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ATPL AGK > Systems > Flashcards

Systems Flashcards

1
Q

How likely is a minor failure

A

Probable

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2
Q

How likely is a major failure

A

Remote

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3
Q

How likely is a hazardous failure

A

Extremely remote

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4
Q

How likely is a catastrophic failure

A

Extremely improbable

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5
Q

What is “safe life”

A

Life given to a aircraft in which it will not suffer a catastrophic failure

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6
Q

What is fail safe

A

A failure of a particular part is compensated by an alternative part for a limited time

Limited time is until next periodic inspection

Disadvantage is it’s heavy

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7
Q

What is a damage tolerant structure

A

Spreading load over a large area

Damage can be detected during normal inspection cycles before failure occurs

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8
Q

What is a stress

A

Internal force per unit area inside a structural component as a result of external loads

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9
Q

What is strain

A

Deformation caused by stress on a material

% dimension of original

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10
Q

What are the 4 types of stress

A

Tension (traction)
Compression
Torsion
Shear

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11
Q

What strain is placed on a component during bending

A

Compression inside of bend

Tension outside of bend

Shear in middle (@spar)

It is a combined load

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12
Q

What is torsion

A

Twisting

Tension is at outer edge
Compression in the centre
Shear cross structure

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13
Q

What is elasticity

A

A material can elongate then return to original shape

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14
Q

What is plasticity

A

Material permanently reform

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15
Q

What is a stringer used for

A

To prevent compression load on outside of skin buckling

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16
Q

What is buckling

A

Occurs to thin sheet materials when subject to compressive forces

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17
Q

What are dynamic loads

A

Built up quickly due to changes in flight conditions

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18
Q

What are static loads

A

Usually Constant and build up slowly

I.e loading up with fuel

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19
Q

Where experiences the largest bending moment

A

Wing root

On ground = static force is main gear on wings

In air = upward forces by lift

Max on empty wings

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20
Q

How to reduce wing loading / stress

A

Outboard ailerons locked it at same time as flap retraction

Aileron upwards = pushes wing down at High speeds

Fuel in winds

Engines on wings

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21
Q

What is a cyclic load

A

Repetitive load placed on and off

Causes structure to fail quicker than static load

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22
Q

What determine the number of cycles to failure

A

Amplitude of the load

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23
Q

What is design load limit

A

Max load designer expects the aircraft to experience in service

Based on 2.5g for transport aircraft

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24
Q

Design ultimate load

A

Safety factor applied to design load limit

Must withstand design ultimate load without collapse

Safety factor of 1.5 added to design load limit

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25
Q

If aircraft is at ultimate load what is the impact

A

Should remain largely intact for at least 3 seconds

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26
Q

What is failure

A

Fail of a structure which is subjected to continual reversals of load

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27
Q

What does the S-N diagram / wohler curve represent

A

The relationship between fatigue and amplitude

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28
Q

What type of load is failure more likely under

A

Tensile (tension / traction)

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29
Q

What is a alloy

A

2 or more metals together that give properties not had before

Good weight to strength ratio

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30
Q

What qualities but a material contain

A

Elasticity
Plasticity
Stiffness
Strength

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31
Q

What are common materials used in aircraft

A 
Aluminium 
Titanium 
Magnesium 
Alloys 
Steel
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32
Q

What is the most common aluminium alloy used

A

Daralumin

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33
Q

What is daralumin

A

Copper based aluminium alloy

Magnanese, silicon, magnesium

Very god thermal / electrical conductivity

Excellent strength to weight ration

Susceptible to corrosion

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34
Q

What is Alclad

A

Sheets of duralumin with pure aluminium coating on its surfaces

Duralumin = strength 
Aluminium = protects the duralumin
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35
Q

What is a composite material

A

2 or more elements to produce w material with different properties to those of the original

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36
Q

What does a composite material consist of

A

Matrix usually a thermosetting polymers or eproxy resins

Fibres = carbon / Kevlar / glass

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37
Q

What is a radar dome made out of and why

A

Fibre glass and it is radar transparent

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38
Q

What is carbon fibre good for

A

Strength to weight ratio

But doesn’t like big impacts

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39
Q

What is Kevlar (aramid) good for

A

Impact resistance

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40
Q

What is a matrix used for

A

Spread the load to each fibre

Also protect the fibres

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41
Q

What is a honeycomb / sandwich construction

A

Typically used for flight control surfaces, flooring, fuselage panels

Has good strength to weight ratio + really strong in direction of honeycomb openings

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42
Q

What is corrosion

A

Disintegration of a engineered material

Oxidisation = when metal is exposed to air

Electrolytic = am electric current between two metals

Degree of corrosion is proportional to level of moisture

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43
Q

What is stress corrosion

A

Integration between fatigue and corrosion

Combination of corrosive conditions and tensile loads

Causes quick, unpredictable failure

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44
Q

What is stress corrosion (cracking) (SCC)

A

Unexpected failure due to stress fatigue

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45
Q

What is hard time maintenance

A

Definite time limit for individual components and structures

Item is removed from service before scheduled maintenance period for inspection of repair

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46
Q

what is on condition maintenance

A

Inspection or check that can be done without disassembly or overhaul, to assess the performance and then if required will be removed for maintenance

