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Lights and Switches > Systems > Flashcards

Systems Flashcards

From James' Audio

1
Q

When does the ON BAT light come on?

A
  • Comes on as self test

- one or more IR are on BAT (external horn also sounds)

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2
Q

If they are being powered by the batteries, how long do you have to recover the electrical system?

A

5 Minutes

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3
Q

What happens after the 5 minutes?

A

A couple will drop, the ones the CA is not using, typically IR 2 and 3

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4
Q

What happens if the CA is using IR 3 or he selected #3 on the ATT/HDG panel?

A

IR 1 and 2 will drop instead

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5
Q

What happens when you have a steady FAULT light on the IR panel?

A

The gyro has tumbled and is no longer good for anything (ATT, HDG, or NAV)

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6
Q

What happened if IR is flashing FAULT?

A
  • ATT and HDG may be recovered using ATT mode

- You would have to select out of NAV and put it in ATT and give it a position

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7
Q

What does it mean if all 3 ALIGN lights are white?

A

The system is in the alignment process which takes 10 minutes

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8
Q

What does it mean if all 3 ALIGN lights are flashing? (3 things)

A

a. There hasn’t been a position entered in the last 10 minutes
b. Bad position – 1˚ or 60 miles difference between shutdown and entered
c. There is a FAULT (AC was significantly moved during the alignment process)

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9
Q

What does the ADR FAULT light indicate?

A

Pitot static system on that side has been lost

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10
Q

How do you fix that?

A

Put the CA or FO on AIR DATA #3, the backup

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11
Q

What is ELAC?

A

Elevator Aileron Computer

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12
Q

What’s the primary computer for the ailerons?

A

ELAC 1

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13
Q

What’s the primary computer for the elevator?

A

ELAC 2

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14
Q

What is SEC?

A

Spoiler Elevator Computer

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15
Q

What is the primary computer job for the SEC?

A

Spoilers

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16
Q

What can the SEC do in backup mode?

A

Can control the elevators

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17
Q

What is FAC?

A

Flight Augmentation Computers

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18
Q

What are the primary jobs of the FAC? (RFLW)

A
  • Rudder (coordination, damping, trim, travel limit, alternate law)
  • flight envelope protection (PFD speed tape, alpha floor protection)
  • low energy warning
  • wind shear detection
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19
Q

What happens when you lift the guard and press the EVAC button?

A

Sends signal to cabin to notify of evacuation situation

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20
Q

What will this sound like?

A

High frequency tone and beeping

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21
Q

How do you cancel the tone?

A

Hit Evac Horn Shutoff

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22
Q

What does SMOKE mean under the GEN 1 Line button?

A

Smoke in avionics compartment

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23
Q

Are there any confirmation lights anywhere else?

A

Ventilation panel, the BLOWER and EXTRACT will both show FAULT

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24
Q

What happens when you push the GEN 1 line to OFF?

A
  • Gen 1 is disconnected from AC Bus 1 (Gen 2 then powers AC Bus 1)
  • Powers one fuel pump in each wing tank
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25
Q

What does the RED FAULT light mean on the RAT and EMER GEN?

A

Emergency Generator is not supplying power, but should be (AC1 and AC2 are not powered)

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26
Q

What will you do if you see that?

A

Lift the guard and push the button which Manually extends the RAT and connects Emergency Generator to electrical system

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27
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on the TERR pb indicate?

A
  • The terrain database has been lost

- EGPWS failed

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28
Q

What should you do then?

A
  • Turn the system OFF, inhibiting the terrain function

- Will still get basic modes on the GPWS (TOO LOW FLAPS/GEAR)

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29
Q

What happens with SYS FAULT?

A

Lost all of the GPWS modes including the enhanced GPWS

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30
Q

What are G/S and FLAP modes for?

A

Abnormal conditions to where you will turn that mode off

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31
Q

When will you use LDG FLAP 3 mode?

A

When planning for a FLAP 3 landing

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32
Q

What do you need to along with selecting that button?

A

MCDU performance page and select CONFIG 3

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33
Q

When is the CVR first powered?

A

When you first apply external power to the aircraft for the first 5 minutes and then it turns off

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34
Q

When will it start recording automatically?

