Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of a carburetor?

A

Mix the fuel and air in correct ratio and deliver that mixture to the cylinders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What happens when the butterfly valve opens?

A

Airflow through the Venturi accelerates, causing lower static pressure. The pressure differential between the float chamber and Venturi will increase and more fuel will flow into the carburettor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the three types of carburettor icing?

A

Fuel icing
Throttle icing
Impact icing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the conditions conducive to carburettor icing?

A

OAT below 30 degrees
Relative humidity above 80%
Low power settings for a long time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do symptoms of carburettor icing include?

A

Partial or total loss of power
Degraded engine performance
Rough running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What can fuel icing also be referred to as?

A

Refrigeration icing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When does impact icing occur?

A

Super cooled water droplets hit the metal surfaces of the air intake to the fuel system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What conditions are for impact icing?

A

OAT close to or below zero
Aircraft is in visible moisture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What causes fuel icing?

A

Fuel vaporisation and cooling as it is mixed with the airflow in the carburettor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When can fuel icing occur?

A

OAT up to 20 degrees
Average to relatively high humidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What causes throttle icing?

A

Cooling effects that result from air accelerating around the butterfly valve inside the carburettor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Is visible moisture required for throttle icing?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When should carby heat be used in icing conditions?

A

Full, intermittently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common fuel injection system?

A

Continuous flow injection system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where is fuel injected by the fuel injection system?

A

Intake valve chamber for each cylinder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a supercharger used for?

A

Compensate for reduced density at altitude by maintaining power available at sea level

Boost the manifold pressure at sea level to a value above the normal sea level atmospheric pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is turbo normalising?

A

Compressed air is pumped into the intake manifold to allow the engine to burn extra fuel and so produce extra power at altitudes where normally aspirated would struggle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the three types of wastegate?

A

Fixed
Manual
Automatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is full throttle height in a supercharged engine?

A

The altitude at which the rated boost is available at a certain RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the critical altitude?

A

The highest altitude at which maximum rated power can be obtained with full throttle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Advantages of fuel injection over carburetors?

A

Mixture strength can be controlled more precisely
Fuel is injected immediately adjacent to the intake valve
No icing problems
Fuel is distributed more evenly within the cylinders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the voltage regulator do?

A

Maintains correct voltage output from the alternator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Batteries in series give what?

A

Higher power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the alternator output voltage the same as?

A

The electrical system voltage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What kind of current does the alternator generate?

A

AC current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is it that converts AC to DC power?

A

Rectifier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What converts DC to AC?

A

Inverter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How is it ensured the alternator powers the electrical system and not the battery?

A

Alternator output voltage is slightly higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

For a centre zero ammeter, what will you see directly after start and why?

A

A large plus as the alternator comes online and begins charging the drained battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What would a large plus indicate on a centre zero ammeter in flight?

A

Could indicate an electrical system problem - however definitely indicates the battery is supplying power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does a load type ammeter measure?

A

Alternator output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If you saw zero on a left zero ammeter, how would you determine alternator failure or no alternator load?

A

Turn equipment on to see if load goes up - if not suspect alternator failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does a voltmeter indicate?

A

How many volts are being supplied to the bus bar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In a 28V electrical system, what does a voltmeter indication of 24V indicate?

A

Battery is supplying the bus bar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which way does propeller thrust reaction act?

A

Perpendicular to the plane of rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which way does the propeller torque reaction act?

A

In the plane of rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which way does the plane of rotation of a propeller work?

A

Perpendicular to the crankshaft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Propeller angle of attack?

A

Angle between the propellers chord and the relative airflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the propeller blade angle?

A

The angle between the chord line and the plane of rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the helix angle?

A

Angle between the plane of rotation and the relative airflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is indicated horsepower?

A

Horsepower available at the cylinders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does IHP indicate?

A

How much heat energy in the fuel is converted to mechanical energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is brake horsepower?

A

A measure of the useful work done by a piston engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How is BHP determined?

A

IHP minus the power absorbed in the engine by friction and by driving the engine itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is friction horsepower?

A

The part of IHP that is absorbed by friction and driving the valves, ignition, lubrication systems etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

At a given RPM for a fixed pitch propeller, what happens between TAS and AoA?

