbol generator
Bus controller

125
Q

How do you revert the PFD to the MFD should the unit fail?

A

The PFD dim knob.

126
Q

The IRS reversion switch

A

Allows the sharing of IRS data between PFD’s.

127
Q

Which displays can the EICAS be reverted to?

A

DU 2 or DU 4

128
Q

The DAU’s

A

Are the collection centers for all sensors and it sends the appropriate data to the IAC’s.

129
Q

What powers the SRU (Standby Radio Unit)?

A

During emergency operation, the SRU and NAV/COM 1 operate on DC power from the Left EMER Bus.

130
Q

While powering down the aircraft, why do we leave the stby power on until the IRS ALIGN annunciator extinguishes?

A

This allows the IRU to place the position in memory.

131
Q

What powers the standby HSI?

A

28 VDC from the Emergency Bus

132
Q

What powers the standby engine instruments?

A

The emergency bus.

133
Q

Some differences that non-split aircraft have?

A

Load shed switch and capability

Crossfeed bus

Current limiters (The L&R main generator buses are connected to the crossfeed bus by 275 amp current limiters.)

Load sharing

The APU Generator connects to the crossfeed bus

134
Q

Battery endurance with load shed override selected and generators offline?

A

Less than 30 minutes

135
Q

With load shed switch in NORM when will the isolation relay open?

A

Approximately 70 seconds after the last generator goes offline

136
Q

What does the O’RIDE position do?

A

Disables the automatic load shed feature. This essentially gives the pilots a short time to prepare, before switching to EMER. During this time the batteries will be powering all buses and not gettting charged.

137
Q

What does the EMER position do (load shed switch)?

A

Separates the emergency bus from the main/crossfeed buses, and only the batteries will be powering the emergency bus. Batteries will not be getting charged.

138
Q

Name some important items that the LOAD SHED switch in EMER will power for 30 minutes

A

Both rudder limiters
Both audio panels
Comm 1/nav 1
RMU
A AUX Pump
All trims
Engine fire detect/extinguishers
Landing gear control and indicators

139
Q

All sources of DC power are connected to the entire electrical system through the crossfeed bus (non split). What are other important buses connected to the crossfeed bus?

A

Cabin bus, EICAS bus and the standby instrument bus.

140
Q

Generator amp additional amperage time

A

Each generator has the capacity to output additional amperage for a limited time. (150% for 5 minutes and 200% for 20 seconds).

141
Q

GCU functions

A

Regulates non split system to 28.5 volts

Feeder fault protection

Over voltage, reverse current and overload protection

142
Q

Battery type

A

24 volt, 44 amp/hour Nicad or lead acid.

Connected directly to the L and R battery buses.

143
Q

Min voltage to start the APU

A

22 volts

144
Q

Minimum voltage to close the battery contactor

A

18 volts

145
Q

What powers the standby instruments during emergency operations?

How is it normally charged?

A

A 2.5 stby battery pack supplies power.

Charged during normal operation by the R Main Bus.

146
Q

Where are the volts and amps of the generators read?

What does the LED side panel read?

A

EICAS

Indicated battery condition. It indicates total electrical system voltage and the rate of charge or discharge of the batteries.

147
Q

GPU should be limited to

A

28 volts/1000 amps

148
Q

Are batteries being charged while on GPU?

A

Yes. Whenever the batteries switched on.

  • must be charged together
  • batt voltage must be 23 volts or less
  • air temp less than 100F
  • max four hours of charging
149
Q

What will happen after landing if the crosstie remains open and not checked closed?

A

If the crosstie is open, the left battery will discharge after shutting the left engine down.

150
Q

The AC Electrical system consists of

A

Two AC alternators and PCU for windshield heat

Four static inverters for EL and fluorescent lighting

151
Q

What does it mean when the amber light next to the EMER LT switch is illuminated?

A

When the aircraft power is on and the emergency lighting system is in the off position.

152
Q

Which part of the engine does the primary source of pressurization/environmental system air come from?

A

8th stage (low pressure)

14th stage (high pressure)

153
Q

HP air is used for

A

Pressurization, air conditioning, anti icing, engine starting and service air.

