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737 Training > Systems > Flashcards

Systems Flashcards

0
Q

Length Overall

A

(-700): 111’
(-800): 130’
(-900): 140’

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1
Q

Wingspan (all types)

A

118”

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2
Q

The emergency exit lights monitor what power source?

A

DC Bus No. 1

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3
Q

STERILE light switch in “OFF” position:

A

Extinguishes a blue light above cockpit door and enables passenger seat electrical outlets.

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4
Q

Emergency Exit Lights “NOT ARMED” light:

A

Indicates switch is not in armed position.

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5
Q

“ELT” light:

A

ELT has been activated and is simultaneously broadcasting on 121.5, 243.0 and 406.0 MHZ.

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6
Q

With FASTEN BELTS sign in AUTO, when do FASTEN BELTS and RETURN TO SEAT signs illuminate?

A

When flaps or gear are extended.

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7
Q

When will O2 masks automatically deploy?

A

When cabin altitude reaches 14,000 ft.

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8
Q

Engine thrust

A

700 - 24,200#

800,900 - 26,300

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9
Q

Tail skid?

A

There is a tail skid on the -800 and -900, but not on the -700.

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10
Q

Amber GPS light?

A

Both GPS receivers have failed. If only one fails, GPS light illuminates upon recall only.

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12
Q

PASS OXY ON light?

A

Passenger oxygen system is operating and masks have dropped.

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13
Q

Wind limits for cargo doors?

A

Do not operate with more than 40 kts of wind. Do not keep doors open with more than 65 kts of wind.

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14
Q

Power source for cockpit door and associated security system?

A

DC Bus No. 1 and DC Bus No. 2. Either bus can power the entire system.

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15
Q

The overwing emergency exits lock when:

A

3 of 4 service doors closed AND
Either engine is running AND
aircraft is airborne or both thrust lever advanced.

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16
Q

UNLKD button on Flt deck door panel illuminated steady?

A

UNLOCK switch held down OR

Both solenoids failed, door unlocked.

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17
Q

UNLKD button on Flt deck door panel flashing?

A

Fault in door system or status lights and door security unknown.

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18
Q

EMRG ENTRY ACTIVE light flashing (red):

A

The FLIGHT DECK DOOR EMERGENCY ENTRANCE switch has been pressed. The light will flash and “door, door, door” message heard for 30 seconds, or until HARD LOCK or UNLKD switch pushed.

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19
Q

HARD LOCK switch pressed:

A
  • illuminates status light
  • extinguishes flashing EMRG lt
  • stops “door, door, door”
  • system stays in HARD LOCK mode for 30 minutes.
  • mode can be disabled by turning knob
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20
Q

If UNLKD light illuminated, pushing the HARD LOCK switch will:

A
  • extinguish the UNLKD light
  • NOT engage HARD LOCK mode
  • NOT illuminate HARD LOCK light
  • NOT ensure the door is locked
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21
Q

OPEN light on flight deck door panel illuminated?

A

Flight deck door is not closed against the jamb.

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22
Q

How do you engage LNAV?

A

Press the LNAV button on the MCP. The LNAV will engage if a FD or autopilot is engaged and the aircraft is within 3 miles of the active route.

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23
Q

OVERWING lights on overhead panel:

A

Indicate overwing exit not closed and locked OR

Related flight lock failed to engage when commanded.

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24
Q

When does the approach phase begin for the FMS?

A

2 miles from the first waypoint of a published approach or approach transition selected from the arrivals page.

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25
Q

Altitude intervention switch?

later -800s and -9ERs

A

Used during climb or descent to delete altitude restrictions between the current altitude and the MCP altitude.

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26
Q

Power source(s) for IRUs?

A

Left IRS normally powered by AC standby bus, and the right IRU from AC transfer bus #2. Both IRUs backup power source is the switched Hot Battery Bus, although the right IRU will only last 5 minutes on DC power.

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27
Q

ALIGN light flashing?

A

Significant difference between last position and entered position.
No present position entry.

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28
Q

ON DC light illuminated:

A

Related IRS is operating on DC power from switched hot battery bus.
If on ground, ground-call horn sounds, providing alert.

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29
Q

DUAL BLEED light?

A

APU bleed air valve is open and engine bleed switch positions and isolation valve position would permit back pressure of APU. Thrust limited to idle.

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30
Q

ISOLATION VALVE switch in AUTO position:

A

Closes ISO valve if both ENG bleed switches ON and both pack switches in AUTO or HIGH.
Opens ISO valve automatically if either engine bleed switch or pack switch turned off.

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31
Q

Left WING-BODY OVERHEAT light?