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47
Q

What is the fuselage

A

Pressure hull between forward and rear bulk heads

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48
Q

What is the main structural member of framework / truss

A

Longeron

Frame take all the loads

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49
Q

What is a monocoque construction

A

Formers just give the shame

Skin takes all the loads

Extra strength (Doublers) needed to be built around holes (window etc)

Heavier

Only suitable for small aircraft

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50
Q

What is a semi- monocoque construction (stressed skin)

A

Main structural member = longeron = goes nose to tail

Stringer = prevents buckling = gives fuselage shape

Skin takes majority of the load but is supported and assisted by frames, longeron, stringers

Good weight / strength ratio

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51
Q

What are stiffeners

A

Additional lengths of metal between frames riveted to the skin to provide additional support

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52
Q

What are different attachment methods

A 
Riveting 
Welding 
Bolting 
Bonding 
Pinning
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53
Q

What is a firewall made out of

A

Stainless steel/ titanium alloy

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54
Q

What is a rectangular fuselage

A

Many non pressurised

High weight / strength ratio

Cheaper to build

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55
Q

What is a circular fuselage

A

Ideal shape for pressurised
Stress spread evenly

Relatively easy built

Sometimes space is wasted when pax and cargo has to be accommodated

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56
Q

What is a double bubble fuselage

A

Figure of eight

Can carry more pax
Will save fuel

Will be slightly slower

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57
Q

What is designed to oppose hoop stresses

A

Frames

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58
Q

What are hoop stresses

A

Outward stress in shape of s hoop round fuselage

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59
Q

What is the max difference of pressure between inside and outside

A

9 psi

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60
Q

What is the main spar of a wing

A

Front spar

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61
Q

What gives the shape of a wing

A

Ribs = front to back

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62
Q

What goes spanwise of a wing

A

Stringers

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63
Q

What structure is on the leading edge of s wing

A

Honeycomb structure

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64
Q

What is a externally braced wing

A

Usually older aircraft

Like a biplane

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65
Q

What is a semi cantilever wing structure

A

Mostly light / high wing aircraft

Like Cessna

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66
Q

What is a cantilever wing

A

Fully self supporting

No external bracing

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67
Q

What is the middle of a main spar called

A

web

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68
Q

What is the torsion box

A

2 spars with skin on upper and lower side

With rilo inside

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69
Q

What is the empennage

A

Tail section

Provides longitudinal / directional stability

Horizontal and vertical stabiliser
Rudder
Elevator

Supporting structure underneath

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70
Q

What load does a wing NOT want

A

Twisting

Can cause flutter

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71
Q

Where is the max bending moment of s wing

A

At the root

Reduces by fuel in wings

Engines as mass balance (forward of cg)

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72
Q

What is floor venting

A

Blow out panels = open automatically to equalise pressure across floor structure

Prevent distortion during rapid decompression

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73
Q

Aircraft doors are what type

A

Plug type

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74
Q

What is a cargo door operated by

A

Hydraulic power pack

Not s plug type door

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75
Q

What do windows need to withstand

A 
Airflow
Precipitation 
Birds 
Insects 
Pressurisation
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76
Q

What is the typical window construction

A

Glass
Heating element
Vinyl (polycarbonate)
Glass

= like a sandwich

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77
Q

What is a DV window

A

Direction vision window

= can open

= pilot must have a window that can open when cabin not pressured

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78
Q

What is a eye reference position

A

To set seat at correct position

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79
Q

What is the difference between a heavy landing and a overweight landing

A

Heavy = too much vertical descent rate

Overweight = too heavy

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80
Q

What is the primary damage of overweight / heavy landing

A

Landing gear

Support structure in wings / fuselage

Wing / tailplane attachments

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81
Q

What is secondary damage of a heavy and overweight landing

A

Fuselage structure
Fuselage upper and lower skin
Wing structure
Wing upper / lower skin

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82
Q

What is the damage of s nosewheel landing

A

Front pressure bulkhead

Nose wheel drag / shock struts

Possibility of nose wheel collapse

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83
Q

What is the damage / risk or tail strike

A

Higher risk on flapless landing
Over rotation

Damage to:
Empennage structure
Rear pressure bulkhead

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84
Q

What is sea level pressure

A

14.7 psi

1 bar = 14.5psi

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85
Q

What is hydrostatic pressure

A

Pressure generated by height

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86
Q

What is pascals law

A

Pressure will be felt the same everywhere 90° to surfaces

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87
Q

What is bramah press

A

Force = pressure x area

Small piston = small force

Large piston = large force

For the same pressure

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88
Q

What is a passive hydraulic system

A

No pump

If air in brakes = feel spongy

Solution = bleed breaks normally

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89
Q

What is a active hydraulic system

A

Pump is used to ensure pressure

Typically 3000psi

= size of actuators can be reduced = needs less fluid = pipes can be smaller = easier to fit

Reduces weight

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90
Q

What is a O-ring seal

A

With high pressure = night leak

Acts both directions

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91
Q

What is a chevron seal (v seal)