A

Increase TAS = reduce the AoA

Lower TAS = higher AoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

At a given TAS for a fixed pitch propeller, what is the relationship between RPM and AoA?

A

Increase RPM = increase AoA

Lower RPM = smaller AoA

48
Q

What do counterweights do? (Multi engine)

A

Coarsen pitch

49
Q

Where does the MAP gauge read from?

A

Between the throttle valve and the cylinder inlet valve

50
Q

What is the tendency of the centrifugal twisting moment?

A

To fine the propeller

51
Q

What is the tendency of the aerodynamic twisting moment?

A

Coarsen the propeller

52
Q

When increasing power… (CSU)

A

Increase RPM
Increase MAP

53
Q

When reducing power (CSU)

A

Reduce MAP
Reduce RPM

54
Q

How do you avoid detonation in a supercharged engine?

A

Use only approved power settings
Use correct leaning procedures

55
Q

Which valve is usually smaller?

A

Inlet valve

56
Q

What rate does the camshaft rotate?

A

Half crankshaft speed

57
Q

What is valve lead?

A

Intake valve opening just before piston reaches TDC

58
Q

What is valve lag?

A

Intake valve closes just after the piston reaches BDC

59
Q

What is compression ratio?

A

Volume of cylinder with piston at BDC/volume of cylinder with piston at TDC

60
Q

What are the consequences of an over rich mixture?

A

Reduced power
Rough running
High fuel consumption
Fouling of spark plugs

61
Q

What are the consequences of an overlean mixture

A

High CHT
Detonation

62
Q

What does octane rating refer to?

A

The resistance of the fuel to detonation

63
Q

What are some possible causes of detonation?

A

Overlean mixture
Unnecessarily high power settings
Excessive MAP with low RPM
Incorrect or time expired fuel

64
Q

What are some fuel tank types?

A

Wet wing
Rigid removable
Bladder

65
Q

What does the ignition harness do?

A

Carries the current from the magneto to the spark plugs

66
Q

What are some functions of the oil system?

A

Lubrication
Cooling
Cleaning
Lengthening engine life
Providing a seal between cylinder walls, pistons and rings
Providing oil for variable pitch propeller system

67
Q

What are oil types?

A

Ashless dispersant oil
Mineral oil
Synthetic oil

68
Q

What are the benefits of a dry sump?

A

Prevention of oil starvation with high g
Increased oil capacity
Better oil temperature control
More power as the crankshaft doesn’t have resistance from oil splashing

69
Q

Where is the oil pressure sensor?

A

Just after the oil pump

70
Q

What are the benefits of even cylinder distribution of fuel?

A

Each cylinder produces the same amount of power
Smoother running
Easier starting
Less chance of detonation
Better power output

71
Q

Disadvantages of fuel injection systems

A

More complex and expensive than float carburettors
More susceptible to fuel contamination due to fine fuel lines
More prone to fuel vaporisation
Vapour locks can make hot starts difficult

72
Q

What are the main components of a supercharger?

A

Impeller
Diffuser
Compressor

73
Q

What happens when a wastegate is fully open?

A

All exhaust gas is directed away from the turbine and the engine functions as if it were normally aspirated

74
Q

What happens when a wastegate is fully closed?

A

All exhaust gas is directed over the turbine, creating a maximum amount of compression of the incoming air

75
Q

What is full throttle height in a supercharged engine?

A

The altitude at which the rated boost is available at a certain RPM

76
Q

What is a supercharged engine critical altitude?

A

The highest altitude at which maximum rated power can be obtained with full throttle

77
Q

What happens above the critical altitude of a supercharged engine?

A

Reduction in MAP and power output

78
Q

What is the name of the spring in a CSU?

A

Speeder spring

79
Q

What happens in a failure of the speeder spring?

A

No resistance for the flyweights and will cause the governor to sense an overspeed condition which will drive the blades to the coarse pitch stops

80
Q

Advantages of hydraulic systems

A

Large amounts of power can be transmitted using relatively small components
Power can be multiplied even without the use of a hydraulic pump
Hydraulic lines can be easily routed through inaccessible parts of the aircraft

81
Q

Disadvantages of hydraulic systems?

A

System integrity is required for it to work
Loss of fluid can have serious implications such as fire, loss of control, loss of system
Weight, components and fluid can be heavy

82
Q

What are the two types of hydraulic system?