A 
Overheat in:
Left engine strut
Left inboard wing leading edge
Left air conditioning bay
Keel beam
APU bleed air duct
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32
Q

Right WING-BODY OVERHEAT light?

A

Leak in:

Right engine strut
Right inboard wing leading edge
Right air conditioning bay

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33
Q

BLEED TRIP OFF light?

A

Excessive temp or pressure in associated bleed duct.

Associated engine bleed valve closes automatically.

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34
Q

DUCT OVERHEAT light? (-700)

A

Overheat senses downstream of associated pack.
Appropriate valves drive full cold.
If temp drives higher still, pack valve will close and PACK TRIP OFF illuminates.

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35
Q

ZONE TEMP light? (-800,-900)

A

Overheat condition downstream of packs and mix manifold.
Zone temp control selector to OFF
Failure of primary or standby control.
Appropriate trim air valve will close.

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36
Q

Describe operation of (-700) recirc fan.

A

Operates anytime recirc fan switch in AUTO except with both packs ON and either pack on HIGH.

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37
Q

Describe operation of recirc fan system on (-800 and -900).

A

Each fan only operates if in AUTO.
In flight, left fan operates if both packs on unless either pack switch on HIGH.
In flight, right fan operates if both packs on unless both packs on HIGH.
On ground, left fan runs unless both switches on HIGH, and right fan runs regardless.

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38
Q

PACK switch in AUTO:

A

If both packs, both in low flow.
If one pack operating, in high flow in flight with flaps up.
If one pack operating from APU, in high flow.

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39
Q

TRIP RESET switch:

A

Resets BLEED TRIP OFF, PACK TRIP OFF and DUCT OVERHEAT lights

Opens closed valve.

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40
Q

PACK light? (-800,-900)

A

Pack trip off or failure of both primary and standby pack controls.

If during recall, either primary or standby pack control failed.

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41
Q

When are both MA lights on?

A

TO mode engaged and below 400 feet.
APP mode engaged with LOC and GS captured
GA mode engaged and below 400 feet

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42
Q

What will cause VNAV to disengage?

A 
Deselect it
G/S capture
A different MCP pitch mode selected
Wing flaps extended beyond 15 deg.
LNAV disengaged w/o LOC capture
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43
Q

To disengage APP mode:

A

Press a TO/GA switch
Turn off both FDs
Retune a NAV receiver

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44
Q

What happens if you press ALT HOLD during a climb or descent?

A

Aircraft will immediately reverse climb or descent and return to altitude at which switch was pressed.

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45
Q

When is altitude alerting disabled?

A

With flaps 25 or greater, or with GS captured.

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46
Q

What conditions will disengage the autopilot?

A 
Press AP disengage switch
TOGA switch w/single AP engaged
Pressing illuminated AP engage switch
Pushing down the AP disengage bar
Control wheel trim
Stab trim cutout switch to cutout
Loss of respective hydraulic system
Loss of input to autopilot
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47
Q

TO/GA can be engaged for takeoff with the FD switches off if:

A

A TO/GA switch is pressed after 80 kts IAS below 2000 feet and prior to 150 seconds after liftoff.

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48
Q

In CWS if control pressure released and bank angle less than 6 degrees, aircraft will roll wings level unless:

A

Below 1500 feet RA with gear down
FD VOR capture with < 250 kts TAS
FD LOC capture in the APP mode

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49
Q

Does autothrottle require EECs in ON position?

A

No. Switches can be in either ON or ALT.

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50
Q

Arming and engaging second autopilot:

A

APP mode armed enables the second autopilot. Second autopilot will engage after LOC and GS capture and below 1500 RA. Second autopilot must be selected prior to 800 feet.

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51
Q

Describe FD function during TO/GA in a windshear event.

A

Initially provides command to maintain target speed, until climb decreases to 600 fpm. FD then commands 15 degree nose up. If stick shaker is reached, FD will command intermittent stick shaker until climb increases, then will command a pitch to accelerate back to target speed.

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52
Q

STAB OUT OF TRIM light?

A

Operates only with autopilot engaged. Autopilot not trimming properly.

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53
Q

A/P disengage light on steady?

A

Stab out of trim below 800 ft on dual channel approach.
ALT ACQ mode inhibited during AP go-around if stab not trimmed for single AP operation.
Disengage light test switch held pos. 2
Automatic ground system test failed.

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54
Q

A/T LIM indication on upper EICAS display?

A

FMC not providing A/T with N1 limit values. A/T using degraded N1 thrust limiting from related EEC.

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55
Q

Operation of overboard exhaust valve?