A

Only seals one direction

Better for very high pressure

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92
Q

What is the purpose of a backing ring

A

Prevents extrusion

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93
Q

What is mineral oil

A

DTD 585 = Def Stan 91-48 super clean

Red

Seal material = synthetic rubber

Flammable

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94
Q

What is synthetic oil

A

Skydrol

Green or purple

Butyl rubber seal

Irritant to both skin and eyes = fire resistance = less prone to cavitation

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95
Q

What happens if wrong oil is used

A

Eats away at seals

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96
Q

What is a single acting actuator

A

Hydraulic pressure moves piston in one direction

Spring returns pressure when released

= undercarriage door locks

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97
Q

What is a double acting balance

A

Hydraulic pressure moves piston in both directions

Equal pressure on both sides

Nose wheel steering

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98
Q

What is double acting unbalanced actuator

A

Pressure either side

One side has a ram shaft = less pressure that side

= more force going one way

= Landing gear / flaps

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99
Q

What are the 2 types of selector valve

A

Linear or spool

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100
Q

What is hydraulic lock

A

Nothing in / nothing out

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101
Q

What hydraulic system do some small planes use

A

Self contained package system

Or

Basic open centre system

When nothing selected = oil goes round and round

Simplest

Only one service can be operated at a time

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102
Q

What is a constant delivery pump

A

Gives same flow of hydraulic fluid

Requires automatic cut out valve to stop exploding pipes = senses pressure downstream

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103
Q

What happens if there isn’t enough pressure in accumulator

A

Hydraulic pressure will fluctuate

Can get chattering

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104
Q

What does a content delivery pump require

A

ACOV

accumulator

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105
Q

What is a constant pressure pump

A

Makes sure sufficient pressure to maintain 3000psi

Can simultaneously operate multiple services

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106
Q

Why is a hydraulic reservoir sometimes pressurised

A

Prevents cavitation

Or

Prevents boiling

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107
Q

How should a hydraulic reservoir be checked for level

A

When all system components are at correct setting

Accumulators are fully charged

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108
Q

What is a stack pipe

A

Stops fluid becoming too low so can be used for emergency system

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109
Q

Where is a hydraulic fluid temperature sensor found

A

In reservoir

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110
Q

Where does the air for a hydraulic system come from

A

Compressor stage of turbine

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111
Q

What are baffles for

A

Stop hydraulic fluid moving round too much

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112
Q

What are accumulators

A

Filled with nitrogen

Should be at half system pressure
But when main hydraulic system is fully charged should be 3000psi

Acts as a store of hydraulic fluid under pressure

damps our pressure fluctuations

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113
Q

What is a brake accumulator for

A

For operation of brakes if hydraulic pressure lost

Gives a limited number of applications

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114
Q

What happens to the ACOV if there is a leak

A

Cut in and out frequently

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115
Q

What happens to the swash plate in a constant pressure (variable volume) pump when at low pressure

A

Swash plate = acute angle = max deflection

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116
Q

What is a quill drive

A

Drive shaft necked so that if pump stops the drive shaft snaps to stop damage to engine

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117
Q

What is a drain case for

A

Small amount of fluid is let through holes in a hydraulic pump for lubrication

Collected in drain case

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118
Q

Purpose of a drain case filter

A

Monitor condition of pumps

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119
Q

If 2 pumps that deliver 3000psi @ 10 gals/ min each

What is the combined output

A

3000psi @ 20gals/ min

If one pump fails = services work slower / operating times extended

Not half speed!!

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120
Q

What are the 2 types of hydraulic filter element

A

Paper (replaceable)

Metal ( washable)

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121
Q

What is a full pressure full flow relief valve

A

Excess pressure acts against a spring causing the ball to unseat at cracking pressure

Dumps flow of pressure

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122
Q

What is a thermal relief valve

A

Relieves excess pressure caused by expansion of trapped fluid as ambient temperature increases

Senses pressure not temperature!!!

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123
Q

What does a mechanical overload protection do

A

Fitted in flap circuits and some spoiler circuits

Prevents damage caused by aerodynamic forces

Eg flaps at High speed

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124
Q

What is a restrictor valve

A

Used for undercarriage down
Flaps up

Restricts fluid flow to slow speed of operation

Found in up lines

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125
Q

What is a pressure maintaining valve (priority valve)

A

In event of system supply reducing

Ensures pressure is provided to essential services

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126
Q

What is a pressure reducing valve

A

Reduces pressure for use on some systems

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127
Q

What is a modulator

A

Specific to brake system = helps anti skid

Basically a flow control valve

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128
Q

What is a shuttle valve

A

Provides a method of having both emergency and normal supplies of pressure to a single source

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129
Q

What is a hydraulic fuse

A

If massive leak downstream = stops you leaking all your fluid

System upstream still operates normally

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130
Q

If there is a slow external hydraulic leak what happens to contents pressure and temperature

A

Contents slowly decrease
Pressure no change
Temperature no change

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131
Q

What happens to a fast external hydraulic leak in terms of contents pressure and temperature

A

Contents rapid loss
Pressure nil
Temperature n/a

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132
Q

What happens for a internal hydraulic leak in terms of contents pressure and temperature

