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CRJ 900 > Systems > Flashcards

Systems Flashcards

0
Q

What is primary source of power for CRJ?

A

AC electric power from 2 integrated drive generators (IDG)

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1
Q

What is the ADG and what does it power?

A

Air driven generator powers essential buss, hyd pump 3B, slats/flaps, and stab trim CH2

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2
Q

What is alternate power for CRJ? Emergency?

A

APU gen 40 KVA 115V 400Hz

ADG (air driven gen) 15KVA 115V 400Hz

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3
Q

What are DC power sources?

A

2 batteries: main 24V 17Amp/hr

APU 24V 43Amp/hr

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4
Q

Which battery is used to start?

A

APU battery

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5
Q

What does main battery power?

A

ECU

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6
Q

How is main battery charged?

A

Power from AC buss 1

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7
Q

How is APU battery charged?

A

From AC service buss

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8
Q

Where is main battery located?

A

Nose compartment

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9
Q

Where is APU battery located?

A

Aft service bay

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10
Q

What is max altitude for APU generator use?

A

FL 410

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11
Q

What are the AC buses?

A

Bus 1, 2, essential bus & service bus

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12
Q

In what order does AC bus 1 search for power?

A

Generator 1-APU gen-Gen 2-external power

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13
Q

How many DC buses are there and what are they?

A

9 total: Bus 1,2,service, utility,essential,battery,APU battery direct, main battery direct, & emergency bus

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14
Q

How many TRUs are there and what do they do?

A

4 total: convert 115V AC to 28V DC

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15
Q

What are TRUs rated?

A

120 amps each

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16
Q

What does the ADG power in emergency?

A

AC essential bus which also powers essential TRU 1 by doing so TRU powers essential DC bus and batt bus.

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17
Q

Are there any DC tie connectors that we can control?

A

Yes the service bus connector

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18
Q

When would you see the DC emergency bus on display?

A

Only when 1 or more routes to the bus are not powered or bus fault

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19
Q

How is the DC emergency bus powered?

A

APU battery direct bus

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20
Q

What is powered off the DC emergency bus?

A

Hyd, fuel, and bleed air SOV, squib bottles, refuel/de fuel panel and valves

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21
Q

What is max time for ground ops with batt power only? Why?

A

5 mins because ED1&2 need AC powered cooling fans

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22
Q

What buses are powered by batt master switch?

A

Main batt direct, APU batt direct & DC batt bus

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23
Q

When and how will ADG deploy?

A

Automatically with complete loss of AC power

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24
Q

How are TRUs cooled?

A

Individual fans

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25
Q

How are TRUs turned on?

A

Automatic when AC buses are powered

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26
Q

What controls the DC tie contactors?

A

DC power center (DCPC)

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27
Q

How many fuel tanks are there?

A

3, left right & center

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28
Q

How many NACA vents are there?

A

2: 1 on bottom of each wing

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29
Q

How many engine driven fuel pumps are there?

A

2

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30
Q

What happens if we lose an engine driven fuel pump?

A

Engine failure

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31
Q

Where does APU get fuel?

A

Left fuel tank collector bay

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32
Q

How many ejector pumps in fuel system and what are they?

A

8: 2 transfer ejectors, 4 scavenger ejectors, and 2 main ejectors all motive flow

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33
Q

How many electric fuel pumps are there? How are they powered? What do they do?

A

2: DC powered, move fuel from collector tanks to engines for start & back up when low pressure detected

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34
Q

When will fuel system automatically transfer fuel?

A

200lb imbalance

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35
Q

What is max fuel imbalance for take off? In flight?

A

300lb t/o. 800lb flight

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36
Q

What is min temp of fuel for take off?

A

-30°C

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37
Q

What is min fuel temp in flight?

A

Above -40°C

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38
Q

How is engine fuel heated?

A

Fuel/oil heat exchanger

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39
Q

What is min engine fuel temp for take off?

A

5°C

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40
Q

Is there a take off limitation if center tank has >500lb of fuel?

A

Each main must have >4400lb

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41
Q

Which bus powers the refuel/de fuel panel & SOV?