A

At engine start

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35
Q

When you do the CVR test and it does not make the tone what is most likely the cause?

A

The parking brake is OFF

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36
Q

What does the white SYS ON light indicate on the PASSENGER pb?

A

Signal to open mask doors has been activated Remains on until TMR RESET pb pushed on Mx Panel

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37
Q

At what altitude do the pax oxygen masks drop?

A

when cabin altitude exceeds 14,000’

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38
Q

What allows the oxygen bottle to connect to the manifold and supply oxygen to the cockpit masks?

A

CREW SUPPLY pb on overhead panel

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39
Q

What is happening when you press the APU MASTER SW? (E-F-F-F-E)

A
  • ECB (electronic control box) power and self test
  • Flap opens, APU inlet
  • Fuel pump turns on
  • Fuel Valve Opens
  • ECAM, APU page comes up
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40
Q

What does the GREEN AVAIL light mean on the START button?

A

the APU is on speed and ready for use
N > 99.5%
N > 95% for 2 seconds

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41
Q

What does the amber FAULT indicate on the MASTER SW pb?

A

the last shutdown was abnormal or auto shutdown

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42
Q

When will the APU auto-shutdown for fire?

A

will only shutdown on the ground, NOT in flight

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43
Q

What part of the wings are anti-iced?

A

the 3 outboard slats

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44
Q

What is the default position for the wing anti-ice valve if it were to lose the electrical signal?

A

CLOSED

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45
Q

What does an amber FAULT light indicate on the WING anti-ice pb? (LVV)

A
  • low air pressure
  • valve disagreement
  • valve in transit
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46
Q

What part of the engines are heated?

A

engine nacelle leading edge

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47
Q

What is the default position for the ENG anti-ice valve if it were to lose the electrical signal?

A

OPEN

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48
Q

What does an amber FAULT light indicate on the ENG anti-ice pbs?

A
  • valve disagreement

- valve in transit

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49
Q

When is the TAT probe heated?

A

automatically when airborne

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50
Q

What is heated when AUTO is selected on PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb? and when are those items heated?

A
  • probes and windows are heated in flight and on the the ground WHEN one engine is running, except TAT probe
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51
Q

When are the DRAIN MASTS powered?

A

whenever the is ext power or another power source on the AC

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52
Q

How many automatic controllers does the cabin pressurization system have?

A

2

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53
Q

How often do they changeover?

A

70 seconds after each landing or in the event of a system failure

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54
Q

When the LDG ELEV knob is in AUTO, where does it pull its info?

A

being pulled from the FMGS to control the pressurization schedule

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55
Q

When should you NOT use the AUTO function for LDG ELEV?

A
  • dest airport is not in the database
  • database is incorrect
  • ECAM or guidance computer would give directions to do so
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56
Q

What are you doing when you take the LDG ELEV switch out of AUTO?

A
  • you are controlling the schedule of the outflow valve, automatic pressurization is still in operation
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57
Q

What valves will close while DITCHING pb is in AUTO? (AABRO)

A
  • all holes below the waterline
  • avionics ventilation inlet valve
  • avionics ventilation extract valve
  • both pack flow control valves
  • ram air inlet valve
  • outflow valve
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58
Q

What does an amber FAULT light indicate on the MODE SEL pb?

A
  • both auto systems have failed

- must go to manual condition

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59
Q

What switch are you using when CABIN PRESS is in manual mode?

A
  • MAN V/S CTL switch
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60
Q

What happens when you select UP on the MAN V/S CTL switch?

A

opens the outflow valve

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61
Q

What happens when you select DOWN on the MAN V/S CTL switch?

A

closes the outflow valve

62
Q

What does an amber FAULT light indicate on the ENG 1/2 BLEED pb? (LOOSA)

A
  • Leak
  • Overheat
  • Overpressure downstream
  • Start in process and valve not closed
  • APU bleed on and valve not closed
63
Q

What does an amber FAULT light indicate on the APU BLEED pb?

A

Leak

64
Q

What happens when you push the RAM AIR pb?

A

the ram air scoop will open, the valve will not open until there is less than 1 PSI pressure differential

65
Q

What does an amber FAULT light indicate on the PACK 1/2 pb’s?