A

Contents no change
Pressure no change
Temperature increases

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133
Q

What is a hand pump

A

Hydraulic pump

Double acting

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134
Q

What are sequence valves

A

Males systems work in right sequence

Can be mechanical or hydraulic

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135
Q

What prevents landing gear being selected up

A

Patched pin on leaver

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136
Q

What is the steps of landing gear retraction

A

Doors fully open

Inflight braking to stop wheels spinning usually around 400psi ish

Break the down lock

Main retraction jack starts to rotate

Doors shut

Cockpit indicator lights off

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137
Q

What are the steps of landing gear extension

A

Doors fully open

Undercarriage down

Over centre geometric device locks

Doors shut

Green cockpit indicators

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138
Q

What happens if landing gear doors are in incorrect position

A

Orange light

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139
Q

What are the characteristics of spring steel cantilever leg and rubber chord / bungee

A

Nothing to stop recoil / bounce

Typically used on small aircraft

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140
Q

What prevents the sliding / plunger or a oleo pneumatic strut from rotating in the leg

A

Torsion torque

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141
Q

What is a bogey

A

4 or more wheels would

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142
Q

In a shock absorber what acts as a damper

A

Oil

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143
Q

In a shock absorber what acts as the spring

A

Gas

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144
Q

In a shock absorber what happens when flutter plate is open

A

Oleo can compress easily

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145
Q

In a shock absorber what happens if flutter plate is closed

A

Oleo has slow extension (stops bounce)

146
Q

Whats the most common cause of having insufficient extension of oleo (fescalised portion being to small)

A

Not enough gas (leak)

Could cause bottoming out on landing

147
Q

What happens if oleo oil levels are too low

A

Rebound is not properly damped

148
Q

What are brake bars

A

Torque limiting

Won’t let you brake too much

149
Q

What does a fuselage mounted screw jack landing gear require

A

Means of locking up and down

Creep = unwanted movement of screw jack

= to prevent = mechanical locks

150
Q

What force does the nose wheel feel when being towed

A

Shear

151
Q

What does part of the landing gear door need to be made out of

A

A frangible portion to break on landing during emergency landing gear extension

152
Q

What prevents the up selection of gear on the ground

A

Ground locks = pins which are in undercarriage to stop collapsing

Gear selector leaver have latches in to prevent being moved

153
Q

What is a landing gear configuration warning

A

When flaps and slats in landing configuration and throttles pulled back to a pre defined position with gear still up

= continuous tone

154
Q

What is castoring

A

Ability of a nose wheel to turn either side in response to differential braking or rudder

(Like a shopping trolley wheel)

155
Q

What is the normal angular movement of the nose wheel limited to for large aircraft

A

75° left or right

To prevent scrubbing

156
Q

What is a nose wheel steering centring mechanism used for

A

Automatically centres wheel for retraction

157
Q

What is nosewheel shimmy

A

Rapid sinusoidal oscillation of nose wheel of a divergent nature

158
Q

What causes nosewheel shimmy

A

Uneven tyre pressure
Unevenly work tyres
Unbalanced wheels
Worn shimmy damper / wheel bearings

159
Q

How can you reduce shimmy

A

Provisions of hydraulic locks across the steering jack piston

Fitting a hydraulic damper

Heavy self centring springs

Double nose wheels

Twin contact tyres (maarsyrad)

160
Q

What is a well based tyre

A

Light aircraft with tubed tyre

161
Q

What is a loose or detachable flange

A

Designed to facilitate tyre replacement

162
Q

What is divider or split wheel

A

2 half’s mounted together

Designed for tubeless tyre

Seal incorporated at joint to provide air tightness

163
Q

What is a knurled flange

A

Inner face is milled

Locks tyre onto wheel flange

164
Q

What are wheels usually made from

A

Aluminium alloy

Magnesium alloy

165
Q

What are fusible plugs for

A

Melt when internal tyre pressure gets too high

Prevents blowout

166
Q

What do pneumatic tyres tend to be filled with

A

Nitrogen

167
Q

What does the flexible casing of a tyre tend to be made from

A

Rubber coated rayon, cotton, or nylon ply chords

Wrapped round beads at each edge of the tyre

168
Q

What is the crown of a tyre

A

Area of tyre that holds the tread pattern

Makes contact with the surface

169
Q

What is the shoulder of a tyre

A

Thins out from crown to sidewall

170
Q

What is the sidewall of a tyre

A

Weakest part of a tyre

Least able to cope with damage

171
Q

What is the bead of a tyre

A

Strong rim of tyre which engages with rims of the wheel to form a air tight seal

172
Q

What is a ply rating

A

Index of strength

Does NOT relate to number of plies

173
Q

What does a tubeless tyre have

A

A layer of non permeable vulcanised rubber

174
Q

What is the advantages of a tubeless tyre

A

Gas pressure maintained over longer period

No rapid loss of pressure = more resistant to blow outs and rough handling

Approx 7.5% weight saving

No inflation valve damage from creep

Cooler than tubed = no friction between tube and tyre

175
Q

What is bias / cross ply

A

Plies are laid in pairs with chords paced @ 90° to one another

176
Q

What is radial ply

A

Plies are laid from bead to bead

Approx perpendicular to centreline of tyre

177
Q

What is a retread tyre

A

New tread heat bonded onto old carcass

Tyre repaired over again unless main body damaged

178
Q

What is an inflation valve

A

Tube inflated through a schrader valve

Basically a non return valve

179
Q

What is acceptable creep limit for <24” tyre

A

1” of creep

180
Q

What is acceptable creep limit for a tyre of greater than or equal to 24” diameter

