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Sys CRJ > Systems > Flashcards

Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What are the hot buses in the airplane?

A

APU BATT DIR
MAIN BATTERY DIR
DC EMER BUS – includes fire extinguishers

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2
Q

What does the AC ESS XFER switchlight mean if it’s illuminated?

A

AC ESS BUS is not being powered by AC BUS 1

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3
Q

When would this light normally be on?

AC ESS XFER S/W light

A

• When you first turn on the Battery Master
• When the ADG deploys
• If you press it to switch the ESS BUS power to AC BUS 2

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4
Q

If we lose AC BUS 2, how many buses do we lose?

A

AC BUS 2
AC SERV BUS
AC UTIL BUS 1 – losing AC Bus 2 will kick off IDG2, so we’re down to single-gen AC UTIL BUS 2
DC UTIL BUS 1
DC UTIL BUS 2
Both DC TIE 1 and DC TIE 2 would close so that AC BUS 1 can power the left side of the DC system.

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5
Q

What are the conditions under which the AC UTIL buses will load-shed?

A

Flaps > 0
Single generator
Weight on wheels
Doors closed

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6
Q

What is AC power priority?

A

Onside generator > APU Gen > Cross-side gen > External AC Power

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7
Q

If the L or R AUTO XFER FAIL switchlight illuminates, what does that mean?

Why might that happen?

A

There’s been a fault on that AC Bus and the system has inhibited AC power priority.

Short in that bus (AC Bus 1 or AC Bus 2) and system is responding.

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8
Q

Can you re-set it if the airplane inhibits the priority?

fault on that AC Bus and the system has inhibited AC power priority.

A

No

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9
Q

How would we isolate AC Bus 1?

A

Press the AC ESS XFER switchlight to transfer AC ESS BUS to AC Bus 2

Press the L AUTO XFER FAIL switchlight to inhibit power priority

Turn the L GEN off. That will isolate the AC Bus 1.

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10
Q

If we turn the L GEN off, can we reverse that?

A

Yes

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11
Q

What is an IDG?

A

Integrated Drive Generator

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12
Q

What makes up the IDG?

A

Generator and the constant speed drive

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13
Q

What happens if an IDG Fault light illuminates?

A

Indicates HOTLOP (High Oil Temp, Low Oil Pressure)

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14
Q

Would the IDG still be producing power in this case?

Fault HOTLOP

A

Yes

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15
Q

What would cause the IDG to disconnect automatically?

A

Overtorque or high case temperature

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16
Q

Can we disconnect the IDG?

A

Yes, by pressing the IDG switchlight

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17
Q

Can we reverse this?

Pressing IDG switch light and disconnecting IDG

A

No, it’s not reversible.

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18
Q

When we turn on Battery Master, what is being powered?

A

“Hockey stick” on DC page:
APU BATT DIR BUS
MAIN BATT DIR BUS
BATT BUS

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19
Q

If you were sitting at the gate, with Batt Master on, what one thing could you immediately do to have the battery power the DC ESS BUS?

A

Pull the ADG handle (not a good idea)

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20
Q

What is required for ADG deployment?

A

Parking brake off
Weight off wheels
Loss of all AC power
Last source of power has to have been internal

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21
Q

What’s the difference between EMER POWER ONLY and Loss of all AC Power?

A

Loss of all AC Power means the ADG didn’t deploy.

EMER POWER means the ADG deploys and we’re using that.

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22
Q

What hydraulic pump can be powered when the ADG deploys?

A

3B

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23
Q

How many hydraulic pumps do we have on the airplane?

A

6

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24
Q

How many hydraulic pumps are AC pumps?

A

4

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25
Q

We’re at the gate prior to pushback. What hydraulic pumps are operating?

A

3A

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26
Q

Prior to engine start, we put flaps down and we have the APU running. Which hydraulic pumps are running?

A

3A

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27
Q

Captain starts right engine, flaps are down. What pumps are running now?

