Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PC-21 Systems 2 > Systems 2 > Flashcards

Systems 2 Flashcards

1
Q

When approaching to land what is being indicated when the AoA indexer displays amber lights?

A

AoA is lower than the ideal approach (too fast)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If airspeed and altitude indications on the PFD and the SFD disagree, this could be:

A

Possible Pitot tube and/or static port blockages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What sensor doesnt have de-icing heaters?

A

OAT sensor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which instrument is the central point returned to when scanning flight instruments?

A

Attitude indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is NOT a performance instrument?

ASI
VSI
AI
Alt

A

AI Attitude indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Strand by instruments are always standalone analogue instrument? T/F

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Red V marks on the attitude indicator show:

The Angle of climb or dive
The rate of turn
The shortest direction to decrease the pitch angle

A

The shortest direction to decrease the pitch angle (shortest path to the closest horizon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is being indicated if the colour of the G meter pointer is amber?

A

G-load is within 1G +/- g-limits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the maximum range displayed by the PFD HSI in map mode?

A

640 NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the Red Cross in data area indicate?

A

No valid data available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If the actual vert speed is 7000ft/min, VSI will display:

A

7000ft/min digital - 6000ft/min analogue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which indication is available in HSI CDI mode?

A

Deviation dots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The airspeed displayed on SFD is in the range of:

40 to 950KIAS
45 to 900KIAS
45 to 999KIAS

A

40 to 950 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A green arrow under the heading ribbon indicates?

A

Direction to VOR beacon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The SFDR in the rear cockpit is a?

A

Repeater only that Rx all its data from the SFD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

SFDR data input functions are controlled by?

A

Nothing, SFDR is a repeater of the SFD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The IBIT on the SFD is activated by?

A

Pressing both NAV and ALN keys twice within two seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What flight data is not displayed on the SFD?

A

G-Load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What Data does the EMD receive from the power management unit?

A

Prop RPM (NP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of these is displayed on the EMD permanently?

Current software version, AC type, total run time
Flap indication
Oil pressure

A

Oil pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What TQ value is 75% in PMS manual mode? Red Amber or Green?

A

Amber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If the ADC fails, what data will you loose on the HUD?

A

Airspeed
Altitude
Mach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Power to the HUD and HUDR is controlled by?

A

HSG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The aircraft longitudinal acceleration along the flight path is indicated by?

A

Power chevrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the function of the castle switch in NAV mode? (Control column)

A

Swap MFD displays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

(Control Column) which switch disconnects the pitch and roll servos?

A

Tactile Control Steering (TCS) switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In the event of RIOC 1 failure which HOTAS functions are affected?

Front and Rear cockpit
Front cockpit
Rear cockpit

A

Front Cockpit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The climb dive marker (CDM):

is fixed in HUD FOV
gives a true representation of aircraft flight path in pitch
Indicates drift angle

A

Gives a true representation of aircraft flight path in pitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When is the manual mode of operation automatically selected?

A

When the normal and emergency system pressure falls below the master cylinder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

On some AC, ……………… are used on the LE of the wings to augment lift.

A

Slats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the term used to describe a FCS that uses a flight computer to send and receive digital signals to control flight surfaces.

A

Fly By Wire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which secondary flight control increases drag with only small effect on lift?

A

Air brake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Fly by wire is a term used to describe a flight control system where?

A

a flight control computer is used to send and receive digital signals to control flight services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The primary flight control surfaces are?

A

Ailerons, rudder and elevators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The air brake be used to increase drag without making significant change to lift? T/F

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The TAD provides automatic trim for?

A

The rudder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The PC21 control column is used to operate which control surfaces?

A

Aileron and Elevator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The PC21 air brake is operated by?

A

The air brake switch on the PCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the 3 Primary flight controls?

A

Rudder
Elevator
Aileron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

*** A Fly by wire system involves digital signals from an air data computer which operate what?

A

Electro-Hydraulic servos to the control surfaces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A mechanical flight control system uses what types of components to transfer inputs?

A

Cables, Pulleys (turnbuckles), levers, rods, bell-cranks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the flaps used for?

A

Increase the camber of the wings and provide greater lift and control at lower speed
Can shorten take-off and landing runs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Many large aircraft use Fowler flaps, why?