A

1.5” of creep

181
Q

What is a chined tyre

A

Fitted on nosewheels of aircraft with fuselage mounted engines to prevent water ingestion from wet runways

182
Q

What is a maarstrad tyre

A

Anti shimmy

183
Q

What speed is taxi usually limited to to prevent tyre wear

A

25mph

184
Q

When is aqua/ hydroplaning a risk

A

When water depth exceeds tread depth

Speed = 9(squareroottyre pressure)

185
Q

How to reduce risk of aquaplaning

A

Correct tyre pressure / tyre wear
Using anti-skid
Avoid large standing water

186
Q

What aircraft usually used single disc brakes

A

Light aircraft

187
Q

What aircraft usually uses multi disc brakes

A

Heavier aircraft

188
Q

What is brake fade

A

Results from brakes overheating

Not able to absorb any further energy and retardation is reduced

Overheated brakes may judder

189
Q

What is brake drag

A

Wrongly adjusted or faulty brakes

Prevents brakes from releasing correctly

May contribute to fade

190
Q

What are multi plate brakes

A

Consists of interleaved stators and rotors

191
Q

What are friction pads / plates made from

A

Heavy steel with a special case of hardened surface carbon

If steel brakes on fire = used dry powder not water

192
Q

How to check for brake wear

A

Have brakes applied / on

Check the retraction pin (if can feel it then they are good)

193
Q

Benefits of carbon brakes

A

Lighter

Absorb 2x as much heat as steel

Less prone to brake fade

More durability (last longer)

More expensive but fit for longer time

194
Q

Can you take off from a contaminated runway with anti skid inoperative

A

No

195
Q

Benefits of s electronic anti skid system

A

Can be checked prior to use

Quicker response rates

196
Q

Anti- skid functions

A

Skid prevention

Touch down protection

Locked wheel protection

Hydroplane protection

197
Q

When is antiskid deactivated

A

Either manually or automatically when aircraft slowed to approx 20mph

198
Q

What is touch down protection

A

Prevents brakes being applied before touch down

Controllers monitor wheel speed and air ground logic

Looks for signal from 2 separate wheels

199
Q

What is locked wheel protection

A

If wheel locks = releases pressure until it spins up fully again

200
Q

What is hydroplane protection system

A

Looks for all wheels on a bogey to be locked

Will release a number of brakes

201
Q

What is torque limiting in terms of brakes

A

Stops you braking too hard and damaging landing gear

Problem on carbon brakes

202
Q

When can you use auto brakes

A

Only with a silly working antiskid and braking system

203
Q

What happens when auto brakes fail

A

Selector switch automatically turns to disarm

Alarm sounds

204
Q

What are the conditions for rejected take off autobrakes to work

A

Speed of 85/90 knots approx

Throttles retarded to pre determined point

“Positive attempt to take off has been made”

205
Q

How to set parking brake

A

Put feet on pedals

Set parking brake handle

Maintains constant pressure

206
Q

How to disarm autobrakes

A

Foot brakes

Advance thrust leavers

Moving speed brake leaver down

Normally disarmed by non handling pilot as aircraft slows to approx 20 knots (not set speed)

207
Q

What are primary stops (manual controls)

A

Controls range of movement of control surfaces

208
Q

What are secondary stops (manual controls)

A

Controls range of movement of control stick / pedals

209
Q

What is a turnbuckle

A

Adjust tension on cable

210
Q

Is a artificial feel system (q-feel) in series or parallel with control runs

A

Parallel

211
Q

How is excessive rudder deflection prevented in both Boeing and airbus

A

Rudder ratio changing = Boeing

Variable stop system = airbus

212
Q

What is a rudder ratio changer

A

Pedals move through their full range at all speeds but rudder deflection reduces with increasing IAS

213
Q

What is a variable stop system (rudder)

A

Movement or rudder is directly proportional to pedal travel

Movement of both pedals and rudder is reduces with increasing IAS

214
Q

What are manual primary flight controls

A

Reversible
Natural feel
No artificial feel

215
Q

What are power assisted primary flight controls

A

Reversible
If loads large enough would give feedback
No artificial feel

216
Q

What are fully power operated primary flight controls

A

Irreversible
No natural feel
Requires feedback

217
Q

If primary stops are at the edge / full range of moment what is the condition of the secondary stops

A

Has slight gap

218
Q

What is backlash

A

Moving of control stick = delay in movement of control surfaces

May indicate worn or faulty components

219
Q

What happens to cable tension with increase in ambient temperature

A

Aluminium frame will expand more than the steel cables

Increases cable tension

220
Q

What are hinge moments

A

Force multiplied by distance from the hinge to control surface centre of pressure

Fxd

221
Q

What is a set back hinge

A

Hinge is moved back into control surface
The arm and hinge moment will be reduced

Does not reduce the effectiveness of the control

Only reduces the moment

222
Q

What is a horn balance

A

Surface forward of hinge line = gives hinge moment in opposite direction

Reduces moment NOT effectiveness

223
Q

What is a balance tab

A

Moves in opposite direction to control surface
Makes it easier
Does have a slight reduction in control effectiveness

224
Q

What is a servo tab

A

No direct movement of the control surface
Move tab not control surface
Makes it easier