A

1B, 2A, 3A, 3B

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28
Q

After second engine start, flaps down, how many pumps are running?

A

All Pumps

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29
Q

If we lose the right engine, do we lose any hydraulic systems?

A

No

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30
Q

What is low pressure in the hydraulic system?

A

1800 PSI

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31
Q

Which pumps come on when you get low pressure?

A

None

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32
Q

If we lose Hydraulic Systems 2 and 3, what things do we need to keep in mind when we come in to land?

A

Brake accumulators will give you up to 6 brake applications.

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33
Q

What’s the biggest hydraulic system on the airplane?

A

System 3

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34
Q

What kind of cooling does this hydraulic system have?

A

Ambient air (in MLG bays)

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35
Q

How are Systems 1 and 2 cooled?

A

Ram air cooling. Also, hydraulic fluid can assist in cooling the casing.

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36
Q

What’s required for the anti-skid system to be armed?

A
  • Arming switch on
    • Main Gear down and locked

* Parking brake off

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37
Q

What’s required for the anti-skid to activate?

A

Weight on wheels > 5 seconds Wheel speed > 35 knots

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38
Q

When will anti skid deactivate?

A

When speed is below 10 knots

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39
Q

How do we ensure that we accurately check the brake wear indicators?

A

Hydraulic System 2 & 3 on

Parking brake set

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40
Q

Which hydraulic system operates the landing gear?

A

System 3

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41
Q

What provides the electronic signal to operate the landing gear?

A

The PSEU (proximity sensor)

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42
Q

When we pull the landing gear emergency extension handle, what happens?

A

• Releases pressure in system 2 and 3
• Releases uplocks
• Activates MLG extend assist actuators

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43
Q

How do we stop the main tires from spinning after retraction?

A

Nosegear relief line applies pressure to stop the spinning

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44
Q

How do we stop the nose tire from spinning after retraction?

A

It spins itself down.

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45
Q

When we push the ENG FIRE PUSH light, what does that do?

A
  • Shuts off fuel, hydraulics, bleed air SOVs

* Trips off generator
• Arms the squibs on the firex bottles

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46
Q

What areas have detection and firefighting capabilities?

A

Engines
APU
Cargo
Lavatory

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47
Q

What areas have fire detection only, no extinguishing?

A

Jetpipe/ pylons
MLG bays
Bleed Air Duct (fuselage up to wing root)

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48
Q

When you run the FIREX test, you are missing a warning message. What does that indicate?

A

An Open Loop

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49
Q

Can an open loop detect any sort of fire?

A

Yes, but not in the place where it’s open.

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50
Q

We do the FIREX test and get an APU FIRE FAIL caution. What does this mean?

A

We have a SHORT/SHORT indication in both APU fire loops, or a NORMAL/FIRE indication

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51
Q

When you push the L ENG FIRE PUSH switch, do any other switches light up?

A

Both BOTTLE 1/ BOTTLE 2 PUSH TO DISCH light up (green)

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52
Q

Both BOTTLE 1/ BOTTLE 2 PUSH TO DISCH light up (green)
What does this mean?

A

The bottles are armed and have sufficient pressure.

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53
Q

What do we have in the Cargo compartment as far as fire detection?

A

2 smoke detectors in the ceiling

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54
Q

If the smoke detectors recognize smoke in the Cargo, what happens?

A 
CARGO SMOKE Caution on EICAS CARGO 
SMOKE PUSH illuminates 
Inlet Air SOV shut off 
Conditioned Air SOV shut off 
Exhaust SOV shut off
Heater shut off Fan shut off
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55
Q

If you press the BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCHG for the Cargo, what happens?

A

Both Cargo Firex bottles discharge. One is immediate, one is metered over :45 minutes.

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56
Q

When you turn the Cargo switch from COND AIR to FAN, what happens?

A

• Heater shuts off
• Conditioned Air shuts off
• Now the cargo only gets recirculated exhaust air from the cabin

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57
Q

What’s the difference between a missing Warning message and a FIRE FAIL message on fire tests?