A

On ground and in flight with low pressure differential, valve is open and E&E air discharged overboard.
Normally closed at altitude.
OEV driven open if either pack switch in HIGH and recirc off (-800,-900: right recirc off). This allows for increased ventilation in smoke configuration.

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56
Q

OFF SCHED DESCENT?

A

Aircraft descending without reaching cruise altitude.

If returning to field, TO elevation is stored unless FLT ALT changed.

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57
Q

Pressurization AUTO FAIL light?

A 
Loss of DC power
Controller fault
Outflow valve fault
Excessive differential press: >8.75 PSI
Excessive cabin rate (2000 fpm)
High cabin altitude (above 15,800 ft)

Control transfers to alternate controller (want to see green ALTN light)

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58
Q

When does cabin altitude horn sound?

A

10,000 feet cabin altitude.

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59
Q

High altitude landing switch?

A

Reprograms cabin altitude warning annunciation to 12,650 ft.

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60
Q

COWL ANTI-ICE light?

A

Illuminates due to excessive pressure in the duct.

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61
Q

ENG ANTI-ICE switch?

A

Allows bleed air into duct to cowl lip

Sets stall warning logic for icing conditions. Logic returns to normal as long as WING ANTI-ICE has not been used.

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62
Q

What does the WING ANTI-ICE heat?

A

The 3 inboard leading edge slats.

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63
Q

Power source for ENG ANTI-ICE?

WING ANTI-ICE?

A

ENG ANTI-ICE powered by DC motors.

WING ANTI-ICE valve powered by AC motors.

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64
Q

WING ANTI-ICE ground operation?

A

Both valves open if thrust below takeoff warning setting and thermal sensors in ducts less than thermal activation temp. Valves close if thrust/temp increase, will reopen if decrease below. WING switch will remain in ON position if on ground. Trips off at liftoff.

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65
Q

WING ANTI-ICE on in flight?

A

Opens both control valves
Sets stall warning logic

Stall warning logic adjusts stick shaker and min maneuver speed bars. FMC displayed VREF not adjusted automatically

Logic remains set for remainder of flight.

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66
Q

What anomaly does the standby airspeed have?

A

The pitot probe for standby airspeed is not heated when aircraft is on standby power.

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67
Q

Window heat OVERHEAT light?

A

Overheat condition detected
Power has been removed from affected window

Will also illuminate if power interruption

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68
Q

Window heat ON lights?

A

If illuminated, power is being applied

If extinguished,
Switch is off
Overheat detected
System failure
System at correct temperature
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69
Q

Windshield WIPER selector in INT?

A

Seven second intermittent operation

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70
Q

If on standby power, do probe heat lights indicate system status?

A

No.

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71
Q

PROBE HEAT switches in AUTO (as installed)?

A

Power is supplied to both A and B systems when either engine is running

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72
Q

Degraded audio system description?

A 
ACP cannot control REU any longer
Pilot can only communicate on one radio
Only the associated radio is heard, and only through the headset at a preset level
FLT INT and SVC INT are inop
Hand mic not usable
Audio warnings inop
PA inop through ACP (handset works)
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73
Q

HF tuning?

A

Tone may last as long as 7 seconds
If system fails to tune, tone will last more than 7 seconds, up to 15 seconds
Data stored for last 100 freqs
Tuning will be very short and may not be noticeable for these freqs

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74
Q

Ka system limitation?

A

Do not operate KA GND TX ENABLE switch in OVERRIDE position during:

Deicing
Maintenance in vicinity of dome
In hangar

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75
Q

Flight Deck recorder erase switch?

A

Erases all 4 channels

Operative only on ground with parking brake set

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76
Q

What happens if we take off with APU powering both busses?

A

If APU shut down or fails, the engine generators are automatically connected to their related transfer bus. This occurs only in flight and only under these circumstances.

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77
Q

Automatic load shedding sequence?

A

Galleys and main bus on transfer bus 2
Galleys and main bus on transfer bus 1
IFE buses

Auto laid restores as more power comes on line

Manual restore can be attempted by cycling CAB/UTIL switch

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78
Q

APU load shedding?

A

In flight, if APU sole power source, all galley and main buses shed.
If power still inadequate, IFE buses shed

On ground, APU will attempt to carry full load. If inadequate, galley and main buses shed

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79
Q

IDG DRIVE light illuminated?

A

Low oil pressure sensed in IDG

Caused by: 
IDG failure
Engine shutdown
IDG disconnect due to high oil temp
Disconnect through switch
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80
Q

ELEC light on electrical panel?

A

A fault exists in DC power system or standby power system.

ELEC light only armed on ground, inhibited in flight.

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81
Q

Cross bus tie relay normal condition?