A

Active
Passive

83
Q

What should the properties of a hydraulic fluid be?

A

Non compressible
Thermally stable
Fire resistant
Non corrosive to its systems

84
Q

Purpose of a hydraulic reservoir

A

Provides a reserve of fluid
Allows for variation in fluid volume
Allows for expansion of fluid due to temperature
Provides a head of pressure to prevent cavitation at the engine driven pump

85
Q

Two types of hydraulic lines?

A

Pressure line - carries fluid under pressure
Return line - returns fluid to the reservoir

86
Q

What are the functions of the hydraulic accumulator?

A

Help the pump maintain pressure when the system demand is high
Provide a limited emergency pressure supply if the pump fails
Smooth out pressure fluctuation and surges and so reduce vibration and noise

87
Q

What are some possible hydraulic system faults?

A

Air in the system
Fluid leakage
Low accumulator pressure

88
Q

What can air in the hydraulic system cause?

A

Pump may overheat due to inadequate cooling and lubrication
Air may also allow for compression reducing the power the fluid can generate

89
Q

What can hydraulic fluid leakage cause?

A

An actuating piston which has just moved forward may move back again as the oil that drove it forward escapes

90
Q

What are the effects of low hydraulic accumulator pressure?

A

The pump does more of the work resulting in slower operation of the system
Reduction in the emergency supply of fluid if the pump fails
May cause noisy operation and vibration

91
Q

What are the two main types of gear shock absorbers?

A

Spring steel struts
Oleo pneumatic struts

92
Q

What does the nose gear consist of?

A

Oleo pneumatic strut
Shimmy damper
Torque link

93
Q

What does the torque link do?

A

Fitted to an oleo to prevent it turning left or right of its own accord

94
Q

What are the two types of retractable undercarriage?

A

Hydraulic
Mechanical

95
Q

What are the three common types of fire detectors?

A

Overheat - thermal switch
Rate of temperature rise - thermocouple
Flame detector - optical

96
Q

What are the four types of fire extinguishers?

A

Water
Dry chemical
Carbon dioxide
BCF

97
Q

What barometer is in an altimeter?

A

Aneroid barometer

98
Q

How does the air enter a VSI?

A

Capsule is directly from the static vent
Instrument case via a choke

99
Q

How does an ASI measure indicated airspeed?

A

Taking the total pressure entering the pitot tube and subtracting the static pressure

100
Q

What happens to the altimeter with a blocked static vent

A

Indicates the altitude at which the blockage occurred

101
Q

What happens to the VSI with a blocked static vent?

A

It will read zero

102
Q

What effect does a blocked static vent have on the ASI?

A

Under read in a climb
Over read in a descent

103
Q

What instruments will a blocked pitot tube affect?

104
Q

What is the effect of a blocked pitot tube on the ASI?

A

Over read in a climb
Under read in a descent

105
Q

What is PUD SUC?

A

Pitot blocked - ASI
Underread
Descent

Static blocked - ASI
Underread
Climb

106
Q

What causes VSI lag?

A

The restricting diffuser in the pressure case slows the equalisation process of air pressure between the outside atmosphere and that of the instrument pressure case

107
Q

What instruments are effected by alternate static source?

A

ASI and altimeter tend to overread

108
Q

What are the two main properties of gyroscopes?

A

Rigidity
Precession

109
Q

What is a space gyro?

A

Mounted in gimbals
Can be isolated from movement in roll, pitch and yaw

110
Q

Main advantage of electrically driven gyros?

A

Faster speed providing greater rigidity and a more stable reference platform

111
Q

The AH uses which gyroscopic property?

112
Q

What property does the turn and balance rely on?

A

Precession

113
Q

What errors does the AH show when the aircraft is accelerated?

A

Roll effect - false right wing low
Pendulous vanes precess into false climb

114
Q

What is real wander?

A

DG drifting out of alignment due to friction and small imbalances. Also called mechanical drift

115
Q

What are the compass acceleration errors?

A

South
Accelerating
North
Decelerating

116
Q

What is the main purpose of fuel vents?

A

To avoid fuel starvation

117
Q

An aircraft fitted with a constant speed propeller, what effect will reducing airspeed have on propeller pitch and RPM?

A

Propeller pitch becomes fine
RPM remains constant