A

A missing warning message: You have an open loop

A FIRE FAIL message: There is a short in the loop

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58
Q

When does the aircraft start to automatically balance the fuel?

A

When the difference exceeds 200 lbs.

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59
Q

How much does the auto balance system transfer?

A

Until the low tank is 50 lbs higher than the other one.

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60
Q

Can we manually balance fuel? How?

A

Yes. Select MAN XFLOW and then press the switch on the tank where you want to send fuel to.

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61
Q

Will the fuel transfer do an auto-shutoff in manual transfer mode?

A

No

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62
Q

When is the Fuel Imbalance Caution message generated?

A

800 LBs imbalance

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63
Q

Fuel Imbalance Caution message on

If this message comes on, what has probably failed?

A

The APU / XFLOW pump has failed.

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64
Q

How do the collector tanks get their fuel?

A

The scavenge ejector sends fuel from the main tanks to the collector tanks

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65
Q

Is there a backup to get fuel from main tanks to collector tanks?

A

Yes, gravity feed lines get the fuel to the collector tanks.

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66
Q

How does the fuel move from collector tanks to engines?

A

Main ejectors.

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67
Q

How does the main ejector work?

A

Motive flow provided by the engine-driven pumps.

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68
Q

If a main ejector failed, how do we get fuel from collector tanks to the engine pumps?

A

DC Boost Pumps

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69
Q

What conditions need to be met for the boost pumps to come on?

A
  • Pump armed

* Low pressure on that side

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70
Q

If one boost pump activates, what happens to the other?

A

It also activates

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71
Q

Where do the transfer ejectors move fuel from?

A

Center tank to main tank

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72
Q

If a transfer ejector fails, what backs that up?

A

There is no back up other then the other transfer ejector

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73
Q

If both transfer ejectors fail, can we get fuel out of the center tank?

A

No

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74
Q

Where do the scavenge ejectors get their motive flow from?

A

Engine driven Fuel Pumps

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75
Q

Where do the transfer ejectors get their motive flow from?

A

Main Ejectors

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76
Q

How do we transfer fuel from the center tank to the main tank?

A

We don’t do it manually. It is automatic anytime the main tanks are below 94% full.

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77
Q

At what point does the fuel transfer to the main tank stop?

A

When the main tanks are back to 100% (4,760 lbs)

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78
Q

We come out to a cold dark airplane with no ground power and APU. What do we have to keep in mind for starting an engine? How do we get fuel to the engines with no power?

A

Turn on Battery Master
• Ignition B is DC powered off the BATT BUS.
• Left boost pump is DC powered off the BATT BUS. • Need high-pressure air source.

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79
Q

What is the primary purpose of the APU?

A

Generate AC Power

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80
Q

Before we start the APU, what messages are we looking for?

A

No APU FIRE FAIL message.

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81
Q

On the DC ELEC page, what messages are we looking for before starting APU (when we turn on battery master?)

A
  • No CHARGER message

* At least 22V on both batteries

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82
Q

When we start the APU, what indications are we looking for after we hit APU PWR/FUEL?

A

DIGS
Door Open
In Bite
Gauges
SOV open

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83
Q

When does the starter cut out on the APU?

A

50% RPM

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84
Q

When does the AVAIL light illuminate on the APU?

A

99% RPM

85
Q

How long do we wait after the AVAIL light illuminates before we draw bleed air from it?

A

2 Minutes

86
Q

In flight, when we start APU, why do we press the APU PWR/FUEL and START buttons in rapid succession?

A

Within 5 seconds, so APU doesn’t windmill above 8%. Otherwise the ECU will Inhibit start.

87
Q

Describe the APU LCV interlock protection

A

Based on switch position, designed to protect the APU from hot engine bleed air backflowing into it. If you press the L 10th stage bleed, or ISOL/ R 10th bleed,
the APU LCV will close.