A
  • overheat

- valve disagreement

66
Q

When PACK 1/2 pb’s are pushed what happens?

A

pack valve opens

67
Q

When will the pack valves NOT open when the PACK 1/2 pb’s are pushed? (DOSAF)

A
  • ditching switch selected
  • overheat in compressor outlet
  • start in process
  • air pressure low
  • fire pb released
68
Q

What kind of switch is the PACK FLOW selector knob?

A

demand switch

69
Q

What condition would you select LO on the PACK FLOW knob and when would you select it?

A
  • you are operating with 2 packs and ENG bleed air

- select when you have less than 115 pax

70
Q

When will you get HI flow regardless of knob position?

A
  • APU is supplying bleed air

- single pack ops

71
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on the HOT AIR pb indicate?

A

overheat detected

72
Q

Which valves close when an overheat is detected?

A
  • hot air valve

- trim air valve

73
Q

What is the min BATT Voltage?

A

25.5 volts, only check for min voltage when batteries are turned OFF

74
Q

When BATT are in AUTO, when will they connect up (contractors close) automatically? (3 - SCA)

A
  • as a sole source of electrics
  • they need to charge
  • when you start the APU
75
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on the BATT 1/2 pb’s indicate?

A

battery charger is out of limits

76
Q

What does a white OFF light indicate on the BATT 1/2 pb’s?

A

battery contractors are open (not connected), these lights are powered by the DC BATT BUS

77
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on the GEN 1/2 pb’s indicate?

A
  • GCU trip

- line contractor open (other than by pb)

78
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on the IDG 1/2 pb’s indicate? (HOTLOP)

A
  • HOT - high oil temp

- LOP - low oil pressure (inhibited below 14% N2)

79
Q

What happens when you push an IDG 1/2 pb?

A
  • disconnect associated IDG

- can only be reconnected on the ground

80
Q

What can cause damage when pushing the IDG 1/2 pb?

A
  • holding the pb for more than 3 seconds

- disconnecting an engine that is not running or windmilling

81
Q

What is the power priority?

A

1 - on side gen
2 - ext power
3 - APU gen
4 - off side gen

82
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on the AC ESS FEED pb indicate?

A

AC ESS bus is NOT being powered by AC BUS 1

83
Q

What happens when you push the AC ESS FEED pb to ALTN?

A

the AC ESS BUS is being powered by AC BUS 2

84
Q

What does the GALYandCAB pb power?

A
  • main galley
  • secondary galley
  • IFE - in flight entertainment
85
Q

What sheds during single gen ops?

A

main galley and IFE (only IFE is shed if on the ground with APU gen or ext power)

86
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on the GALYandCAB pb indicate?

A
  • any generator load > 100%
87
Q

What do you need to do if this happens?

A

turn that GEN off, which will shed the entire galley system

88
Q

What is the RAT?

A

Ram AIr Turbine, which powers the BLUE HYD SYS which drives the EMR GEN

89
Q

When is the RAT automatically extended?

A
  • AC BUS 1/2 are unpowered

- airspeed > 100 kts

90
Q

What is powering the plane during the transition of the RAT extension?

A

batteries only

91
Q

What is an indication of RAT deployment?

A
  • PFD and Engine Warning Display are the only screens visible
  • all other screens would go blank
92
Q

How long does it take the EMER GEN to couple?

A

8 seconds and regain AC BUS1/2

93
Q

What is powered after the EMER GEN couples?

A

1 - CA PFD
2 - CA NAV Display
3 - Engine Warning Display
4 - #1 MCDU

94
Q

On approach w/ RAT deployment, what happens between 125 - 140 kts?

A
  • EMER GEN drops offline

- CA’s PFD and Engine Warning Display would be the only items powered, again by batteries only

95
Q

After touchdown, what is the change?

A
  • less than 100 kts, we will gain the DC BATT BUS

- you will notice no change in the cockpit display’s

96
Q

On rollout, under 50 kts, what is the change?

A
  • lose the AC ESS BUS
  • all screens will go blank
  • only busses being powered at that point are the DC ESS BUS and DC BATT BUS
97
Q

Which bus allows VHF #1 to operate?

A

DC ESS BUS

98
Q

How does the fuel system work under normal ops?