May accidentally leave control locks in

225
Q

What is spring tap

A

Greater assistance the faster you go

Easier at high speeds

226
Q

What is a anti balance tab

A

Moves same direction as control surface

Increase control effectiveness

Will increase hinge moment / heavier stick forces

227
Q

What are power operated controls

A

Use hydraulic actuators / powered flying control units

Actuator operated by hydraulic servo valve

Each control surface is oppressive by two or three actuators

228
Q

What are power assisted controls

A

Direct link between you and control surface

2 inputs
= 1 to control surface
= 1 to control unit

Once aerodynamic force overcomes hydraulic assistance = feedback

229
Q

What are fully powered flying controls

A

1 input in = goes to servo valve

No direct connection between you and control surface

No feedback

Control is lost if hydraulic pressure is lost

230
Q

What is he downside of spring feel artificial feel system

A

Doesn’t cater for change in speed

231
Q

What is a blow back system

A

Allows control surface to ‘blow back’ into a less deflected position

Relieving any excessive loss

Prevents damage

232
Q

Benefits of fly by wire system

A

Saves weight (natural stability of aircraft can be reduced = smaller stabilising surfaces)

Pilot workload reduced

Flight envelope protection

233
Q

When does the take off configuration warning sound

A

Armed when aircraft is on ground and thrust levers advanced for take off

Sounds if:
Stabiliser trim outside sage range
Trailing edge flaps not in take off position
Leading edge devices not in take off position
Speedbrake leaver not in down position
Doors not fully locked
Control locks not fully unlocked

234
Q

What are secondary flight controls

A

Flaps
Trimming devices
Slats
Spoilers

235
Q

What shape is a flap lever

A

Flap shape

Tactile dissimilar

236
Q

Kreuger flaps

A

Leading edge close to wing root

2 positions

  • retracted
  • extended
237
Q

Variable camper flaps

A

2 positions

Retracted
Extended

238
Q

Slats

A

Have an intermediate position

When fully extended = has a slot

239
Q

Move flap lever to intermediate position what happens

A

Trailing edge flaps in intermediate position

Krueger flaps put

Variable camber leading edge flaps out

Slats intermediate position

240
Q

Move flap level to fully extended position

A

Slats all the way out to create slot

All high lift devices fully out

241
Q

What is a flap load relief system (LRS) or load limited

A

Retracts the flaps to the mid position if airspeed exceeds a pre determined speed

242
Q

What are auto stats

A

As approaching stall angle = will fully extend flaps automatically

243
Q

What is the ideal speed brake

A

Produce increase in drag with no loss or lift or change in pitching moment

Fuselage mounted speed brakes best suited

244
Q

Why won’t ground spoilers operate in flight

A

Ground spoiler shut off valve

Looks for weight on wheels and wheel spin up

245
Q

What happens to spoilers if throttles advanced

A

All spoilers retracted

246
Q

What are the properties of duralumin

A

Aluminium / copper base

Hard to weld

Good thermal / electrical conductivity

(Not poor resistance to corrosion it’s just more susceptible)

247
Q

What is a pressure controller for pneumatic systems

A

Senses pressure outside and inside = adjusts accordingly

248
Q

When does a pneumatic system safety valve operate

A

When 0.25 PSI above max differential pressure

249
Q

Where does bleed air come from at low engine speeds

A

Low and high pressure stages of the high pressure compressor

250
Q

Where does bleed air come from at high engine speeds

A

Low pressure stages or the high pressure compressor

251
Q

How is moisture removed from the air in the pneumatic system

A

Moisture separator = takes out most of the moisture

Dissident = removes all remaining moisture

252
Q

What is a spill valve

A

Dumps air overboard if too much

Controlled by mass flow controller

253
Q

What is a engine driver compressions (pneumatics)

A

Rotates blower = cabin compression

254
Q

What is the purpose of a choke heat valve

A

Raise temperature of air if required

255
Q

What does a choke valve do

A

Provides back pressure to blower

256
Q

What is the high pressure shut off valve for (HPSOV)

A

Open relatively slowly on engine start to prevent surge of air pressure

Also close quickly to prevent ingress of fumes or fire into cabin

257
Q

What do light aircraft use for air conditioning

A

Ram air

258
Q

What do medium sized aircraft use for cabin conditioning

A

Takes ram air through combustion heater = burns fuel to heat air

259
Q

What is the purpose of air conditioning

A

To supply a constant delivery of clean air to cockpit and cabin within a set temp range

260
Q

What is conditioned air

A

Air which has been treated for pressure and temperature

261
Q

What is the minimum mass of air per person per minute (normal system)

A

1 pound / person / min

262
Q

What is the minimum mass of air per person per minute (after system failure)

A

0.5 pounds / person / minute

263
Q

Maximum carbon monoxide that a pax can be exposed to

A

1 part per 20,000

264
Q

Cabin temp range must be within

A

18-24°c

265
Q

What is a mass flow controller

A

Ensures constant mass flow regardless of engine rpm

266
Q

Where will you find the water separator in a bootstrap system

A

Downstream of cold air unit / turbine

267
Q

Where is the biggest drop in temp for a bootstrap system

A

Secondary heat exchange /intercooler

268
Q

If on ground and not a lot of ram air (low speed) what do you use

A

Ground cooling fan

269
Q

What is a centrifugal water separator

A

Air driver fan throws water outwards

270
Q

What is a impingement water separator

A

Air hits collector tubes

Runs down tubes

271
Q

Where can air not be recirculated from

A

Toilets and galleys

272
Q

What is trim air

A

Hot air taken from before conditioning air pack = introduced to conditioned air to control temp