88
Q

What is the purpose of the APU LCV?

A

It modulates the load being placed on the APU.

Balances between electric and bleed air.

89
Q

What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed air use?

A

15,000 FT MSL

90
Q

What is the maximum altitude at which you can use APU bleed air to start an engine?

A

13,000 FT. MSL

91
Q

We lose an APU RPM signal in the air. What happens?

A

APU shuts down in the flight.

92
Q

Will the APU fire bottle ever automatically fire in flight?

A

No

93
Q

How far is the APU exhaust danger zone?

A

15 ft.

94
Q

When you push an engine START switch, what happens?

A

L/R 10th stage valve opens
ISOL valve opens
ATS (Air Turbine Starter) opens on the associated engine
Both pack PRSOVs close

95
Q

What are the 2 ways to control engine speed?

A

Electronic (N1): Available above 79% N1 if we have the Engine Speed switches on.

Hydro-mechanical (N2): Available 0% – 100%.

96
Q

What items are on the engine accessory gearbox?

A

• IDG
• Hydraulic pump
• Engine-driven fuel pump
• Alternator – powers the amplifier for N1 speed control, so you still have N1 speed control if you lose electrical power. Also provides speed signal for N2 gauges.
• Oil pump
• ATS (air turbine starter)

97
Q

What is APR?

A

Automatic Power Reserve. Increases engine power by 2% in the event of an engine failure.

98
Q

If you’re doing a flex takeoff, by how much will the APR increase power in an engine failure?

A

Only by 2% above the flex takeoff value.

99
Q

Will you still have more power available If you’re doing a flex takeoff?

A

Yes, you can always manually add power.

100
Q

What are the conditions required to arm the APR?

A

• APR Arm switches on
• Engine speed switches on
• Both N1s > 79%
• Weight on wheels
• 2 DCUs operating
• Both engine ECUs operating

101
Q

How long does APR arm for?

A

5 mins

102
Q

How do we know if APR is activated?

A

APR will show on N1 gauge of engine where it’s firing

103
Q

What are the conditions required to activate APR?

A

One engine > 79% N1 and the other below 67.6% N1

104
Q

When do we use continuous ignition?

A
  • Contaminated runway
    • Greater than 10 knots crosswind
  • Flight in moderate or heavier precip
    • Flight in moderate or heavier turbulence
  • Flight in vicinity of thunderstorms
105
Q

Does continuous ignition automatically activate?

A

Yes in high AOA situations

106
Q

What do we need in order for thrust reversers to be available?

A
  • Thrust reversers armed
  • 14th stage bleed air open
  • Weight on wheels
    • Wheel speed > 16 kts
    • Thrust levers idle
107
Q

What’s normally displayed on ED1?

A

Primary page.

108
Q

If ED2 fails, does anything automatically happen?

A

No

109
Q

If ED2 fails and you want to see the Status page, what can you do?

A

Put the DRP on EICAS and view the Status page on your MFD
Or – turn Source Select Panel to ED1 and scroll through to Status page

110
Q

If the EICAS control panel (ECP) fails, do any buttons remain active?

A

PRI, STAT, CAS, and STEP

111
Q

Both ED1 and ED2 fail. How can you display EICAS pages?

A

Go to DRP and select EICAS.
Assuming both CA and FO choose EICAS, the
PRI page will show up on the CA’s MFD and the STATUS page shows up on FO’s MFD.

112
Q

How can we view more pages of Status messages?

A

STAT Button

113
Q

How can we view more pages of Caution messages?

A

CAS Button

114
Q

Can you box a page of Caution messages?

A

Yes, just one page. BUT – you need both engines running

115
Q

Can you box Warning messages?

A

No

116
Q

How do you get rid of Warning messages?

A

You can’t. You have to resolve the condition that caused in in the first place.

117
Q

If you have boxed Caution messages, what happens when another Caution occurs?

A

The new message appears and the Caution boxed messages move down.
Press CAS again to open the box, then CAS a second time to box all the messages (including the most recent message.)