A

inner tanks are filled by outer tanks

99
Q

When will the center fuel tank be filled?

A

when it is required to have fuel in the center tank, it will fill simultaneously

100
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on the Fuel Pump pb’s indicate?

A

low output pressure

101
Q

When and for how long will the center tank fuel pump run?

A
  • starts running when you start an engine and will run for 2 minutes and slats extended
102
Q

When does the center fuel tank pump STOP running?

A
  • after a minimum of 2 minutes AND the SLATS extended
103
Q

What does the center tank fuel pump do after 2nd engine start?

A

when starting the 2nd engine, the center tank pump will run for another 2 minutes, it will go back to tank to engine after those 2 minutes

104
Q

When will the center tank start operating again?

A

once airborne and the slats are retracted

105
Q

19:32 - Basic fuel operation?????

A

Fuel that is going to the engines, there is a IDG return line that is going to the outer tanks. This is filling the inner tanks at the time, eventually the inner tanks will become full then send a signal to the center tank pump to shutoff for approx. 1100 lbs of fuel flow.

106
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on the MODE SEL pb indicate?

A
  • center tank > 550 lbs AND

- L/R Wing Tank < 11,000 lbs

107
Q

What is included in the GREEN HYD system? (4)

A

1 - #1 Reveser
2 - Normal Brakes
3 - NWS (on some AC)
4 - Normal and Auto Brakes

108
Q

What is included in the YELLOW HYD system? (4)

A

1 - #2 Reverser
2 - NWS (on some AC)
3 - Alt/Parking Brake
4 - Cargo Doors

109
Q

What is included in the BLUE HYD system? (1)

A

1 - RAT (loss of blue HYD, RAT isn’t available)

110
Q

What does an amber FAULT Light on the ENG 1/2 pb’s indicate? (4, LRRR)

A

1 - Low Pressure
2 - Reservoir Low Level
3 - Reservoir Low Air Pressure
4 - Reservoir Overheat

111
Q

What does an amber FAULT Light on the ELEC PUMP pb’s indicate? (5, PPRRR)

A 
1 - Pump Low Pressure
2 - Pump Overheat
3 - Reservoir Low Level
4- Reservoir Low Air Pressure
5 - Reservoir Overheat
112
Q

What pressure will the HYD pressurize the system to?

A

3,000 PSI

113
Q

What can the RAT pressurize the system to?

A

2,500 PSI

114
Q

What is a PTU and what does it do for the HYD system?

A
  • Power Transfer Unit
  • device that transfers hydraulic power from one of an aircraft’s hydraulic systems to another in the event that second system has failed or been turned off
115
Q

When will the PTU connect the GREEN/YELLOW systems?

A

Automatically runs when Green & Yellow differential psi >500, unless its inhibited
-self test during second engine start

116
Q

When is the PTU inhibited?

A

1 - for 40 seconds after cargo door is opened or closed
2 - ONLY one ENG master switch on AND Tow Pin in
3 - ONLY one ENG master switch on AND Parking Brake Set

117
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on the GREEN ENG 1 PUMP indicate?

A

Pump Low Pressure

118
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on the GREEN ENG 1 PUMP AND the PTU indicate?

A

1 - Reservoir Low Level
2 - Reservoir Low Air Pressure
3 - Reservoir Overheat

119
Q

What is the correct action if you have a FAULT light on the GREEN ENG 1 PUMP AND the PTU?

A

turn off both pumps to keep from recycling that bad fluid

120
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on the BLUE ELEC PUMP indicate?

A
  • Reservoir problems
    • Low level
    • fluid overheat
    • low air pressure
  • Pump Problems
    • low pump pressure (inhibited on the ground w/ engine off)
    • overheat
121
Q

What situations will give a fire indication in the dual loop system?

A

1 - Both loops must detect a fire to get a fire indication
2 - One loop has already been detected as being faulty and the other loop detects a fire
3 - Both loops break within 5 seconds of each other

122
Q

How many fire detection sensors are there?

A

3

123
Q

Where are the fire detection sensors located?

A

1 - Fan
2 - Core
3 - Pylon Nacelle

124
Q

What happens when you push the ENG 1/2 FIRE PUSH?