A

Normally closed, allowing TR1 and TR2 to both power DC 1, DC 2 and DC Standby Bus, with TR 3 as a back up.

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82
Q

What would cause Cross Bus Tie Relay to open?

A

G/S capture during FD or AP ILS approach. This isolates DC busses.

Bus transfer switch in OFF position.

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83
Q

What busses powered by battery in standby configuration?

A 
Hot battery bus
Switched HBB (bat switch ON)
Battery bus
DC standby bus 
AC standby bus through inverter
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84
Q

BAT DISCHARGE light illuminated?

A

Excessive battery discharge detected

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85
Q

Power source for battery charger?

A

Ground service bus 2

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86
Q

Purpose of TR 3?

A

TR3 normally powers the battery bus and provides backup for TR1 and TR2

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87
Q

STANDBY PWR OFF light?

A

AC standby bus unpowered
DC standby bus unpowered
OR
Battery bus unpowered

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88
Q

TR UNIT light?

A

On ground, any TR has failed

In flight:

TR 1 failed
OR
TR 2 and TR 3 failed

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89
Q

GRD POWER AVAILABLE light?

A

Ground power available, and meets quality standards

Break before make

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90
Q

TRANSFER BUS OFF lights?

A

Associated transfer bus unpowered.

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91
Q

SOURCE OFF lights?

A

No source has been selected to power related transfer bus
OR
Source has been disconnected

If source has been selected to power opposite bus, both buses unpowered.

Easier: respective Transfer Bus powered through bus tie system.

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92
Q

GEN OFF BUS lights?

A

IDG is not powering related transfer bus

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93
Q

BUS TRANS switch in OFF position?

A

Isolates AC transfer bus 1 from AC transfer bus 2

DC cross tie relay opens to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2

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94
Q

BUS TRANS switch in AUTO?

A

Bus tie breakers operate automatically to maintain power to AC transfer buses from any generator or external power.

DC cross tie relay automatically provides normal or isolated operation as required.

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95
Q

When are secondary engine indications automatically displayed?

A 
Displays initially receive power
In flight when a start lever moved to CUTOFF
ENG selected on MFD
In flight when N2 RPM below idle
A secondary parameter is exceeded
96
Q

EEC description?

A 
2 independent channels
Automatic channel transfer if failure
Alternates with each engine start
N1 used by EEC to set thrust
2 control modes: normal and alternate
97
Q

EEC normal mode:

A

Senses flight conditions and bleed air demand to calculate N1 settings. Adjusts fuel flow to provide commanded N1.

98
Q

EEC alternate mode: soft

A

Two alternate modes: soft and hard
If required signals not available to operate in normal, EEC operates in soft mode.
ALTN illuminates and ON visible
EEC uses last valid flight conditions to define engine parameters
Remains until thrust lever retarded to idle or by manually selecting ALT

99
Q

EEC
alternate
mode:
hard

A

EEC reverts to alternate mode thrust schedule
Always equal to or greater than normal mode thrust for lever position
If entered by reducing thrust lever to idle, ALTN remains illuminated and ON still visible
If selected manually, ON extinguished

100
Q

EEC limit protection?

A

Provides N1 and N2 overspeed protection in both normal and alternate modes

EEC does not provide EGT protection

101
Q

When is approach idle selected?

A

Flaps are in landing configuration or ENG ANTI-ICE on for either engine

If fault prevents flap or anti-ice signals, approach idle schedule begins below 15,000 feet.

102
Q

Power source for igniters?

A

Left igniters powered by associated AC transfer bus

Right igniters powered by AC standby bus

103
Q

Describe auto relight protection

A

EEC detects rapid decrease in N2 or N2 below idle and activates both igniters

104
Q

Are start protection features available during an inflight start?

A

No.

105
Q

How do you know if an inflight crossbleed start is required?

A

X-BLD indication is displayed above N2 dial (XB on compact engine display)

106
Q

REVERSER light?

A

Illuminates when the thrust reverser is commanded to stow and extinguishes 10 seconds later when isolation valve closes. If light remains on >12 seconds, a malfunction has occurred and you get the MASTER CAUTION and ENG annunciator lights.

107
Q

A/T LIM indication on upper display unit?

A

FMC is not providing A/T with N1 limit values. A/T is using degraded N1 thrust limit from EEC.

108
Q

EGT readout displayed in amber

A

(-700, -800[-506]) max cont limit exceeded

(-800[507-], -900) max cont exceeded, inhibited for 5 minutes during takeoff or go around.
If engine lost within first 5 minutes of inhibit, inhibited for 10 minutes

109
Q

EGT blinking?

A

EEC senses conditions that at lead to hot or stall during ground start. Current EEC versions will shut off fuel.