118
Q

When we get a Warning or Caution message, and we push the Warning or Caution light, what do they do?

A

Cancels the light and resets the system for new Warning/Caution messages.

119
Q

What is the radar danger area?

A

2 FT from the radome

120
Q

What documents do you need on the airplane?

A

Q SAGA HAMMER
QRH, Speed Cards, Gear Pins, AFM, Hazmat, Airworthiness, MEL/CDL, Maintenance Can, EGPWS Manual, Registration Cert

121
Q

Where do we look for security seals?

A

Aft equipment bay (x2) and TRU nose panels (x2) = 4 in total

122
Q

When you turn on the EMER LIGHT switch, what does that do?

A

turns on the emergency lights.

123
Q

Where are EMER lights powered from?

A

Four dedicated batteries, located in various locations around the airplane.

124
Q

Do we have other emergency lights?

A

Photoluminescent (glow in the dark) strips along cabin floor, require 15 minutes of exposure to light in order to charge

125
Q

We’re parked just before takeoff, we’ve been waiting for 10 minutes. Do we need to do anything?

A

Turn off all taxi and landing lights

126
Q

On overnights, you’ll notice water draining out of bottom of the aircraft. Why?

A

They’re draining potable water so it doesn’t freeze.

127
Q

Where would you see indications from the potable water heaters?

A

In the galley. Nothing in the cockpit.

128
Q

How do we pressurize the aircraft?

A

Via air distributed through the packs

129
Q

How do the outflow valves operate?

A

A jet pump uses 10th-stage air to provide vacuum pressure to open the outflow valves

130
Q

What controls the outflow valves?

A

2 CPCs – Cabin Pressure Controllers.

131
Q

How do we know which CPC we’re using?

A

Shown on ECS synoptic page

132
Q

How do we switch between CPCs?

A

Automatically: 3 minutes after landing, or
Manually: press “PRESS CONT” switch twice

133
Q

What does the left pack supply conditioned air for?

A

Flight deck

134
Q

What does the right pack supply conditioned air for?

A

Cabin

135
Q

If we get a HIGH PRESS message from one of the packs and we’re running off the APU, what’s going to happen?

A

Pack will shut down. (PRSOV will close)

136
Q

If we get a HIGH PRESS message from one of the packs and the bleed air source is the engines, what’s going to happen?

A

• Pack will shut down (PRSOV closes).
• Associated engine 10th stage bleed air valve closes
. • 10th stage ISOL valve closes

137
Q

If we push the EMER DEPRESS at FL180, what will happen to cabin altitude?

A

It will go up to 14,250’ +/- 750’.

138
Q

If we push EMER Depress at 10,000’ MSL, what will happen?

A

The cabin altitude will go to 10,000’.

139
Q

When would we get a BLEED MISCONFIG message?

A

• We’re using both 10th and 14th stage air from the engines
• We’re in takeoff/ landing config (flaps > 0 or landing gear down)

140
Q

How do you transfer the bleeds from the engines to the APU?

A

Start APU – altitude limit 30,000’ for start
Hit APU LCV, L 10th, ISOL, R 10th in that order. (Alt. limit 15,000’ for bleed air use)

141
Q

In what circumstances would we use the RAM AIR? What’s its purpose?

A

When both packs fail. This bypasses the packs completely and helps with cooling.

142
Q

Can the RAM AIR pressurize the cabin?

A

No

143
Q

Can you use RAM AIR if the cabin is pressurized?

A

No, there can’t be any pressure differential.

144
Q

When will CPAM generate a Cabin Alt caution message?

A

When cabin altitude is 8,500’ or higher

145
Q

When does CPAM generate a Cabin Warning?

A

When cabin alt is 10,000’ or higher

146
Q

When will CPAM drop the passenger O2 masks?

A

When cabin alt is 14,000’ or higher

147
Q

How are the primary flight controls actuated?

A

Mechanical input, hydraulically actuated.

148
Q

What indication would I get if there’s a PCU runaway?

A

You’ll get a green PLT ROLL or CPLT ROLL light on the glareshield.

149
Q

What system detects the PCU runaway?

A

The bungee breakout microswitch, which alerts the SECU to transfer spoileron control to the other side.

150
Q

If your aileron jams, what do you do?

A

Reference QRH.
Then, pull the ROLL DISC handle, determine which yoke isn’t jammed.
Then press ROLL SEL button on the good side.

151
Q

If you wait more than 20 seconds before pressing the ROL SEL button (after you’ve pulled ROL DISC), what happens?

A

The amber ROLL SEL switchlight illuminates.

152
Q

Which hydraulic system runs the rudder?

A

1,2,3

153
Q

If we had a jammed right aileron, could we re-engage the autopilot?

A

No, The aileron servo is on the right side.

154
Q

We get an ICE CAUTION message in flight. What does that indicate?

A

One of the ice detector probes has detected ice, and the wing temperature isn’t warm enough.

155
Q

Once the wings warm up, will the message change?

A

Yes, to an Ice Advisory.

156
Q

How does the ice detection probe work?

A

It vibrates at 40,000 HZ. When ice accretes, it changes the vibrations and this trips the detector.

157
Q

Is the ice detection probe heated?

A

Yes, if ice is detected, it is heated for 5 seconds, then no heat for 55 seconds. If no more ice is detected, the heat stays off.

158
Q

If we had a bleed leak detected in the leading edge of the wing, how would we recognize that?

A

• ANTI-ICE DUCT Warning appears on EICAS.
• DUCT FAIL switchlight illuminates

159
Q

What’s detecting the bleed leak?

A

Spot detectors. The anti-ice ducts sit inside a larger tube with pre-drilled holes. If there’s a leak, hot air leaks out of the larger tube and sets off the spot detectors.

160
Q

What does the WING OVHT message indicate and what trips that warning?

A

Thermal sensors in the wing root indicate that the wing temperature is exceeding limits.

161
Q

If we get a WING OVHT message and we’re in the NORM mode on wing anti-ice, what do we do?

A

Open the QRH and reference that. It will say to switch Wing A/I to STBY and monitor.

162
Q

What’s the difference between NORM and STBY for wing anti-ice?

A

NORM: Valves modulate to maintain a higher wing temperature

STBY: Valve switches from fully open to fully closed to maintain a lower wing temperature

163
Q

If the captain asks for windshield wipers, what limitation do you have?

A

220 kts max airspeed

164
Q

During walkaround we see a plug popped out of the engine cowl. What does that indicate?

A

Overpressure in the cowl anti-ice.

165
Q

In an emergency descent, how do we establish crew communication?

A
  • Switch comm switches to MASK

* Ensure INT/SVC is on.
• Ensure IC is on.
• Turn on SPEAKER

166
Q

On your RTU, if you didn’t want to reach over to the CA’s RTU and tune COM1, can you set frequencies in your RTU?

A

Yes with 1/2 Button

167
Q

If one RTU fails (say COM2), could we still tune COM2?

A

Yes. On BTU, press RTU2 INHIBIT, then use the 1/2 button on COM1 to tune COM2.

168
Q

If you lose both RTUs, how do we tune the radios?

A

Through the FMS. You can also use the BTU for COM1/NAV1.

169
Q

What’s the BTU used for?

A

• Tuning COM1 and NAV1 if we’ve lost both RTUs.
• Getting your clearance without powering up the airplane (since it runs off the battery). You have to use the hand mike, though.

170
Q

How many COMs do we have on the airplane?

A

3

171
Q

What is COM3 used for?

A

Voice or ACARS (data)

172
Q

How could we use COM3 for voice?

A

Press the VOICE switchlight next to the landing gear handle. Tune it with RTU1.

173
Q

When ACARS is in use, what would you see in the COM3 frequency display on RTU1?