273
Q

What is a Punkah louvres

A

The nozzle above your head u can control your air with

274
Q

What is the max differential pressure of a jet aircraft

A

9 psi

275
Q

What is max cabin altitude for a emergency

A

15,000ft

276
Q

Altitude where cabin oxygen system automatically drops

A

14,000ft

277
Q

Altitude where cabin altitude warning system operates

A

10,000ft

278
Q

Max cabin altitude for normal operation

A

8,000ft

279
Q

cabin climb rate for comfort

A

500fpm

280
Q

Cabin descent rate for passenger comfort

A

300fpm

281
Q

Max cabin altitude rate of change

A

1800fpm

282
Q

Max negative differential pressure

A

0.5 psi

283
Q

Max positive differential pressure

A

9 psi

284
Q

What is the ditching control

A

Close outflow valves in event of water landing

285
Q

Why can’t you pressurise on the ground

A

Weight on wheels

Automatically opens outflow valves

286
Q

What is ground flight switch for cabin pressurisation

A

Stops nasty fumes from
Other aircraft while on ground

Puts in 0.1=psi

287
Q

On landing what happens to aircraft pressure

A

Weight on wheels = dumps all pressure except 0.1 psi

Set “ground” = dumps final 0.1psi

288
Q

What is the pressure around 30,000

A

4 psi

289
Q

What is the pressure at 8000’

A

11 psi

290
Q

What happens in terms of pressurisation at 10,000ft

A

Aural / visual cabin altitude warning

291
Q

When does the auto fail light on pressure control panel illuminate

A

13,850ft

292
Q

When do the passenger oxygen masks automatically drop

A

14,000ft

293
Q

3 types of ice

A

Hoar frost

Most likely in clouds;
Rime ice
Clear / glaze ice

294
Q

5 techniques of de / anti icing

A

Hot bleed air

Hot engine oil

Electrically heated mats

Pneumatically operated mats

Fluid de icing

295
Q

5 types of ice detection devices in common use

A 
Hot rod 
Vibrating 
Pressure 
Rotary 
Inferential
296
Q

What is a hot rod ice detector

A

Aerofoil shape protruding from fuselage but visible from cockpit

No ice on detector = no ice on wings

297
Q

What is a vibrating rod ice detection system

A

Vibrates at roughly 40khz

When ice = vibrates slower = ice sensed

298
Q

What is a pressure ice detector

A

Probe sticks out of aircraft with holes in the front and back

If holes ice up = no pressure
Therefor ice

299
Q

What is a rotary ice detector

A

Rotor spins, if ice builds up = blade tries to cut it off = slows rotation = ice sensed

300
Q

What is a inferential ice detector

A

Detects conditions necessary for ice to build up

301
Q

How much ice needs to build up for pneumatic boots to be operated

A

1.5cm

302
Q

What is the state of the pneumatic icing boots when the system is turned off

A

Vacuum to suck tubes to leading edge

303
Q

What is a fluid based ice protection system

A

Uses alcoholic / anti freeze fluid thingy to melt ice / stop it forming

Fluid come out of distribution panels

Sometimes called a weeping wing

Can run out of fluid mid air

304
Q

What is a head compensation valve

A

Fluid de icing system

Ensures fluid goes to all parts of the system

305
Q

What are panel distributors

A

Fluid de icing system

On leading edge of wing

More economical and efficient than strip distributors

Can not be used on surfaces with double curvature

306
Q

What is thermal ice protection

A

Used hot air

Leading edges warmed by hot air ducts
Can heat slats

Not leading edge flaps

Only some tail sections

Once air is used = exhausted to atmosphere

307
Q

What is the main anti-icing for turbo props

A

Thermal = hot air

308
Q

Turbo prop de icing is most likely

A

Pneumatic boots

309
Q

How is thermal anti icing for a turbo prop produced

A

Take ram air and pass it through thermal heat exchange

310
Q

How are turboprop engine intake normally protected against ice

A

Tend to be electronic heating elements

311
Q

How are propellers normally protected against ice

A

Anti icing =fluid system

De icing = electrical thermal

Only inner 3rd or propeller

312
Q

How is the spinner (hub) anti iced

A

Alway electrically

313
Q

How is jet engine fan / nose cone anti iced

A

Hot engine oil / air

Crew has no control over this

314
Q

How is the electrical power delivered to the heating elements for a propeller ice depletion heating system

A

Carbon brushes

And

Slip rings

315
Q

How does a propeller fluid system deliver the fluid for ice depletion

A

Uses a slinger ring

316
Q

How are windscreens ice protected

A

Dc controlled

Ac powered

Temperature control from a control unit keeping it in a reasonable band

317
Q

What are windscreen wipers

A

Has Independent 2 speeds

May be electrically or hydraulically powered

Should not be used on a dry windscreen

318
Q

Purpose of a fuel system

A

Supply main aircraft engines with sufficient fuel at a given pressure under all operating conditions