A

In the first stages of extension, there is a large increase in lift but little increase in drag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

An air brake will slow you down with little change to lift while increasing what?

A

Increasing drag and approach angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are spoilers used for and what is a negative effect of spoilers?

A

Lift dumpers - by disrupting laminar air flow
Spoil the lift over the upper surface of the wing
Increase stall speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the function of wing slats?

A

Are moveable aerofoil on the front of the LE and allow the high pressure air to flow to the low pressure and over the wing
Re-energises the boundary layer
Moves the separation point towards
Delays onset of stall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are trim tabs used for?

A

Release pilot loads or reduces sensitivity

AIDS a pilot to overcome forces needed to move a control surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The PC21 FCS uses a combination of what type of components?

A

Mechanical and Electro-hydraulic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The TAD automatically moves the rudder trim tab at the required angle to keep the aircraft in cord flight. What parameters are considered by the RIOCs to achieve the correct movement?

A

Airspeed
AoA
Engine TQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

*** At what angle of aileron deflection do the spoilers start operating and when are they fully deployed?

A

4 deg start

13 deg full deflection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is common about the ailerons, air brake, flaps and roll spoiler system?

A

All use Hydraulic power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which hydraulic power system controls the aileron hydraulic power, roll spoilers and air brake?

A

Main Hydraulic system (Emergency actuator)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the secondary flight controls on the PC21?

A

Flaps
Air brake
Tabs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is affected if the TRIM/AIL switch on the PC21 is in the off position?

A 
Wheel powered brakes
Anti0skid system
TAD
Trim systems 
Hydraulics to ailerons and roll spoilers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

*** What are the 2 indications the flaps are not in the up position above 183KIAS?

A

Aural over speed tone

Flap over speed caution (Amber on the MFD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Under what circumstances would you switch the TRIM?AIL PWR off during normal operations?

A

Trim runaway - inhibits TAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The autopilot and flight director system (AFDS) controls the aircraft around what two axis?

A

Longitudinal (Roll)

Lateral (Pitch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is affected if the TRIM/AIL switch on the PC21 is in the off position?

A

Powered brakes, anti skid system, TAD, trim systems, Hydraulics to ailerons and roll spoilers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The TAD provides automatic trim for what?

A

Automatic rudder trim

60
Q

The left ad right elevators operate together. When one elevator becomes damaged, what component will allow the undamaged elevator to operate?

A

Elevator torque tube

61
Q

If Electrical power from the BATT BUS, GEN 1 and GEN 2 busses fail, what will occur?

A

The flaps will automatically retract

62
Q

The air brake can be used throughout the speed range of the AC including the landing? T/F

A

T

63
Q

What is the most common voltage for electrical power systems for aircraft?

A

24 VDC
28 VDC
110 - 115 VAC

64
Q

What are some sources of supplementary power systems for the aircraft?

A 
Ram-air turbine (Fan at the bottom of the AC) 
APU (Aux)
GPU (ground) 
Secondary Gen 
BATTs
65
Q

What are the two types of cell batteries?

A

Primary (Dry Cell - irreversible)

Secondary (Wet cell - recharges)

66
Q

What are the 3 types of electrical services on an aircraft from Split busbars?

A

Vital
Essential
Non-essential

67
Q

Why do we use split busbars?

A

Manage the power supply to various services ( into 3 categories of importance)

68
Q

In the busbar system what powers a vital busbar?

A

Emergency and Main Batteries

69
Q

Secondary Cells are used on aircraft as primary power sources to do what?

A

Start engines

Provide limited emergency power

70
Q

What is the purpose of the aircraft Generator during normal flight?

A

Maintain charge in the batteries

Provide primary power

71
Q

What type of current does a 3-phase generator produce?

A

Single Phase AC

72
Q

*** How do we complete the circuit in many aircraft electrical systems without having additional wiring?

A

Use the metal structure of The aircraft to complete the circuit

73
Q

*** What 3 factors determine the value of induced voltage in a generator?

A

Speed of rotation of the conductor magnet, Strength of the electromagnets and the number of turns in conductor coil

74
Q

What is the purpose of an inverter?