A

Dashed Lines

174
Q

We’re climbing out and we get a yellow Windshear Advisory. What does that indicate?

A

Increasing performance windshear.

175
Q

What action is required in response to the Windshear Advisory?

A

None, just monitor

176
Q

Is there an altitude limit on windshear warning/ advisories?

A

1,500 AGL

177
Q

Will the autopilot fly windshear escape guidance?

A

Yes, but for only 2 seconds.

178
Q

What does the green line indicate on our airspeed tape?

A

Low speed awareness cue

179
Q

What is the low speed awareness cue based on?

A

25% above stickshaker speed.

180
Q

When is the low speed awareness cue most accurate?

A

Flaps 45

181
Q

If we get a HDG flag on the PFD what does that mean?

A

We have a problem (invalid data or miscompare) from the AHRS.

182
Q

If we get a VSI flag what does that mean?

A

Invalid data or miscompare from the ADC.

183
Q

What does the airspeed trend vector indicate?

A

Airspeed will be in 10 seconds

184
Q

If we had a PFD fail, what can we do?

A

Go to the DRP (Display Reversionary Panel) and switch to ‘PFD.’

185
Q

If our side DCP fails, how can we control our side display?

A

Go to the SSP (Source Select Panel) and turn DISP CONT to the good display.

186
Q

We select the TO/GA buttons in preparation for takeoff. What pitch will our FD set?

A

12.5 degrees

187
Q

On a go-around, what does the FD pitch for?

A

10 degrees

188
Q

How do we recognize the active mode on FMA?

A

Green, left side of the vertical bar

189
Q

If we select a mode and we get two green lights on each side of the mode button, what does that tell us?

A

That both FCCs have acknowledged the request.

190
Q

ATC asks us to level off immediately, how do we do that?

A

Press ALT button

191
Q

What can we have displayed on the FMS Map?

A

Traffic & Radar

192
Q

Can we display traffic and radar on FMS Plan Map?

A

No

193
Q

Resolution Advisories – how close is a target if we get an RA?

A

25 seconds from point of impact

194
Q

How do we control our radar?

A

Radar control panel on pedestal.

195
Q

How do we know that radar is set the way we want it?

A

Top line of MFD will show radar settings

196
Q

How do we know who’s controlling the radar range?

A

White range numbers on the side of whoever controls the range. Amber numbers on the other guy’s side

197
Q

Can you transfer control of the radar range to the other pilot?

A

Yes, the XFR button on the radar control on pedestal

198
Q

What value do we set tilt to for takeoff?

A

6 degrees

199
Q

If we get a SINK RATE warning, how can we fix it?

A

Climb out of trigger area

200
Q

Can we silence the glideslope warning?

A

Yes, push the PULL UP/ GRND PROX button

201
Q

Can we silence the SINK RATE warning?

A

No

202
Q

We’re doing an approach requiring ILS plus a DME from another VOR. How do we do this?

A

• On the RTU, select the VOR you want and press DME-H to hold the DME
. • You have to manually (audibly) identify the LOC signal to identify it.

203
Q

When do we get the OXY LO PRESS CAUTION MESSAGE?

A

1410 PSI and below

204
Q

If the PASS OXY light comes on, what does that indicate?

A

Either that CPAM automatically deployed the pax O2 masks, or we did it manually.

205
Q

How much time do we have for pax O2?

A

While the pax O2 lasts 13 minutes from activation, you don’t actually know from the light, because the light doesn’t tell you if they’ve activated the O2.

206
Q

If we taxi out, have a maintenance problem, and resolve it with the QRH, what do we do?

A

Continue flight. Call MX when we land.

207
Q

What are we verifying in the can to ensure airplane is airworthy?

A

Mechs signature on white sheet

208
Q

If we have a popped C/B on ground, what do we do?

A

Call MX

209
Q

If we have a popped C/B in flight, what do we do?

A

Consult QRH. PIC discretion to reset once if desired.

Sys CRJ (1 decks)

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