A 
1 - Silences CRC (continuous repetitive chime)
2 - Arms Squibs
3 - Closes HYD SOV
4 - Closes LP fuel valve
5 - De-energizes FADEC
6 - Deactivates IDG
7 - Closes Bleed Valve
8 - Closes Pack Flow Control Valve
125
Q

What happens when you push the APU FIRE PUSH?

A

1 - Silences CRC (continuous repetitive chime)
2 - Arms Squibs
3 - Closes LP fuel valve (APU shuts down)
4 - Turns off APU fuel Pump
5 - Deactivates APU GEN
6 - Closes APU Bleed Valve
7 - Closes X Bleed Valve

126
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on the HOT AIR pb indicate?

A

duct overheat

127
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on the AFT ISOL VALVE pb indicate?

A

inlet or outlet valve disagreement

128
Q

What are the 3 normal modes of operation for the ventilation system?

A

1 - Open
2 - Closed
3 - Intermediate

129
Q

What are the modes dependent on?

A

whether you’re on the ground, in flight, and the skin temperature

130
Q

What modes work on the ground?

A
  • open/closed ONLY, depending on skin temp
  • prior to takeoff power, OPEN configuration
  • after takeoff power, CLOSED configuration
131
Q

What modes work in flight?

A

closed/intermediate ONLY, depending on skin temp

132
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on the BLOWER pb indicate?

A
  • computer fault
  • low air pressure (horn sounds on the ground + no eng running)
  • duct overheat
  • smoke
133
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on the EXTRACT pb indicate?

A
  • Smoke
  • Air pressure low (horn sounds on the ground + no eng running)
  • Computer Fault
134
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on BOTH the BLOWER and EXTRACT pb’s indicate?

A

smoke in the avionics compartment

135
Q

What happens if you place BOTH the BLOWER and EXTRACT to OVRD?

A
  • Intermediate Configuration
  • Air Conditioning air added
  • Blower Fan stops
136
Q

When are you in Normal Law?

A

when you are fully Electrically AND Hydraulically powered

137
Q

What are the 3 modes in Normal Law according to phase of flight?

A

1 - Ground Mode
2 - Flight Mode
3 - Flare Mode

138
Q

When is Ground Mode active/inactive?

A

active when on the ground and deactivates shortly after lift-off

139
Q

What is sidestick relationship in Ground Mode?

A
  • direct proportional relationship between sidestick deflection and deflection of the flight controls
140
Q

What happens to Ground Mode after touchdown?

A

ground mode is reactivated and resets the stabilizer trim to zero

141
Q

When is Flight Mode active/inactive?

A

Becomes active shortly after takeoff and remains active until shortly before touchdown

142
Q

HYD System - what are some unique items on the GREEN HYD system?

A
  • normal braking/autobrakes
  • # 1 reverser
  • NWS (on some AC)
  • normal gear ext/ret
143
Q

HYD System - what are some unique items on the YELLOW HYD system?

A
  • cargo doors
  • # 2 reverser
  • alternate and parking brake
144
Q

LDG GR System

What will happen with the failure of LGCIU #1?

A

3 landing gear lights will go blank

145
Q

LDG GR System

What will happen with the failure of LGCIU #2?

A

half the wheels on the SD page will be red

146
Q

LDG GR System

What is happening with each turn of the manual landing gear extension handle?

A
  • 1st turn - cuts off GREEN HYD pressure to landing gear
  • 2nd turn - opens gear doors
  • 3rd turn - releases the uplocks
147
Q

NWS System

How far does the tiller defect the NW?

A

75˚

148
Q

NWS System

How far do the pedals defect the NW?

A

6˚

149
Q

FLT CNTL System

When will the Wing Tip Brake system engage?

ROAM

A
  • surface runaway
  • overspeed (flaps moving too fast)
  • asymmetry
  • movement thats uncommanded
150
Q

What is the FAC?

A

flight augmentation computer

151
Q

What are the jobs of the FAC?

A
  • Rudder - coordination and damping (normal law), trim, travel limit, Alternate Law
  • Flight Envelope Protection - PFD speed tape, alpha floor protection
  • Low energy warning
  • Wind shear detection

Lights and Switches (1 decks)

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