A

APU batt direct bus

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42
Q

How many probes detect fuel quantity? Where are they?

A

17 total: 6 in each main, 3 in center, 1 in each collector

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43
Q

How many MLIs (magnetic level indicators)are there?

A

5: 2 in each main and 1 in center

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44
Q

What is max load on APU?

A

40 KVA

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45
Q

What is max alt for starting APU?

A

FL370

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46
Q

What is max alt for APU operation?

A

FL410

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47
Q

What is max alt for APU bleed air extraction?

A

FL250

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48
Q

What is max speed with APU door open?

A

220 KIAS unless APU is operating, then no limit

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49
Q

What is min battery voltage for starting APU?

A

22V

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50
Q

What does the main battery power during APU start?

A

APU EPU

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51
Q

What does APU battery power during APU start?

A

Cranking of 28V DC start motor

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52
Q

When withe AVAIL switchlight of APU illuminate?

A

99% RPM +2 seconds

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53
Q

What is CRJ 900 engine model #? 700?

A

GE CF34-8C5. 700 could be -8C1, or -8C5B1

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54
Q

What is thrust rating with/without APR?

A

14,750/13,560lb

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55
Q

What is max/min ambient temp for take off & landing?

A

ISA+35°/-40°C

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56
Q

What is max alt for windmill start of engine?

A

FL210

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57
Q

What is max engine N2 split at ground idle?

A

2%

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58
Q

How much thrust is produced by bypass air, core air?

A

80%, and 20%

59
Q

How many stages of compression in engine?

A

10 stage axial flow compressor

60
Q

What accessories are driven off the N2 accessory gear box?

A

Engine driven fuel pump, IDG, air turbine starter, engine driven hyd pump, oil pump, FADEC alternator

61
Q

What is the engine bleed air used for?

A

Engine start, air conditioning, pressurization, wing & cowl ice

62
Q

What stages of bleed air are used?

A

Normally 6th stage, 10th stage used when demand exceeds 6th

63
Q

What allows 10th stage bleed air availability?

A

Air conditioning system controller (ACSC) automatically opens the HPV (high pressure valve)

64
Q

How many igniters on each engine?

A

2, IGN-A & IGN-B

65
Q

What are the required parameters before fuel is introduced during a ground start?

A

20% or greater N2, ITT<120°C

66
Q

What is the air pressure requirement provided by the operating engine to initiate a xbleed start?

A

42PSI to a max of 80% N2

67
Q

When will APR arm on take off?

A

Engine speed within 8% of scheduled take off power

68
Q

When will APR system activate?

A

Thrust levers in TOGA, N1s differ by 15% or more, or when thrust levers are in max power

69
Q

What happens when APR system activates?

A

FADEC commands N1 speed increase

70
Q

What indication will there be of APR activation?

A

Green APR icon on operable N1 gauge

71
Q

Will APR activate if engine fails during go around?

A

Yes

72
Q

What is used to deploy & stow the thrust reversers?

A

Hydraulics L uses hyd #1, R uses hyd #2

73
Q

What speeds do thrust reversers need to be stowed or idle?

A

900-60KIAS, 700-75KIAS

74
Q

What happens when a thrust reverser accidentally deploys?

A

FADEC commands reverser to close and idle on engine

75
Q

What is normal air source for engine starts?

A

APU or cross bleed if doing taxi

76
Q

What is min oil temp for start?

A

-40°C

77
Q

What is max continuous oil temp?

A

155°C

78
Q

What is max permissible oil temp?

A

163°C 15min tops

79
Q

What is max oil consumption?

A

.05 gal/hr

80
Q

Where is oil quantity displayed?

A

EICAS menu page

81
Q

When is oil capacity checked?

A

3min to 2hr after shutdown

82
Q

When should engine oil be replenished?

A

15min to 2hr after shutdown

83
Q

What is total quantity of engine oil tanks?

A

7.2 qt

84
Q

What does hyd system #1 power?