110
Q

X-BLD START indicated over N2 display?

A

Airspeed less than required for windmilling start, crossbleed inflight start is recommended.

111
Q

Oil quantity during windmill?

A

An oil quantity indication as low as 0% is normal if windmilling N2 below 8%.

112
Q

ENGINE START switch to GND?

A 
Opens start valve
Closes engine bleed valve
For ground start, arms selected igniter
For inflight start, arms both igniters
Releases to OFF at start valve cutout
113
Q

Auto relight feature?

A 
With ignition off,
Both igniters activated when start lever in idle and:
Rapid decrease in N2
N2 between 50% and 57% or
In flight and N2 between idle and 5%
114
Q

ENGINE START switch in CONT?

A

Igniters activated when engine start lever in idle

In flight - both igniters when N2 below idle and engine start lever in IDLE

115
Q

ENGINE START Switch in FLT?

A

Both igniters when start lever in idle

116
Q

REVERSER light?

A

Isolation valve or TR control valve not in commanded position
One or more TR sleeves not in commanded state
Auto-restow has been activated
Failure in synchronization shaft lock circuitry

117
Q

ENGINE CONTROL light?

A

Engine control system not dispatchable due to faults

Light armed on ground and engine operating when:
Below 80 kts on takeoff or
30 seconds after touchdown

118
Q

The IAS/ MACH display window is blank when:

A

the AFDS is operating in VNAV

the AFDS is performing a 2-engine go around

119
Q

If lose power to WING ANTI-ICE, what happens to valve position?

A

Valves freeze in position.

120
Q

What items will the APU automatically shut down for?

A 
Low oil pressure
Fault
Overspeed 
Fire
Battery switch off
121
Q

REVERSER light on overhead panel?

A

A deployed reverser is commanded to stow with the reverse thrust lever.
If longer than 10 seconds, M/C light and ENG light on annunciator panel.

122
Q

ENG FAIL on EGT display?

Will remain until:

A

N250%
Start lever to Cutoff
OR
Fire switch pulled

123
Q

X-BLD START on top of N2 display?

A

N2 rpm too low for windmill start.

124
Q

Amber band on oil pressure scale not displayed below what RPM?

A

65%

125
Q

LOW OIL PRESSURE display?

A

Oil pressure below 13 psi.

Annunciator blinks for 10 seconds then steady, except no blinking during TO and landing.

126
Q

Overheat detection occurs if:

A

Both detectors detect an overheat
One loop detects overheat, one fire
One loop detects overheat, one faulty
Only one loop selected, detects overheat

127
Q

5 functions that occur when the APU Fire Control Handle is pulled down:

A 
APU fuel shutoff
APU bleed air shutoff
APU inlet door closed
Trips APU gen control relay
Trips APU gen breaker
128
Q

APU DET INOP light?

A

Faulty APU fire detector

Will activate M/C lights

129
Q

Pulling engine fire switch will:

A 
Arms squib
Fuel shutoff valves
Bleed air valve
Disables Thrust Reverser
Hydraulic shutoff valve and disarms LOW PRESSURE light
Trips gen field and breaker
Allows switch to be rotated
130
Q

APU fire warning switch is pulled:

A 
Arms squib
Fuel shutoff valve
Bleed air valve
Inlet door
Trips gen field and breaker
131
Q

Cargo fire DISCH switch?

A

Will discharge the agent into the selected compartment.
Amber DISCH light indicates discharge
Light may not illuminate for 30 seconds
2nd bottle discharges after 60 minutes

132
Q

When is flight recorder powered?

A

On ground when powered and either engine has oil pressure.

In flight whenever powered.

133
Q

Power source for flight recorder?

A

1AC transfer bus and battery bus.

134
Q

OFF light on flight recorder panel?

A

Loss of input
Loss of power
Malfunction

135
Q

DISPLAY SOURCE illuminated?

A

All DUs are getting their information from one DEU.

136
Q

At how many degrees of bank will the bank pointer and slip and skid indicator turn amber?

A

35 degrees

137
Q

What does it mean when the box around the airspeed turns amber?

A

Aircraft is below minimum maneuvering speed.

138
Q

What does the white bar on the altitude tape indicate?

A

1000-500 ft above TDZ for selected runway.

139
Q

What does the amber bar on the altitude tape indicate?

A

0-500 ft above TDZ for selected runway.

140
Q

ENG FAIL on PFD?

A

Left or right engine has failed between 65 kts and slightly less than V1.

141
Q

What ND modes display TCAS and WX targets?

A

Both expanded and center display on MAP mode, but only on expanded display of VOR and APP mode.