A

Convert DC to AC

A rectifier turns AC to DC

75
Q

What is the purpose of a circuit breaker and reverse current cut-outs (RCCO)?

A

To protect the electrical circuit over voltage or reverse current

76
Q

*** What is the purpose of a relay?

A

To remotely control electrical devices in one or more circuits

77
Q

*** What is the purpose of switches in a circuit and is it manual or automatic?

A

To complete/interrupt the circuit, can be auto or manual

78
Q

In a DC generator, which component ensures external current in the load only flows one way?

A

Generator Control Unit (GCU)

79
Q

Which piece of electrical equipment is used to convert AC to DC power?

A

Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU)

80
Q

What is a busbar used for?

A

Used to organise electrical circuits into a simple system, centralise power output

81
Q

How do we complete the circuit in many aircraft electrical systems without having additional wiring?

A

Earth to the AC structure/chassis/fuselage

82
Q

A circuit breaker is used to?

A

Isolate faulty circuits by means of a mechanical trip

83
Q

In an AC that only uses DC electrical systems, EMER PWR is generally supplied by main battery or specific EMER BATT to power the vital ELEC SYS for a short period of time? T/F

A

T

84
Q

BATT 1 is located in the?

A

Engine compartment

85
Q

EMER BATT will provide the power to the SFD and sensors for at least?

A

30 minutes

86
Q

How many BUSBARS are on the PC21?

A

7

87
Q

Where is the EMER BATT located?

A

Avionics bay

88
Q

What Bus is supplied by battery when both generators fail?

A

If both Gens fail, Batt 1 and 2 take over, providing power to essential services for around 30 minutes

89
Q

What is the voltage and amp rating of the PC-21 Generator?

A

28VDC at 300A

90
Q

How many PRI PWR sources are there on the PC21?

A

Conflicting answers:

4 - 2 Gens 2 BATTS

2 - 2 Generators - Main Batt and Secondary Batt are not counted

91
Q

What Bus does Gen 1 power?

A

Gen 1 Bus to Batt Bus, Non-essential bus

92
Q

What is the purpose of the Generator Control Unit?

A

Maintain correct VOLTs and protect from reverse polarity

93
Q

What buses does Gen 1 PWR?

A

GEN 1 Bus to BATT BUS, Non-Essential Bus

94
Q

What would it mean if a red GENS warning on the MFD and DWP? What other notifications would you receive?

A

Both Gens Failed/offline - Aural Warning, Attention getters

95
Q

What Bus is supplied by battery when both Generators fail?

A

BATT BUS

96
Q

What Caution indicates that the landing or taxi light failed to switch off automatically?

A

Amber LANDING LIGHT caution on the MFD and Attention getters

97
Q

What is the CLDU used to control?

A

The brightness of the displays and instruments and controls

98
Q

The attention getters in both cockpits can be tested with?

A

FIRE test switch

99
Q

Which of the external lights are not NVIS compatible?

A

Landing and Taxi

Recognition

100
Q

What EXT lights are PWRD from the GEN 1 BUS?

A

RECOG, ANTI COL, Formation

101
Q

What EXT lights are PWRD by BATT BUS?

A

Landing, Taxi and navigation lights

102
Q

Are the recognition lights NVIS compatible and where are they?

A

No - Outer wing LE

103
Q

When a warning occurs and the master warning light is pressed, what happens then?

A

The master warning light is reset

Any related Aural tone is stopped

104
Q

How long will the warning light remain illuminated on the CWP?

A

Until the Malfunction has been resolved

105
Q

When a warning occurs and the master warning light is pressed, what happens then?

A

The master warning light is rest

Any related aural tone is stopped

106
Q

When and why are warning systems tested?

A

Prior to each flight

Confirm functionality

107
Q

What panels displays warning captions to the pilot in the PC21?

A

Attention getters
MFDs
DWPs

108
Q

*** Where does the engine indicating and crew alerting systems (EICAS) get information from and where does it display alerts?

A

Mission computer - Displays on MFD, LGCU and the PFD

109
Q

The PC21 has a fire test switch in the front cockpit, what 5 alerts occur when you operate the switch?