A 
Rudder & elevator
L aileron
Outboard multifunction spoiler panels
L thrust reverser
Outboard ground spoilers
85
Q

What does hyd system #2 power?

A 
Rudder & elevators
R aileron
Inboard multifunction spoiler panel
Landing gear alternate extension
Outboard brakes
R thrust reverser
86
Q

How many engine driven hydraulic pumps are there and when do they operate?

A

1 on each engine and anytime engine is running

87
Q

How many electric hydraulic pumps are there?

A

2 AC motor pumps controlled by switches on hyd panel

88
Q

When do backup AC pumps turn on?

A

With switch in auto position pumps will activate anytime flaps are selected out of 0°

89
Q

How many pumps are used for hyd system #3?

A

Two, both are AC powered

90
Q

When is hyd system #3 back up pump automatically powered?

A

If in auto mode, any time flaps selected out of 0° and whenever ADG is operating

91
Q

What does hyd system #3 power?

A 
Rudder & elevator
Ailerons
Inboard ground spoilers
Inboard brakes
Nose steering
Landing gear
92
Q

How much pressure is in each hyd system?

A

3000psi

93
Q

What is max hyd pressure?

A

3200psi

94
Q

When do we get low hyd pressure caution?

A

1800 psi

95
Q

What is normal hyd system reservoir level?

A

45-85% but could be dispatched with less

96
Q

What high temp causes caution message for hyd system?

A

96°C

97
Q

How many hyd system accumulators are there?

A

5: 1 for each system & 1 for each brake system

98
Q

How many PCUs control elevator?

A

3 PCUs per side

99
Q

What is the RTL?

A

Rudder travel limiter that prevents over stress of verticle stab

100
Q

How does RTL adjust?

A

Controlled by SSCU by inputs from slat/flap handle, airspeed, WOW, and engine

101
Q

How many PCUs control rudder?

A

3

102
Q

What is normal pressure differential?

A

8.5PSID

103
Q

What is max relief pressure differential?

A

8.7 PSID

104
Q

What is max negative pressure differential?

A

-0.5PSID

105
Q

What is max differential during taxi, take off, and landing?

A

0.1 PSID

106
Q

How long does pressurization system retain origin airport altitude?

A

10 minutes

107
Q

What is rate of climb for pressurization system? Descent?

A

300-500fpm/300fpm

108
Q

What does the Cabin pressure control panel do? (CPCP)

A

Controls auto drop of passenger O2 masks @ 14,000’, limits cabin alt to 14,500’, and controls opening & closing speed of ground valve

109
Q

When is a cabin alt caution message received?

A

8,500’. Changes to warning at 10,000’

110
Q

How many safety valves in pressurization system?

A

Two: one for over pressure and one for negative pressure

111
Q

If pressurization is in manual mode, where is it displayed?

A

EICAS primary page also ECS synoptic page

112
Q

Which cargo bays are pressurized?

A

Forward and aft but only aft is ventilated for animal transport

113
Q

What happens when EMER DEPRESS switchlight is pressed?

A

Manual DC motor drives outflow valve fully open, cabin alt is measured by sensor in control panel, failure of microprocessor will cause standby CPC to generate EICAS messages, control panel microprocessor restricts cabin alt to 14,500’, and if below 14,500’ then aircraft will depress.

114
Q

How is all fire detection powered?

A

DC battery bus

115
Q

How is all fire protection powered?

A

DC emergency bus which is always powered

116
Q

What is the fire detection control unit?

A

FDCU is a computer that monitors the electrical resistance of the loops

117
Q

Where is there a dual loop system?

A

Engine area, APU compartment, along fuselage & wing bleed air ducts

118
Q

Where is a single loop detection?

A

MLG bay

119
Q

What fire protection do the engines have?

A

Dual loop detection system, extinguishing capabilities in engine core, low pressure turbine has detection only, and two fires bottles

120
Q

Where are firex bottles located and what are the composed of?

A

Aft equipment bay, charged wit halon, pressurized to 600PSI & contains two squibs

121
Q

What will pushing the ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight do?