142
Q

PSEU light on overhead?

A

Proximity sensor electronic unit has a fault. It is inhibited in flight, when TLs are advanced, and for 30 seconds after landing.

143
Q

TAKEOFF CONFIG warning?

A
  1. TE flaps not in TO range (1-25)
  2. TE flaps skewed, asymmetrical, or uncommanded motion
  3. LE devices not configured or uncommanded motion
  4. Speed brake lever not down
  5. HYD Pressure to spoilers
  6. Parking brake set
  7. Stab trim not in green band*
144
Q

At what altitude will the red light for each gear illuminate if the gear are not down and locked for landing and either or both TLs are retarded to idle?

A

Below 800 feet,

145
Q

Describe landing gear horn when flaps 1-10.

A

Below 800 feet:

Both engines running, horn will sound if either TL idle - 20 deg.

If single-engine, horn will sound when TL of operating engine idle - 34 deg.

146
Q

Describe landing gear warning horn function with flaps 15-25.

A

Any altitude:

With both engines running, horn will sound if either TL < 20 deg.

If single engine, horn will sound if operating engine TL < 34 deg.

In these cases, horn cannot be silenced.

147
Q

Describe function of landing gear warning horn with flaps > 25 degrees.

A

If landing gear not down, horn will sound and cannot be silenced except by correcting the condition.

148
Q

Flap load relief on -700?

A

Will retract the flaps from 40 to 30
OR
Flaps 30 to 25

In overspeed conditions

149
Q

Flap load relief on -800?

A

Flap load relief operative at:

10, 15, 25, 30 and 40
In overspeed conditions

150
Q

Movement if alternate flaps switch to ARM?

A

Closes the TE Flap Bypass Valve and activates the Alternate Flaps UP/OFF/DOWN switch.

151
Q

LE slats full extend position on -700?

A

At or greater than Flaps 10.

152
Q

LE slats extend to full extend at what position on -800?

A

At or greater than Flaps 30.

153
Q

Can the leading edge devices be retracted using the alternate flap system?

A

No. Once extended, they will remain so for the duration of the flight.

154
Q

What unit is responsive for monitoring the TE flaps and the leading edge devices* for asymmetry and skew conditions?

A

FSEU - the flap slat electronic unit

*there is no skew detection for the outboard slats 1 and 8, nor for the leading edge flaps

155
Q

When FSEU detects asymmetry or skew condition, what are the indications?

A

LE FLAPS TRANSIT light remains and:

Amber TRANSIT light
Incorrect green extend 1
FULL EXT light illuminated
No light illuminated

Slat skew detection inhibited during autoslat operation

156
Q

FSEU will detect uncommanded motion when:

A

No TE flap position or auto slat command is present and:

2 or more LE Flaps move on one wing

OR

2 or more slats move on one wing

157
Q

How does auto slat operation work?

A

If aircraft in flight with Flaps 1 to 5, the autoslat system will move the LE slats to FULL EXTEND if AOA close to stick shaker. When AOA reduced, will move back to EXTEND position.

158
Q

What is the SMYD?

A

Stall management/Yaw damper computer.

159
Q

AUTOSLAT FAIL light?

A

Both channels of SMYD have failed.

160
Q

Purpose of PTU?

A

If B system low pressure, A system pressure runs PTU to pressurize B system to run the autoslat feature.

161
Q

What is the speedbrake load alleviation system?

*applies to -700 only

A

Automatically moves the lever to the 50% mark if past and restricts it from being moved past 50% if all:

Flaps UP
Gross weight >143,000
Indicated airspeed > 320 knots

Can be overridden.

162
Q

SPEEDBRAKE DO NOT ARM light?

A

Malfunction exists in speedbrake system, should not be placed in ARM position.

*light inhibited in DOWN detent

163
Q

AUTOSPOILER action?

A

If reverse thrust selected on takeoff when aircraft speed > 60 knots,
speedbrake lever will extend to the UP position.

164
Q

When will armed speedbrake lever extend the speedbrakes on landing?

A

Wheel spinup.

165
Q

What are the conditions for speed trim operation?

A 
Airspeed 100 knots / .50 Mach
10 seconds after liftoff
N1 > 60%
5 seconds after release of trim switches
AP not engaged
Sensing stab trim required
166
Q

What are the 3 inputs to the Elevator Feel System?

A
  1. Horizontal stab position sensor
  2. Airspeed inputs from the elevator feel pitot probes
  3. Inputs from A and B HYD systems
167
Q

FEEL DIFF PRESS light?

A

Significant pressure differential senses in the elevator feel system.

168
Q

What is the EFS?