154
Q

LP bleed air is used for

A

Pressurization, air conditioning, and anti ice during takeoff.

155
Q

Low pressure bleed air regulator valve

A

This valve is located in the tailcone and provides pressure regulation at 45 +/- 5 psi.

156
Q

HP/LP Crossover valve

A

Solenoid operated and located in the tailcone, are normally closed, sending LP bleed air to the PACs. When open, HP bleed air is sent to the PACs.

157
Q

Service Air

A

Door seals, baggage heat, and vacuum ejector pump.

158
Q

Bleed air from the APU is used for

A

Pressurization, AC, starting engines, and service air. It does not connect to the anti icing ducts.

159
Q

The ISOL valve is normally in the closed position…

A

…allowing air only from the left engine to go to the Cockpit PAC and air from the right engine to supply the Cabin Pac.

160
Q

PAC Bleed Select Switch (during normal operation)

A

In NORM position, the valves are closed, sending LP bleed air to the PACs.

In NORM position, the airplane decides whether to open the valve(s) to ensure adequate bleed air for PACs for pressurization and anti ice.

Based on WOW logic, TLA, and anti ice switch position.

161
Q

PAC Bleed Select Switch (switch in LP)

A

Only LP air going to PACs.

162
Q

What is the guarded Isolation valve for?

A

When closed (via the guarded switch), the,solenoid valve will also close, terminating any oxygen supply to the baggage compartment.

163
Q

What shuts down the PAC in case of an overheat?

How would you resume air back to the PAC?

A

The bilevel control valve.

The appropriate CKPT/CAB PAC switch must be turned off and then back on.

164
Q

Why must the CKPT and CABIN temp selectors be in the AUTO mode when electrical power is initially applied?

A

The controller will not properly complete its automatic power up checks.

165
Q

What will close the isolation valve?

A

1 PSI difference between the baggage area and the cabin.

Baggage altitude approximately 14,000 feet.

Loss of electrical power.

Closing the isol valve guarded switch.

166
Q

What will the cabin pressure climb to when actuating the Cabin Dump switch?

A

13,500 +/- 500 ft.

*No cabin dump available when main DC power is lost (only EMER BUS power available), or the MANUAL/NORM switch is MANUAL.

167
Q

Depressing the ENG FIRE Light

A

Closes the fuel and hydraulic shutoff valves

Trips the generator and TR isolation valve

Arms both fire bottles

Sends signal to FADEC to shutdown the engine

*the bottles are charged with bromotriofluormethane

168
Q

Which flight control surfaces utilize PCU’s?

A

Ailerons, elevators, and lower rudder use two PCU’s for each surface.

169
Q

How are the inboard and outboard speed brakes powered?

A

The outboard panel of the speed brakes is powered by the A system, while the TWO INBOARD are powered by the B system.

170
Q

Who has control of what when the pitch/roll disconnect handle is pulled?

A

Pilot; left elevator and ailerons.

Co-pilot; right elevator and roll spoilers.

171
Q

How do the pitch feel units work?

A

The pitch feel units are fed information by the ADC’s. They generate a feel force pattern in relation to the airplane speed and the elevator position.

172
Q

What happens to the roll spoilers in the event of a total hydraulic loss?

The ailerons?

A

The spoilers are blown down and hydraulically latched from floating up.

The ailerons will go into manual reversion mode, allowing the crew to use the control wheels.

173
Q

How does the rudder limiter work?

A

As a function of airspeed. At low air speeds it allows full rudder travel. At higher air speeds, the lower rudder will be limited in travel to a variable percentage of maximum deflection.

174
Q

When will the amber SPEED BRAKES CAS message appear?

A

Anytime the RA is below 500’ AGL and the speed brakes are extended.

When speed brakes are asymmetrical.

175
Q

How many fuel pumps in the X?

A

Two engine-driven

Two motive flow pumps

Two electric boost pumps

Two primary ejector pumps

Two center-to-wing ejector pumps

Two wing-to-hopper scavenger ejector pumps

176
Q

When do the fuel boost pumps come on automatically in the NORM position?