A

Close fuel bleed and hyd SOV, arm each squib and shut down generator it will also cause the bottle armed switchlight to illuminate

122
Q

What happens when the APU FIRE PUSH switchlight is pressed?

A

Closes fuel SOV, APU load control valve, shuts down APU, arms squib and shuts down generator

123
Q

How many smoke detectors are in cargo bays?

A

3 in FWD and 2 in AFT

124
Q

When will fire warning display in FWD cargo? AFT?

A

When smoke is detected by 2 in FWD or 1 in the AFT

125
Q

What will happen when smoke is detected in cargo?

A

SMOKE FWD(AFT) CARGO warning, master warning lights and “smoke” aural warning

126
Q

How many firex bottles are dedicated to cargo?

A

FWD and AFT share 2 bottles

127
Q

What happens when firex bottle is discharged in cargo?

A

Small bottle depletes immediately & large bottle depletes over 60 min

128
Q

What happens when fwd or aft CARGO SMOKE PUSH switchlight is pushed?

A

Selects bay where bottles discharge, arms the squibs, and if aft then shuts off heater and closes a/c SOV.

129
Q

What happens when you run the MLG bay overheat test?

A

Triple chime, master warning lights, MLG BAY OVHT message and “gear bay overheat” aural message

130
Q

What happens when you run the OVHT TEST WARN FAIL test?

A

Single chime, master caution lights, and MLG OVHT FAIL caution message

131
Q

What happens when FIRE DETECTION FIREX MONITOR test is conducted?

A

FIRE SYS OK advisory message, all 3 fire switchlights illuminate and 3 bottle armed switchlights illuminate, fwd & aft cargo smoke switchlights illuminate, master warning lights, and cargo bottle armed switchlight.

132
Q

How is an unsuccessful fire test recognized?

A

The absence of FIRE SYS OK advisory message

133
Q

What two methods are used for anti-icing?

A

Hot air and electrical

134
Q

What parts of aircraft use hot air anti-icing?

A

Wing leading edges and engine intake cowls

135
Q

What uses electrical anti-icing methods?

A

Windshield, side windows, pitot static probes, alternate static ports, AOA sensors, TAT probe, ice detectors and T2 probe

136
Q

How many ice detectors are there?

A

2 probes that vibrate at high frequency and deice for 5 sec during a 60sec period

137
Q

When does cowl anti-ice need to be operating on ground? In flight?

A

OAT is 10°C or below & visible moisture is present and in air when in icing conditions or ice is detected

138
Q

What is icing conditions in flight?

A

TAT at or below 10°C and visible moisture except when SAT is -40°C or below

139
Q

When must wing anti-ice be selected on the ground? In flight?

A

On for take off when OAT is 5°C or below and visible moisture or contaminated runway. But if anti-icing fluids have been applied it must only be turned on just prior to thrust increase for take off. In flight it must be on when annunciate or in icing conditions with airspeed less than 230KIAS

140
Q

How big and what is the pressure of the cockpit oxygen bottle?

A

50cubic feet charged at 1850PSI with a pressure relief disc that blows at 2800PSI (green disc on left front side aircraft)

141
Q

What is minimum O2 bottle pressure for dispatch?

A

1180PSI or 1630PSI with jumpseater

142
Q

How many PBEs exist on aircraft? Where are they?

A

4 with 15min of supply at 8000’. Flight deck, fwd entrance, coat closet and overhead bin row 21

143
Q

How many fire extinguishers are on aircraft? Where are they?

A

4 halon: flight deck right, forward entrance, above crew wardrobe, and overhead bin row 21.

144
Q

How many life vests and where are they?

A

5 vests: flight deck left right and Jumpseat, fwd & aft flight attendant station

145
Q

What other emergency equipment is in aircraft?

A

2 portable O2 cylinders(Fwd entrance & aft bulkhead), 3 first aid kits one being enhanced(fwd entrance & enhanced in row 20 overhead bin), and crash axe in flight deck

146
Q

How many battery packs power the emergency lights?

A

Five 6V packs supplying 10min, 4 packs on 700

CRJ 900 (2 decks)

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