A

Elevator Feel Shift module. It increases A HYD pressure to elevator feel and centering unit during a stall.

169
Q

When is flight recorder powered?

A

On ground when powered and either engine has oil pressure.

In flight whenever powered.

170
Q

Power source for flight recorder?

A

1AC transfer bus and battery bus.

171
Q

OFF light on flight recorder panel?

A

Loss of input
Loss of power
Malfunction

172
Q

DISPLAY SOURCE illuminated?

A

All DUs are getting their information from one DEU.

173
Q

What is the WTRIS?

A

Wheel to Rudder Interconnect System.

174
Q

What does the WTRIS do?

A

It improves handling qualities during manual reversion flight after a failure of both A and B hydraulic systems.

175
Q

What pilot actions activate the WTRIS?

A

Flight control switches to STBY RUD and the YAW DAMPER switch reset to ON.

176
Q

How does the WTRIS work?

A

The Stall Management Yaw Damper Computer (SMYD) send signals to the WTRIS commanding a small amount of rudder deflection (2.5 deg) when a wheel input is sensed. Can be overridden by pilot.

177
Q

Does the WTRIS displace the rudder pedals?

A

No.

178
Q

Describe SMYD.

A

2 SMYD computers on aircraft.
SMYD 1 controls yaw damping during normal ops, requires HYD SYS B.
SMYD 2 operates the WTRIS and yaw damping during standby rudder operation.

179
Q

Describe FFM.

A

Force Fight Monitor, detects opposing pressure between A and B actuators.

Automatically turns on standby hydraulic pump pressurizing the Standby PCU.

180
Q

Power source for standby hydraulic pump?

A

2 AC Transfer Bus

181
Q

PTU?

A

Provides backup source of hydraulic pressure to assist B system electric pump to operate the LE devices and the autoslat system when B system engine driven pump output below normal.

182
Q

When will RF indication appear on MFD?

A

RF (refill) indication appears if the quantity is below 76% with both engines shut down or after landing with flaps up during the taxi in.

183
Q

Standby LOW QUANTITY light?

A

Always armed. Illuminates if the standby fluid level is below 50%

184
Q

A System Hydraulic components?

A 
Rudder, ailerons, elevator
#1 thrust reverser
A flight spoilers
Ground spoilers
Landing gear & NWS
Alternate Brakes
Autopilot A
185
Q

Power source for A SYS electric pump?

A

AC Transfer Bus 2

186
Q

How much fuel required for hydraulic system cooling?

A

1675 lbs. in associated wing tank.

187
Q

Engine driven pump switch?

A

Powered closed. If power lost, will open.

188
Q

When a fire switch is pulled, will the respective engine driven low pressure light illuminate?

A

No. It’s disarmed.

189
Q

B HYD SYS components?

A 
Rudder, ailerons, elevator
Elevator Feel
LE Flaps and Slats
Autoslats
#2 Thrust Reverser
Half of flight spoilers
Yaw Damper
Normal Brakes
TE Flaps
Autopilot B
Alternate NWS
190
Q

What is the reserve fluid in the B system reservoir for?

A

PTU

191
Q

How many standpipes are in the B reservoir?

A

2

192
Q

How many standpipes are in the A reservoir?

A

One.

193
Q

What is the reserve fluid in the A reservoir for?

A

A side electric pump.

194
Q

How does Landing Gear Transfer Unit work?

A

After takeoff, if #1 engine N2 below 56%, with landing gear lever up and gear not up and locked, LGTU will use system B to retract the gear at the normal rate.

195
Q

Standby hydraulic system backs up which components?

A

Rudder
Thrust reversers
Yaw damper
LE device extension

196
Q

If standby system develops a leak, what will B system reservoir be left with?

A

Approximately 72%

197
Q

Will moving the A FLT CONTROL switch to OFF or STBY RUD cause the yaw damper to switch off?

A

No, just the B FLT CONTROL switch will do that.

198
Q

Moving ALTERNATE FLAPS switch to ARM:

A

Standby pump motor activates
Alternate Flaps UP/DOWN switch armed
TE flap bypass valve closed

199
Q

STBY RUD ON light?

A

Standby rudder PCU is pressurized.

200
Q

What will cause the standby hydraulic system to automatically operate?

A

If A or B hydraulic system fails and:

In flight - flaps extended

On ground - flaps extended, wheel speed> 60 knots

Standby system will automatically shut off when flaps are retracted in flight.

201
Q

What are the conditions for the PTU to operate?

A

B system engine pump falls below a threshold
Aircraft in flight
Flaps extended less than 15, but not retracted*

*-800: all positions

202
Q

Nose wheel steering limits?