A

Low fuel pressure (less than 9 psi)

Engine starting

Selecting crossfeed

APU in operation (left engine not running)

177
Q

When does FUEL LEVEL LOW L/R message come on?

A

Wing tank levels below 500 pounds.

178
Q

WING TANK O’FULL L/R

A

Alerts the crew of a fuel transfer system malfunction.

179
Q

How many fuel magnetic indicators (dipsticks) are there?

A

Four.

They provide a mechanical means of calculating fuel levels while on the ground.

180
Q

Hydraulic unload switches.

NORM Mode:

UNLOAD Position of switch:

A

NORM: The relief valve will automatically depressurize the system if a pressure of 3750 psi is reached.

UNLOAD: The unload valve is opened and system pressure is released.

181
Q

Max containable pressure of the hydraulic system?

A

3750 psi. A backup pressure regulating valve will try to maintain 3400ish psi.

If pressures continue to rise then the resulting heat buildup will trigger the HYD O’TEMP A or B message.

182
Q

When does the PTU normally activate?

Deactivate?

A

When A system pressure drops approximately 1600 psi.

Deactivates at approximately 2700 psi.

183
Q

What is the only way to remove power from the PTU Controller?

A

By pulling the HYDR B/PTU CONT circuit breaker.

184
Q

Which surfaces utilize bleed air for anti-ice?

A

Leading edges, including landing lights

Slats

Nacelle inlets

Horizontal stab

185
Q

DC electrical powers the following:

A

RAT Probes

P/S Probes

AOA Probes

Wing Cuff Heater (wing root)

Coffee and Lavatory Drains

Switches,valves, and controls associated with the anti-ice system

186
Q

What happens to the wing and horizontal stab anti-ice valves with the loss of electrical power?

A

All four valves will open with the loss of electrical power.

187
Q

Bleed air anti ice systems:

High pressure (14th stage bleed air) is used for?

Low pressure (8th stage bleed air)?

A

Inflight anti ice

On ground anti ice during takeoff and TLA greater than 32 degrees

188
Q

Will the anti ice system shut down in the event of a STAB BLD LEAK L or R?

A

No. Pilot action is required.

189
Q

Will the stab anti ice system shut down with STAB A/I HOT L or R?

A

Yes. System logic will close the anti ice valves. It will cause a cycling effect when the system cools and subsequently heats up again.

190
Q

Which power setting will automatically turn off the stab and slat anti ice?

A

Below 48% N1.

191
Q

The engine anti ice valves….

A

Are powered to the closed position. With the engine 88 switches in the on position, power is removed from the valves and they move to the open position. With the engine anti-ice switch is in the off position the engine nacelle regulating and shut off valves will be electrically powered closed regardless of throttle position and engine anti ice will be turned off.

192
Q

How to check operation of the engine anti ice system?

A

By observing ITT rise and fan decrease.

193
Q

How is the wing root powered?

A

Anytime the engine anti-ice is on the respective wing root area (or cuff) will also be anti-iced electrically

194
Q

Which switch controls the heaters for the STBY pitot tube?

A

RH PITOT/STATIC ANTI-ICE SWITCH

195
Q

To heat the RAT probe on the ground, the following must be on:

A

BATT Switches
Avionics switch
L-R PITOT/STATIC Switches
Rotary test switch must be selected to windshield heat

196
Q

How to check the heating elements of the pipe and drain mast for the galley and aft lavatory sink fluid drain?

A

Place battery switches on and check tubes on underside of aircraft for heat

197
Q

During gear retraction, what stops the wheels from spinning in the wheel wells?

A

A brake metering valve.

198
Q

What causes the O2 masks to free-fall in the cabin?

A

Oxygen pressure in the lines, actuating a plunger, which opens the doors, allowing them to free-fall.

199
Q

Will the pilot still have throttle control in the event of a TLA failure?

A

Yes. FADEC will continue metering fuel at the last directed thrust rate until the pilot places the throttle in CUTOFF.

200
Q

The FADECS limit fuel during reverser operations to…

A

Approximately 70% N1.

201
Q

When does the Amber ARM annunciator illuminate when deploying TR?

A

When 300 psi or more is sensed in the isolation valve.

202
Q

The affect a TLA failure has on an engine?

A

The engine thrust will fixed at the last known TLA position.

203
Q

MMV FAIL CAS MSG options?

A

The throttle can be placed into cutoff.

204
Q

Why is it not permitted to takeoff with a fan setting below 73.56% N1?

A

The fan damage logic won’t function below that rpm setting.

205
Q

What functions does the PMA provide on the engine?

A

It is the sole source of power for the ignition at N2 speeds > 13% and powers the FADECS above 50% N2.

206
Q

Which systems alternate their respective control functions on succeeding engine starts?

A

The FADECS and ignition channels.

207
Q

What conditions would cause both engines to energize?

A

Auto relights and air starts.

208
Q

What are the two reversionary modes associated with the FADECS?

A

ADC and N1 reversionary modes.

209
Q

What will result if the FADECS lose control of the ignition relay?

A

The ignition will fail ON and can’t be de-energized.

210
Q

How would you know if the controlling FADEC is also determining the target setting for the N1 bug?

A

The blue target bug for the N1 tape will turn amber.

211
Q

FADEC metering back without shutting down conditions?

A

ITT Exceeding 888

Greater than 100% N1 or 101% N2.

212
Q

When are the blue N1 target bugs referenced to max power no matter what the TLA position?

A

When the gear are down.

213
Q

OIL LEVEL LOW CAS?

A

8 quarts low.

214
Q

What does an amber FADEC BUS FAIL L-R CAS message signify?

A

A FADEC has lost the ability to communicate through the CCDL with the other FADEC.

215
Q

If a FADEC is operating in ADC reversionary mode, how does the FADEC obtain temperature and pressure data?

A

It used data from the T2.5 and P2.5 sensors.

216
Q

What would result if a throttle were placed out of cutoff and the start button depressed?

A

The start sequence would occur normally.

217
Q

FUEL XFEED OPEN CAS?

A

While cross feeding a tank imbalance of 50 lbs or greater in opposite tank.

218
Q

FUEL MOTV FAIL L-R?

A

The opposite side motive flow valve has failed to close during cross feed operations and cross feed capability is in question. You can use the gravity cross flow to balance the tanks.

219
Q

What effect, if any, would occur on the fuel system if crew were forced to revert to emergency bus only operation?

A

The gravity cross flow and fuel cross feed functions would not be available.

220
Q

Why should the gravity cross flow valve be closed during refueling?

A

It will prevent the possibility of pressurizing an already full wing tank, should the opposite wing still be receiving fuel, which could force fuel overboard.

221
Q

What compensations are applied to obtain accurate fuel quantity displays?

A

The fuel quantity is compensated for temperature and aircraft attitude using the IRS’s.

222
Q

FUEL LEVEL LOW L-R?

A

When fuel level drops to 500 pounds or less in the associated tank.

223
Q

What function do the low level switches in the wing tanks provide?

A

Besides indicating 500 pounds fuel remaining in the wing tank, the switch will signal the fuel system to close the center tank transfer valves if the center tank transfer switches are set to NORMAL. 

224
Q

When is fuel transferred from the center take to the main wing tanks?

A

Fuel will move from the center tank once the wing tank level drops between 3250 and 3500 pounds.

225
Q

During single point refueling in what sequence are the wing and center tanks filled and why?

A

The wing tanks are filled first then the center tank is filled. This prevents excessive stress on the wing spars.

226
Q

What is heated when the slat anti-ice switch is turned on?

A

The wing fixed leading edge, and the slats. 

227
Q

What must be done to override the WOW logic and allow the RAT heat to be checked during the walk around?

A

You place the rotary switch in the windshield, temp position and turn on the windshield heat switches. The left and right WSHLD HEAT INOP lights and the WSHLD O’TEMP CAS messages should appear with the o’temp message extinguishing after a few seconds.

228
Q

Which electrical anti-systems are on WOW logic?

A

The rat probes and both wing cuffs.

229
Q

What function does the O’RIDE position provide on the windshield heat switch?

A

The panels are brought up to correct temperature over a shorter period of time.

230
Q

While operating with emergency bus power, only, what electrical anti-systems will still function?

A

The standby pitot
static heat, and the left windshield heat controller.

231
Q

Name the five anti-systems on the CX.

A

Engine inlets, inboard wing area (cuff) slats, horizontal stabilizer, pitot static, windshields.

232
Q

What risks are present when flying at low air speeds or with flaps or slats extended?

A

This can result in ice building on the underside of the wings and horizontal tail aft of the areas protected by the leading edge anti ice systems.

233
Q

How does the anti-ice system function when an overheat condition exists?

A

The affected system will shut down, and after cooling the system would turn back on.

234
Q

If a wing bleed leak occurs, an amber WING BLD LEAK L-R CAS message will appear. What effect does this have on the effective anti-system?

A

The affected systems, anti-ice valve will close and remain closed and contain the bleed leak.

235
Q

What would cause an amber WING A/I COLD L-R message to downgrade to a cyan one?

A

If there is an active bleed leak condition.

236
Q

Why is a STAB BLD LEAK L-R CAS message red, while a WING BLD LEAK L-R message amber?

A

The wing bleed leak will automatically shut the effective system down while the stab system will not shut down on its own, but require immediate crew action. 

237
Q

What effect would the loss of the left engine have on the windshield heat system?

A

The pilots windshield heat controller would be lost thus causing the Pilots outboard windshield panels and the copilots, inner panel and side forward glass to lose anti-ice protection. 

238
Q

During the APU start sequence, the power to the APU starter is coming from which bus?

A

The Emergency Bus

239
Q

How many minutes of EMERGENCY power if on EMER only power?

A

60 mins/split bus

30 mins/non-split bus

240
Q

Which bus is powered when an EPU is connected to the split-bus system?

A

The R Main Bus

241
Q

Items powered by the STBY Battery Pack?

A

STBY GYRO, Altimeter Vibrator, STBY Engine Instruments, Lighting for STBY Instruments

242
Q

Which bus powers the STBY instruments in the non-split?

A

Cross feed bus

243
Q

Following a dual generator failure, what’s does the isolation relay do on a non-split?

A

It automatically opens after 70 seconds.

244
Q

What does an amber CROSSTIE CLOSED message indicate?

A

The crosstie relay is closed in flight with both generators online. On the ground, it will activate a MASTER WARNING light and single chime when throttles are advanced for takeoff.

245
Q

While flying, the active “A” FGC channel fails. What should the crew expect to happen in this situation?

A

The system automatically switches to the “B” channel.

246
Q

How is the pitch/roll disconnect handle reset to the normal position after being extended?

A

The handle is turned to the 9 o’clock position and pushed down. It is then rotated back to the 3 o’clock position. 

247
Q

Why is it important to pull the HYD B/PTU CB following a complete loss of hydraulic fluid from the A system?

A

Without any resistance to work against the PTU will overheat the hydraulics in the B hydraulic system and result in a dual hydraulic failure.

248
Q

What systems are on the “B” hydraulic system?

A

Inboard roll spoilers, inboard, speedbrakes, slats, ailerons, lower rudder, elevators, and right thrust reverser.

249
Q

What conditions will trigger the gear warning horn?

A

If any gear is not down and locked, while the flaps are beyond 24° or both throttles are less than 30° and radar altitude less than 500 feet or radio altimeter is not valid. 

250
Q

Is it necessary to apply the brakes when retracting the landing gear?

A

No. The break metering valve applies pressure to slow the wheels.

251
Q

How is the landing gear held down after the extension process is complete?

A

Mechanical downlock mechanisms, using a locking ring within the actuators and hydraulic fluid, trapped in extend line.

252
Q

If one or more of the landing gear will not retract in the wheel wells, what is the recommended number of cycle attempts to get the gear to fully retract? 

A

Zero. If the gear doesn’t lock up on the first attempt put them down and land. 

253
Q

At what point will the red unlock light extinguish with gear operation?

A

After all three up-lock switches have made contact or all three down-lock plunger switches make contact indicating the mechanical locking rings are in place. 

254
Q

If the aircraft is being operated in an emergency bus condition, what will be necessary to lower or raise the landing gear?

A

The landing gear is on the emergency bus system and will operate normally.

255
Q

What is capital LP bleed air used for?

A

To run the PAC’s and during takeoff when anti ice is selected on.

256
Q

What is the one pneumatic system that the APU and huffer cart bleed air cannot supply?

A

Anti ice

257
Q

Name the two conditions that would automatically close the HP FWSOV to close even if in the LP/HP position.

A

On the takeoff roll (TLA >32) when any bleed anti ice system is selected on, and the second is when a HP duct over pressure condition exists.

258
Q

What is service air used for?

A

Pressurization control,baggage heat, acoustic seal, primary door, seal, baggage door seal, RAT, aspiration, baggage, isolation valve control.

259
Q

Name the two bleed air sources on the engine and their use.

A

8th stage air for LP bleed air to be used for the PACs. 14th stage HP air for use in anti ice systems and to supplement LP air in the PACs.

260
Q

Name the three conditions that will automatically isolate the baggage area.

A

Loss of main DC power. 1.0 PSI difference. Baggage altitude reaching 14,500 feet.

261
Q

What occurs if the ISO VLV switch is actuated?

A

The HP service air for heat closes. Loss of cabin air into the baggage area, and the electric fan shuts off.

262
Q

I hat are the two purposes of the electric circulating fan?

A

Provide cooling air for the aft radio rack, and is part of the smoke detection system.

263
Q

EDM Mode?

A

Cabin >14,500, Ambient >FL300, AP on. The plane will descend to 15,000 feet with a 90 degree turn to the left.

264
Q

Cabin altitude limiter?

A

14,500’

265
Q

Amber “CABIN ALTITUDE”
Red “CABIN ALTITUDE”

A

8500’
10000’

266
Q

How can the cabin be dumped while operating in manual mode?

A

By placing the manual rate knob to MAX, and holding the cherry picker in UP.

267
Q

Automatic pax oxygen masks drop at what cabin altitude?

A

14,500

268
Q

What action must be taken if the oxygen system pressure is discharged?

A

The bottle must be purged, due to contaminants being drawn into the regulator and/or tank.

269
Q

What must be done by the pax before oxygen is allowed to flow through a pax mask?

A

The lanyard must be pulled to remove the pintle pin for that mask.

270
Q

Above what altitude does the EROS mask ensure the wearer has 100% oxygen flow?

A

Cabin altitudes above FL300

271
Q

Above what cabin altitude will the EROS mask automatically switch to pressure breathing?

A

Above FL370

272
Q

While testing the mask the blinker goes from yellow to black. What does this indicate?

What if it stays yellow?

A

The mask has a leak- free regulator.

A leak is present and must be corrected before flight.

273
Q

What his meant by the terms A, B, and C fires?

A

A: Ordinary combustibles such as wood, paper, etc.

B: flammable liquids.

C: electrical.

274
Q

What class fires are the portable extinguishers suitable for use?

A

A,B, and C fires.

275
Q

Red X in the CAS window?

A

FWC 1 has failed.

276
Q

How can FWC 2 messages be displayed if FWC 1 has failed?

A

By switching the SG Reversion switch from NORM to SG2.

277
Q

TOPI

A

Out at 400’ or 25 seconds.

278
Q

LOPI

A

200 knots/50 knots

279
Q

Failed ADC displayed on the PFD?

A

Red X’s on the airspeed and altimeter tapes, red “VS” text in a red box on VSI display.

280
Q

What would be an indication of the loss of both bus controllers?

A

All 5 DUs would be black.

281
Q

How can a PFD be regained if DU1 or DU5 go blank?

A

By turning the PFD dimmer knob all the way to its detent position. It now displays on the same side MFD.

282
Q

How can the FSBY mode on the radar be overridden during ground operations?

A

By pressing the STAB button 4 times in 3 seconds. The promise 870 uses the two range keys by pressing both down simultaneously for three seconds.

Citation X Systems (1 decks)

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