319
Q

Integral fuel tank

A

Interior structure of wing forms boundaries of tank

Saves weight
Maintenance may be difficult

320
Q

Flexibility / bag fuel tank

A

Made from rubberised fabric

Attached to structure using chords and buttons

Used for awkward locations
Easier maintenance

Reasonable weight

Can be made self sealing

321
Q

Drum fuel tanks

A

Rigid tank made from aluminium

322
Q

What should be the characteristics of fuel

A 
Low flash point 
Good lubrication 
Non corrosive 
Usable across wide temp range 
Anti knock properties
323
Q

What colour is AVGAS 100LL

A

Blue

324
Q

What colour is AVGAS 100

A

Green

325
Q

What colour is AVGAS 80

A

Red

Used for low compression ratio engines

326
Q

What is MOGAS

A

Used for some low powered engines

Not allowed for commercial operations

327
Q

What is JET A1

A

Sg 0.8 at 15°c

Has FSII icing inhibitor which lowers the waxing point to -47°c

Jet A = no inhibitor

328
Q

What is JET B

A

Wide cut- gasoline / kerosene mix of avgas and avtur

Low flash point

Waxing point -60°c

Usually military

329
Q

Is avtur died a colour

A

No

330
Q

If a fuel sample is cloudy and the cloud rises…

A

Air

331
Q

If a fuel sample is cloudy and cold falls

A

Water

332
Q

What additives may be added to jet fuel

A

FSII (fuel system icing inhibitor)

Contains an icing inhibitor and fungal suppressant

333
Q

What is the fuel system in a light aircraft

A

Usually rigid tanks in wings

May be gravity fed or pressure pump

Measure volume

Collector tank ensures fuel available to engine at all times

334
Q

Why might a fuel tank be pressurised

A

Stop fuel from boiling at high altitudes

335
Q

What will you do if there is a fuel imbalance

A

Booster pump on from tank you want to take fuel from

Open crossfeed valve

Close booster pumps on fuel tank with lower fuel level

336
Q

Where will you find a fuel tank temperature sensor

A

Tip

337
Q

What are fuel booster pumps

A

Normally gotten in pairs

Low pressure centrifugal pump

Aircraft electrical motor 115/200v

400hz 3 phase

Switched on by dc

25-50 psi

High flow rate capability

338
Q

What is a fuel venting system

A

Prevent pressure build up in tanks

Allows air in during fuel usage

Allows air to escape during refuelling

Vent surge tank collects droplets of fuel about to escape from vent = lowers fuel loss

339
Q

How is a fuel tank usually pressurised

A

Ram air to give slight positive pressure to prevent boiling of fuel at high levels

340
Q

In the event of a failure of the fuel gauging system what happens

A

Driven slowly towards zero

341
Q

How can u check fuel level manually

A

Drip stick

Magnetic level indicator

342
Q

How quickly must you be able to jettison fuel

A

Be able to reduce weight to MLM in 15 mins

343
Q

What is optical and ionisation fire detection

A

Optical = light refracted by presence of smoke particles into a photo-electric cell

Ionisation = smoke stops current flow through ionised air

344
Q

What does the fire suppression system shut off

A

Hydraulics
Bleed air
Isolated engine driven electrical generator
Arms extinguisher squibs

345
Q

Where does fire detection / protection system must be fitted

A

Engines
Apu
Cargo compartments
Main wheel wells

346
Q

What is a designated fire zone

A

Area where risk of fire following failure or leakage of any component or equipment

347
Q

Examples of fire zones

A

Manufacturer designated areas:

Hydraulic bays
Baggage holds
Toilets
Galley areas

348
Q

What is fire wire

A

Continuous detection

Continuous double loop = both loops having to detect a fire before initiating a warning

Usually have a negative coefficient of resistance
Or
Positive coefficient of capacitance

Needs to give a rapid warning within 5 seconds

349
Q

What is a FFFD

A

Fault free fire detector

Positive coefficient of capacitance fire wire

Does not result in a false warning

350
Q

What effect do CO2 / BCF / halon / methyl bromide engine fire extinguishers have

A

Non as long as engine turned over following use

351
Q

What effect does foam or dry powder engine fire extinguishers have

A

Engine needs to be stripped and rebuild

352
Q

Bimetallic overheat sensors

A

Principle of differential rate of expansion of dissimilar materials

Time delay Prevent false warnings due to vibration

353
Q

Standard engine fire drill

A 
Cancel fire bell
Close throttle 
Shut the HP cock 
Pull fire handle 
Discharge fire extinguishers

If after 30 seconds still illuminated = use second extinguisher

354
Q

When do you need fire extinguishers system in toilet

A

Pax seating of 20 or more

355
Q

What colour are aviation oxygen bottles

A

Painted black with white neck = British

Green = European / American

356
Q

When is a quick don mask required

A

Above 25,000ft

357
Q

How many pax oxygen masks are required

A

110% of the passenger seats

2 in the toilet

358
Q

How do chemical generators work

A

Sodium chlorate reacts with iron

359
Q

Crew portable oxygen pressure and litre capacity

A

1800psi

120 litres

360
Q

First aid oxygen requirements

A

120 litres
1800psi

2% of pax but never less than 1 when >8000ft

361
Q

Smoke hood time requirements

A

Oxygen generator with 15 mins supply

ATPL AGK (3 decks)

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