A

With tiller: 78 degrees either side

With pedals: 7 degrees

203
Q

Normal hydraulic power source for NWS?

A

A system.

204
Q

Alternate power source for NWS?

A

B system

205
Q

Normal brake pressure is supplied from who hydraulics?

A

B system

206
Q

Alternate brake pressure from which hydraulics?

A

A

207
Q

Are autobrakes available with alternate brakes?

A

No.

208
Q

Is Antiskid available with alternate brakes?

A

Yes, but it’s different than with normal braking - paired wheel Antiskid.

209
Q

Antiskid with normal brakes?

A

4 Antiskid valves deliver or release hydraulic pressure to the 4 individual wheel brakes.

210
Q

ANTISKID INOP light?

A

Fault in Antiskid system, or in parking brake system.

211
Q

What are the prerequisites for arming a landing mode of the autobrakes?

A

Aircraft must be in flight and the Antiskid must be on.

212
Q

What are the prerequisites for arming the autobrakes for TO?

5

A
  1. Aircraft must be on ground
  2. Wheel speed must be < 60 knots
  3. Thrust levers must be at idle
  4. Antiskid must be on
  5. ABS set to RTO mode
213
Q

Above what speed will the RTO braking initiate?

A

90 knots

214
Q

How are the autobrakes disarmed?

A
  1. Speedbrake lever to DOWN detent
  2. Advancing either or both TLs
  3. Applying manual brakes
  4. Autobrakes switch to OFF
215
Q

Power source for parking brake light?

A

Battery bus.

216
Q

If the manual gear extension door is open, can the gear be hydraulically retracted?

A

No.

217
Q

With ASP in ALT position, what components are operative?

A 
ASP operates in degraded mode
Only one radio operates per ASP:
Captain - VHF 1
F/O - VHF 2
Observer - VHF 1

Headset at preset volume
Boom and O2 mics operative

PA available through handset and PA mic

218
Q

Voice recorder switch in AUTO position?

A

Recorder powered from first engine start to 5 minutes after last engine shutdown.

219
Q

Voice recorder in ON position?

A

Voice recorder will be powered prior to first engine start.

Switch will trip to AUTO position upon start of first engine.

220
Q

ALT switch on ATC transponder panel?

A

Selects the source of altitude data: ADIRS 1 or 2

221
Q

ACARS is an acronym for:

A

ARINC Communications Addressing and Reporting System

222
Q

Fuel scavenge pump?

A

When #1 tank half full, forward left boost pump scavenges fuel from low point in center tank for remainder of flight

223
Q

How are the fuel pumps powered?

A

One pump in each tank powered by Left AC Bus.

One pump in each tank powered by Right AC Bus.

224
Q

Power source for fuel cross feed valve?

A

Battery Bus

225
Q

How are center tank pump low pressure lights different from those of the main tanks?

A

The center tank lights are inhibited when the pump switches are in the OFF position.

226
Q

Does one center tank low pressure fuel light illuminate the annunciator panel and the master caution light?

A

Not if both pump switches are in the ON position.

However, if only one pump switch is on and its low pressure light illuminates, you WILL get the MC and annunciator panel light.

227
Q

Power source for spar valves?

A

Hot Battery Bus

228
Q

Power source for engine fuel shutoff valves?

A

Battery Bus

229
Q

Wing fuel tank quantity turns amber, accompanied by LOW indication.

A

Fuel quantity less than 2000 lbs., accompanied by LOW indication.

Will remain until tank filled above 2500 lbs.

Indication inhibited on the ground.

230
Q

Center tank fuel quantity turns amber, displays CONFIG?

A

At least 1600 lbs in tank, and the center tank pumps are producing low or no pressure

Indication will remain until:
At least center tank pressurized
Both engines shut down
Or center tank less than 800 lbs

231
Q

Wing tank quantity gauge indicates IMBAL and turns amber.

A

Indication on lesser tank when main tank imbalance of greater than 1000 lbs

Display until on ground or
Less than 200 lb imbalance

232
Q

What happens if fuel flow switch held to USED for more than 30 seconds?

A

Indication returns to fuel flow and fuel used is not available for the remainder of the flight.

233
Q

Power source for fueling panel?

A

Hot Battery Bus

234
Q

Is gravity fueling available?

A

No.

235
Q

NGS supplied with air from where?

A

Left side of bleed manifold

236
Q

Where is the NGS status panel located?

A

Right main wheel well

237
Q

FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD?

A

Closes related flight control shutoff valve
Deactivates low pressure light
Allows standby system to power rudder and thrust reversers
Opens standby rudder shutoff valve
Activates standby pump

737 Training (4 decks)

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