A 
Attention getters
Warning gong tone
Fire warning on MFD and DWP
EICAS
Fire 1 and 2 Alert advisories
110
Q

What type of fire alerting system is in the engine bay of the PC21?

A

Continuous loop

111
Q

What happens when you press a flashing attention getter?

A

Ack’s the warning/caution - Silences aural tone and cancels the light flashing

112
Q

Does the DWP operate independently of the mission computer?

A

Yes

113
Q

What is displayed on the PC21 MFD WARN page?

A

Active warning
Cautions
Advisory captions
Applicable checklists

114
Q

In what situations are amber advisories displayed on the MFD?

A

They indicate a system or flight manoeuvre limit

115
Q

DWP receives data from?

A

Directly from Aircraft systems

116
Q

Avionics cooling is provided by the ECS or by an external source while the aircraft is?

A

parked

117
Q

What methods are used to provide the Aircon process?

A

Vapour-cycle system and air cycle system

118
Q

The rate of change in cabin pressure is normally measured using what unit of measurement?

A

Feet per minute

119
Q

What is the primary purpose of a check valve in an aircraft air-cycle (open) conditioning system

A

Ensure that supply air travels in a single direction only

120
Q

Why do pressurisation systems keep the cabin pressure below 10,000ft?

A

Minimise the requirements for additional oxygen

121
Q

*** Is air heated or cooled when passed through the an air turbine?

A

Cooled ?

122
Q

When the vapour is compressed is it heated or cooled?

A

Heated

123
Q

Which control device for ECS is in the front cockpit only?

A

Cabin pressure switch, ACS shutoff lever, temp control selector, VCS guarded switch

124
Q

What is the normal maximum cabin differential pressure?

A

3.76psi at 25,000ft (Cabin alt of 13,000)

125
Q

Which ECS system provides heating, cooling and pressure in the 21?

A

ACS

126
Q

Continuous flow OXY is generally used in which delivery system?

A

Emergency

127
Q

What are the benefits of a LOX system?

A

Provides same supply of OXY is half the space and weight of a gas system

128
Q

OBOGS produces a gas that is consistent of approx 95% OXY and 5% of what other gas?

A

Argon

129
Q

The PC21 OBOGS uses what air supply?

A

HP (P3) Engine bleed air

130
Q

How long does emergency oxygen last?

A

<5 minutes

131
Q

In the Acronym PITHBLOT, what does the I stand for and what causes it?

A

Instrument - Restricted physical movement of mechanical parts

132
Q

What are the types of gyroscopic wander?

A

Real, apparent, gimbal lock

133
Q

What parts are transmitter, receive, duplex or, display part of?

A

RADAR

134
Q

What performance instruments are on the PFD?

A 
ASI
VS
Attitude
G Meter
Power
AOA
Turn indicator
135
Q

What aircraft flight control SYS are indicated on the PFD?

A

Flaps and Airbrake

136
Q

What flight data doe the APU provide to the SFD?

A

Airspeed and altitude

137
Q

What is common between total internal fuel, fuel flow and oil pressure?

A

All are permanently on the EMD

138
Q

What types of info does the HUD provide? (Screens)

A

Flight reference information, Simulated weapons information, NAV information

139
Q

What is the relationship between the CDM and the CDL?

A

CDM stays centred and CDL moves relative to it to show AC flight path
Always displays true representation of the AC flight path

140
Q

HOTAS interfaces with what computer via 1553 BUS?

A

Mission computer

141
Q

How do you mute all incoming comms to both pilots?

A

Push centre of PTT button in.

142
Q

Where is the HUD deco utter/weapon mode switch? How many declutter levels are there?

A

PCL below PTT switch, 3 levels

143
Q

What are the control instruments?

A

Power indicator + Attitude indicator

144
Q

What do the red crosses in a data area mean?

A

Data not available

145
Q

What control regulates cockpit temp to that set by the temp selector on the front cockpit ECS panel?

A

The Integrated Environmental Control System (IECS)

146
Q

On the PC21, which cockpit is interfaced directly into the mission computer via the 1553 BUS for HOTAS?

A

Both front and rear

147
Q

What type of pressure altimeter error is caused when the true external static pressure is not accurately transmitted to the instrument?

A

Position error

PC-21 Systems 2 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions