Systems Flashcards

1
Q

FLOW pb (NORM/HI)

A

Norm: 22 psi
High: 30 psi

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2
Q

L and R packs

A

L: flight deck + cabin
R: cabin only

(one pack INOP –> mixing chamber)

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3
Q

Ground Turbo Fans

A

ON when:

  • IAS ≤ 150 kts and L/G retr. for less than 10’ (AFTER T/O)
  • IAS ≤ 150 kts + L/G ext.

*in case of ENG OIL LO PR: turbo fan starts on the opposite side when ≤ 150 kts, regardless of L/G position

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4
Q

Conditioned air enters the cabin via

A

OUTLET RAMPS (under the OVHD bins)

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5
Q

Avionics compartment ventilation is achieved by

A

extracting heated air to limit internal operating temperature

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6
Q

EXTRACT AIR FAN

A

extracts air from the FLT DCK and EE racks at diff. speeds, based on cockpit temp.

Rotational speed:
MIN when cockpit temp. = 20 °C
MAX when cockpit temp. > 52 °C

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7
Q

FWD SMK

A

can be contained by closing the EXTRACT AIR FLOW VALVE

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8
Q

PACK OVHT PROT

A

OVHT CAUTION: duct temp. > 92 °C
PACK VALVE closes auto. when air downstream of the PACK COMPR >204 °C

TEMP CONTROL VALVE: progressively closes if the duct temp. downstream of the MIXING CHAMBER > 88 °C

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9
Q

RECIRC FAN 1(2) pb + when does the FAULT LT come on

A

ON: recirculation of a part of the cabin air to supplement AIR COND is provided. FAN ROT SPD varies linearly from LO to HI speed depending on the position of the TEMP CONTROL VALVE. HI SPD auto. sel. if the temp. measured at cabin floor level < 13 °C

OFF: all the air is supplied by the packs without recirculation.

FAULT LT ON: FAN ROT SPD < 900 rpm or the fan’s elec. motor OVHT

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10
Q

EXHAUST MODE pb

A

NORM (GND/IN FLT)
OVBD:
-extract fan stops
-OVBD valve partially opens (IN FLT ONLY)
-U/F valve closes (cabin underfloor ventilation valve)
-OVBD LT ON

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11
Q

Pressurization LDG ELEV indicator

A

-1500 to 10’000 ft
indicate blanks when AUTO MODE FAIL or the system is in MAN/DUMP mode

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12
Q

MAN PRESS CONTROL

A

-Electropneumatic outflow valve: closed
-Pneumatic outflow valve: operated via the MAN RATE KNOB (-1500 to +2500 fpm)

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13
Q

DUMP FUNCTION

A

Only available in auto mode.
Fully depressurizes the aircraft

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14
Q

CAB PR. IND.

A

-Alt ind.
-Rate ind.
-Diff. ind. (DeltaPr Cabin/A/C static pr.)(-1 to 8 psi) OFF Flag appears in the RH corner if a loss of ELEC PWR occurs

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15
Q

the AFCS consists of

A

-AFCS computer
-Control panel
-ADU
-3 servo actuators (yaw, pitch, roll)

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16
Q

AFCS inputs

A

-ADCs
-AHRS
-SGU
-RA
-GPS
-Other sensors

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17
Q

BANK (AFCS button)

A

HI 27° (default)
LO 15°

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18
Q

ADU

A

Advisories
Caution
Armed mode
Captured mode

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19
Q

GA pb

A

GA mode: AP OFF + FD HDG HLD + predetermined safe pitch attitude

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20
Q

EADI FMA

A

Top L: ARM/ACT lateral modes
Top R ARM/ACT vertical modes

*= mode capture in progress
Mode change: 5s white box after the arm mode has been captured

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21
Q

TCS

A

tempo. manual control while AP ON
AP arrows ext. when ON
-in basic AP MODE: AP change PITCH and ROLL ref. New ref = new pitch + new roll
-during IAS or VS mode: generates dashed IAS/VS messages on the ADU

Pitch attitude limits: +- 15° (if released with > 15°, AP returns to 15°

Bank angle limits:
-if TCS is released at a bank angle of < 6°: AP levels wings
-if > 6° but < 35 °: AP maintains bank angle
-if > 35° AP returns to and keeps 35°

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22
Q

ALT ALERT

A

-C chord sound when within 1000 ft of sel. alt.
-any alt. dev. > 250ft triggers an alert
-visual alerts ext. when > 1000 ft of presel. alt

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23
Q

AP AUTO DISENG. conditions

A

-Stall warning
-AHRS dis.
-ADC dis.
-PITCH TRIM ASYM
-AP/YD conditions no longer valid

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24
Q

AP must be disconnected if the following adv. appear on the ADU

A

-AILERON MISTRIM
-PITCH TRIM FAIL
-PITCH MISTRIM

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25
Q

YD DISENG. conditions

A

-pressing the YD pb
-applying > 66 lbs of force on the rudder pedals (diseng. also the AP)

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26
Q

PITCH TRIM ASYM lt ON

A

AUTO AP DISENG. (it can’t be re-eng. in this cond.)

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27
Q

ELT AUTO ON when

A

> 5 g force
TX on 121.5, 243, 406 MHz

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28
Q

BATTERIES

A

-MAIN BAT (24V Ni-Cd - 43 Ah): ENG START + EMER PWR SUPPLY (incl. PROP FTR)
-EMER BAT (24V Ni-Cd - 15 Ah): ensures pwr supply to the EMER NETWORK if the MAIN BAT has been completely discharged by repeated start attempts + AVOIDS PWR TRANSIENTS on critical equipment during engine starts

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29
Q

TRU

A

ACw to DC: maintains the BATs when BOTH GEN FAIL (DC PWR under EMER SUPPLY)

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30
Q

DC STARTERS/GEN (2)

A

-Each delivers: 12 Kw (400A), 27/31V (nominal setting = 30V)
-Air-cooled

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31
Q

DC STARTER MODE

A

STARTER MODE: connects to MAIN BAT or EXT PWR
-The rotor rotates up to self-sustaining speed (45% NH) then START SEQ auto. ends
-Due to tolerances, start seq. may terminate at 42/48 % NH

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32
Q

DC GEN MODE

A

GENERATOR MODE: when the engine reaches 61.5 % NH –> GEN MODE
(DC GEN pb pushed in + EXT PWR not ON)

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33
Q

GCU

A

Gen. Control Unit
Controls: GC + SC (gen contactor + starter contactor)

MONITORS: point of regulation which maintains constant voltage during load variances

PROVIDES FAULT detection and protection for:
- GEN OVER/UNDVOLT + OVER/UNDSPD
-DIFF. FAULT CURRENT
-GEN OVERLOAD
-PWR and FAULT CURRENT LIMITING
-BUS TIE LOCK OUT
REVERSE CURRENT
EQUALIZING LOAD (in case of BTC failed closed)

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34
Q

BPCU

A

Bus Pwr Control Unit - controls:
-BTC
-BSC - BAT STARTER CONTACTOR
-LOAD SHEDDING
-EXT PWR functions
-DC SVCE BUS

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35
Q

DC DISTRIBUTION NETWORK

A

11 busses

-DC BUS 1 + 2
-HOT MAIN BAT BUS + HOT EMER BAT BUS
-DC EMER BUS, DC ESS BUS, DC STBY BUS
-UTLY BUS 1 + 2
-DC SVCE BUS
-GND HDLG BUS

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36
Q

DC BUS 1 normally supplies

A

-HOT EMER BAT BUS
-DC EMER BUS
-DC STBY BUS
-UTLY BUS 1
-INV 1
-DC SVCE BUS

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37
Q

DC BUS 2 normally supplies

A

-HOT MAIN BAT BUS
-DC ESS BUS
-UTLY BUS 2
-INV 2

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38
Q

How many BTCs and BTR are controlled by the MAIN ELEC PWR PNL “BTC” pb?

A

2, one between DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2, one between AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2

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39
Q

A/C ON GND, DC EXT PWR ON, DC BTC “ISOL”

A

DC BUS 2 and AC BUS 2 are isolated

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40
Q

When DC GEN is functioning as a starter during a BAT START is supplied by

A

it is electrically supplied by the HOT MAIN BAT BUS and controlled from the DC ESS BUS

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41
Q

once the STARTER has started the engine, it operates in the GEN MODE when passing

A

61.5 % NH

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42
Q

What is the nominal voltage of the DC GENs?

A

30V

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43
Q

assuming normal operation in flight, how is the constant AC PWR frequency obtained

A

from DC busses through two inverters

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44
Q

assuming normal operation in flight, when are the HOT EMER BUS and HOT MAIN BAT BUS connected to their respective batteries

A

Always

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45
Q

assuming normal operation in flight, when are the DC EMER BUS and DC ESS BUS connected to the DC BUS 1 and/or DC BUS 2

A

always through BAT CHG and its respective HOT EMER or HOT MAIN BAT BUS

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46
Q

INV 1 normally supplies

A

AC BUS 1 and AC STBY BUS

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47
Q

DC SVCE and UTLY BUS SHED amber lt comes on when

A

at least one UTLY BUS is disconnected from its associated main DC BUS

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48
Q

EMER BAT CHG FAULT LT ON when

A

BAT OVHT detected by MFC (automatic disconnection) or charge contactor failure

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49
Q

following an INV FAIL, “INV” lt illuminates

A

associated AC BUS is supplied through the AC BTR by the other INV

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50
Q

MAIN BAT OVHT with MAIN BAT CHG “FAULT” LT ON, what happens to the busses powered by that battery?

A

HOT MAIN BAT BUS is lost and DC ESS BAT BUS is powered by DC BUS 1

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51
Q

in FLT with one eng INOP, which indication would be displayed on the shutdown engine’s DC GEN pb

A

white “OFF” if pb is released, amber “FAULT” if pb is depressed in

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52
Q

in flight one arrow illuminated on the EMER SUPPLY shows

A

the supply of DC ESS or DC EMER BUS from the corresponding HOT BAT BUS and battery discharging

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53
Q

the DC BTC is auto. closed and the flow bar is ill. in case of

A

EXT PWR op, H MODE op, or single eng. op.

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54
Q

in the event of both DC BUS 1 and 2 supply lost

A

INV 1 is auto. supplied by the HOT MAIN BAT BUS or by the HOT EMER BAT BUS in OVRD config. (or TRU if equipped and selected on)

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55
Q

not counting UTLY and SVCE BUSSES, which DC/AC BUSSES cannot be supplied on BAT ONLY

A

DC1,DC2,AC1,AC2

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56
Q

A/C equipped with TRU. in case of DUAL DC GEN LOSS

A

with TRU pb ON, the TRU is connected to DC EMER BUS, DC STBY BUS, DC ESS BUS, INV1 (AC STBY BUS ONLY)

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57
Q

with BAT ONLY, AC BUS 1 + 2 are

A

never supplied

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58
Q

BAT sel toggle sw on OVRD means that

A

no changing about the supply, each EMER, ESS and STBY BUS are forced to be connected to their respective BAT, overriding all other logics and protections

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59
Q

the UNDV lt ill. amber when

A

DC STBY BUS voltage is lower than 19.5V

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60
Q

STBY BUS OVRD pb set on OVRD means that

A

DC STBY BUS and AC STBY BUS through INV 1 are supplied from DC HOT EMER BUS

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61
Q

no EXT PWR avail. does H mode provide pwr for the ACW syst.

A

No

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62
Q

how can the ACW SVCE BUS be powered by ACW EXT PWR

A

directly from the ACW EXT PWR, green AVAIL lt ill., but the att. pnl ACW SVCE BUS SW must be ON

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63
Q

what is the minimum NP to ensure ACW GEN operation

A

66% (range of 341 to 488 Hz)

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64
Q

A/C on gnd, ACW EXT PWR sel. ON, starting LH ENG and putting LH CL MAX RPM

A

ACW BUS 1 and ACW BUS 2 are still supplied by EXT PWR

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65
Q

in the ACW SYST, how many BTC are used

A

2 BTC and 1 BTC pb

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66
Q

the BTC in the ACW syst permits

A

to provide power to both ACW BUSSES when EXT PWR is used and if one ACW GEN fails, the other provides power to both ACW BUSSES

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67
Q

A/C on GND, ENGs running, EXT ACW PWR supplying the BUSSES, we select ACW BTC on ISOL

A

ACW BUS 1 and 2 are lost

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68
Q

with all 4 GENs pb IN, and EXT PWR supplying both ACW and DC, which light should be illuminated in the four ship’s gen pb

A

amber FAULT to show an opening generator contactor

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69
Q

A/C in flt, ACW GEN 1 fails

A

only ACW SVCE BUS is shed

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70
Q

when the ACW SVCE BUS is SHED, what indications are given

A

SHED amber lt on attendant pnl ACW SVCE BUS pb

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71
Q

which of the following agent is used in the two engine fire bottles

A

freon or halon, pressurized by nitrogen

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72
Q

how many eng. fire ext bottles are there

A

2 common for both eng

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73
Q

each eng is equipped with how many fuel detection loops

A

2 fuel detection loops mounted in PARALLEL

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74
Q

which of the following busses power the eng fire det syst, the fire handles and the ext bottle discharge syst

A

DC EMER BUS

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75
Q

what happens when the SQUIB TEST pb is depressed

A

discharge heads are tested and two “SQUIB” lts ill white

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76
Q

switching the FIRE TEST sw on FAULT position on ENG FIRE PNL, what happens

A

BAT ONLY: only the related LOOP A and LOOP B fault lights ill.
H MODE: the related LOOP A and LOOP B FAULT lts ill., with the CCAS pnl “LOOP” lt MC and aural advise

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77
Q

A/C on gnd, BAT ONLY, both CL in SO pos. will the fire test operate?

A

ENG FIRE lt on CAP and in FIRE HANDLE, MW lts and CRC in CM1 loudspeaker

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78
Q

to get the FIRE WARNING on, it is necessary to have

A

both loops ON or one loop ON only but the other OFF

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79
Q

ENG FIRE TEST, LOOP pb IN, what happens if only one loop senses a fire?

A

nothing

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80
Q

with only one loop pb IN, what happens if it senses a fire

A

fire warning is initiated

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81
Q

the FUEL SO red lt on the CL ill.

A

during a REAL FIRE (CL isn’t in FUEL SO pos)

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82
Q

is it possible to discharge a fire bottle without pulling the FIRE SO HANDLE

A

No

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83
Q

when you pull the ENG FIRE SO HANDLE what happens

A

PROP FTR, FUEL ENG LP VALVE CLOSURE, AIR BLEED VALVE AND HP VALVE CLOSURE, DE ICE VALVE and SHUT OFF VALVE CLOSURE, ELECTRICAL DC and ACW GENs DEACT, SQUIB LT ON, EXTINCTION AGENT PB is activated

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84
Q

the DISCH amber lt indicates

A

fire bottle is empty (depressurized)

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85
Q

fire proc. on LH ENG, after agent 1 DISCH you see

A

AGENT 1 DISCH on LH ENG + AGENT 2 DISCH on RH ENG

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86
Q

after an ENG FIRE, when does the red fire handle lt ext

A

only when the temp detected by the loops drops below the warning threshold

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87
Q

SMOKE DET are provided in

A

AVIONICS COMPT, TOILET, FWD + AFT CARGO COMPT

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88
Q

red ELEC SMOKE lt on CAP can indicate smoke detected in the air extraction duct from which of the following areas

A

between the avionics compt. and the extract fan

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89
Q

in FLT, roll control is achieved by

A

2 AIL each one with a tab and also 2 spoilers

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90
Q

roll control operation is achieved by actuating

A

mechanically the AIL and hyd. the SPLRS

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91
Q

roll trim control is performed using

A

only L AIL TAB

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92
Q

SPLR lt is ill to ind

A

associated spoiler is not in the retracted position

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93
Q

each of the 2 roll spoilers has an HYD actuator which is controlled

A

mechanically, by control of aileron deflection

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94
Q

the role of spring tab is

A

a spring tab provides a flexible compensation, which auto. increases with the aerodynamic load on the aileron

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95
Q

A/C equipped with electromechanical locking device

A

-each AIL is immobilized by an ELEC/MECH locking device
-each ELEC/MECH locking dev. is electrically actuated through switches installed on the gust lock lever
- an AIL LOCK lt, installed on the pedestal, will ill. with CCAS act. whenever one of the locking actuators is in disagreement with the gust lock lever position

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96
Q

SPLRS start to move after a give aileron deflection (2.5°)

A

at all speeds

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97
Q

pitch control is achieved by

A

2 mechanical drive elevators, each fitted with an automatic tab

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98
Q

pitch trim is obtained by

A

off setting both automatic tab neutral position

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99
Q

pitch trim actuation

A

-both NORMAL TRIM (control column) and STBY TRIM (pedestal) disconnect AP if engaged
-simultaneous action of NORMAL TRIM and STBY TRIM is not recommended

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100
Q

if one control column is jammed

A

pitch uncoupling procedure allows the other channel to operate one elevator

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101
Q

an aural whooler alert is generated by CCAS in case of

A

pitch trim use for more than 1s

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102
Q

in the yaw axis, pilot’s inputs act directly on the

A

RUDDER TAB and through a spring on the rudder itself

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103
Q

YAW SPRING TAB function reduces pilot’s efforts at

A

any speed

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104
Q

RCU - releasable centering unit - located between the RUD and the linkage to the pilot’s pedals

A

-enables a stabilization of the RUD position when no action is applied on the pedals
-as soon as the yaw trim is moved, disengages to allow trim setting

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105
Q

the YAW TRIM is actuated by

A

an ELEC TRIM ACTUATOR, shifting the TRIM TAB ZERO position

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106
Q

the yaw trim pos ind shows

A

units of trim motor displacement from neutral

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107
Q

the TLU is controlled by ADC 1-2 and

A

-can be controlled manually in case of 2 ADC FAIL
-limits pedals stroke and rudder clearance (unlimited until 185 kt in accel, limited until 180 kt in decel)

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108
Q

LO SPD lt associated to TLU

A

ill green when rudder travel is not limited

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109
Q

the GUST LOCK SYST acts on

A

ROLL and PITCH control

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110
Q

how is the RUD protected, ON GND, for excessive movement generated by gust

A

by the RUDDER DUMPER

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111
Q

STICK SHAKE ADVICE is activated by

A

2 STICK SHAKER ACTUATORS, each one directly attached to the FO/CPT’s control columns

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112
Q

the STICK PUSHER ACTUATOR is attached to the linkage of

A

CPT’s control column

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113
Q

stick pusher is inhi

A

-on gnd
-during 10s after lift off
-in flt, provided RA is operative, when the A/C descends below 500 ft

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114
Q

meaning of the blue EXT flag on the flaps pos ind

A

-flap valve is hyd commanding flap extension
-with flaps extended it indicates a hyd leak

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115
Q

the flaps are protected by MFC in the way that

A

-ext is inhi > 185 kt
-clacker alert operates > 185 kt F15 and 150 kt F30
-the elec supply to the flap control system is isol, when an asymmetry of 6.7° is reached

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116
Q

in addition to CCAS act, if flaps asym (6.7°) is det by the MFC

A

-elec pwr to the flap control syst is isol and flaps are locked in position
-flaps control lever has no control on the syst

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117
Q

FLAPS UNLK red lt on CAP and CCAS alert when

A

flaps retract untimely more than 4° when flaps are sel 15° or more

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118
Q

the two ADC are supplied with static air pr, total air pr, TAT and each ADC computes

A

PA,VS,IAS,TAS,TAT,SAT

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119
Q

ADC 1 supplies

A

CAPT’S FLIGHT INSTR, AHRS 1, ADC 1, FDAU, MFC, GPWS, PRESSURIZ, AFCS

-EECs and TAT/SAT/TAS ind. are supplied according to ADC1/2 sel. on CAPT PNL

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120
Q

ADC 2 supplies

A

FO FLIGHT INSTR, AHRS 2 FDAU, MFC, PRESSURIZ, AFCS and ATC2

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121
Q

ADC 1 FAIL is detected by

A

red flags on CPT flight instr, lost of information on TAT/SAT/TAS ind and torque amber bugs are lost if ADC SEL in position 1

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122
Q

ADC 2 FAIL is detected by

A

red flags on FO flight instr, lost of information on TAT/SAT/TAS ind and torque amber bugs are lost if ADC sel in pos 2

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123
Q

in case of ADC FAIL

A

compare valid ADC with the STBY INSTR and select the other ADC to restore TAT/SAT/TAT ind and torque amber bugs

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124
Q

aircraft in flight, total DC GEN loss, which ADC is supplied

A

ADC 1 only is supplied

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125
Q

the two AHRS provide

A

pitch, roll and hdg

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126
Q

A/C on gnd, the two AHRS start their alignment period

A

automatically provided A/C BAT ON

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127
Q

the AHRS 1 supplies

A

SGU1,FO RMI,FDAU,RADAR,ASCB BUS

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128
Q

the AHRS 2 supplies

A

SGU 2, CPT RMI, ASCB BUS

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129
Q

when the ERECT/FAIL warning light ill. on one AHRS

A

the crew must press this switch within 15”, while maintaining the A/C on non-accelerated flight for gyro erection

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130
Q

A/C IN FLT supplied by BAT ONLY, which AHRS is supplied

A

AHRS 1 only is supplied

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131
Q

AHRS FAIL

A

HDG FAIL red message on associated EHSI and ATT FAIL red message on associated EADI, red flag on opposite RMI and AP remains engaged

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132
Q

AHRS FAIL actions to be performed

A

pilot on the side of the failed AHRS should select opposite ATT/HDG pb

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133
Q

“HDG” amber message on the TOP RH of the EADI means that

A

the two AHRS disagree on HDG info (6° or more)

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134
Q

“ATT” amber message on the TOP RH of the EADI means that

A

the two AHRS disagree on both PITCH and ROLL info (6° or more)

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135
Q

when the two AHRS disagree by 6° or more what happens

A

PIT,ROLL or ATT message is displayed on both EADI, EFIS COMP amber lt on CAP and AP disengages for ATT only

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136
Q

corrective action for EFIS COMP fault

A

compare both EADI to STBY ATT INSTRUMENT then pull the CB of the incorrect AHRS and pilot on the side of the incorrect AHRS should select opposite ATT/HDG ref

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137
Q

SGU FAIL (part A or B) indications

A

BLACK

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138
Q

SGU fail (part C)

A

RED CROSS

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139
Q

SGU FAIL corrective action

A

pilot on the side of the failed SGU should select opposite SGU ref (depress SGU sw)

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140
Q

FAILED CRT indication

A

failed CRT goes black

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141
Q

after a CRT FAIL

A

it should be switched OFF in order to obtain the COMPOSITE MODE on the remaining CRT

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142
Q

LOSS of one or more individual readouts on the EADI and/or EHSI

A

-red crosses appear on scales (LOC/GS/COURSE DEV/SPD)
-amber dashes replace digital info (DH/RA/CRS/HDG/DIST/GSPD/TTG)
-navigation pointers and/or course deviation bars disappear

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143
Q

A/C in FLT on BAT ONLY. which EADI is working and how if EHSI is OFF

A

only CPT’s EADI is working in COMP MODE if the CPT’s EHSI is in OFF pos

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144
Q

the FAST/SLOW scale is referenced to what

A

AIRSPD INTERNAL BUG

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145
Q

A/C on GND. flight recorder ops

A

-OFF until engine is started
-can be energized by selecting ON the RCDR pb and de-energized by pushing the RESET pb

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146
Q

CVR ops

A

-last 30’ are retained
-all recordings may be erased by pressing ERASE pb provided the A/C in on gnd and prk brk off

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147
Q

where is the REFUEL/DEFUEL pnl

A

RH main landing gear fairing

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148
Q

what power source supplies the REFUEL/DEFUEL pnl

A

DC GND HNDL BUS

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149
Q

REFUEL/DEFUEL syst

A

-the wing tanks can also be refueled by gravity
-in case of FQI fail detection, the high level is achieved by a level sensor installed at the bottom of each surge tank
-the syst may be used to defuel the aircraft by applying a 11 psi suction to the connector and opening the tank refuel valves

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150
Q

REFUEL/DEFUEL PNL MODE SEL SW AT REFUEL POS, how are the refuel valves operated

A

-auto logic if the fuel valve sw are set on NORM
-by manual sel of the refuel valves sw to OPEN or SHUT

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151
Q

FQI TEST pb

A

-display all 8 on the ref/def pnl and cockpit fuel quantity gauges
-BLUE LH and RF ref valves shut down

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152
Q

FUEL QUANT IND

A

-L and R fuel quant ind channels are independent
-in a level ATT (within -3° and +1° of pitch and +-2° of roll) the accuracy of the 6 probes fuel quant ind syst in each tank is +- 1% near ZERO. +- 3% at FULL

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153
Q

how many magnetic level ind are located at the bottom of each fuel tank

A

2

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154
Q

FQI display

A

fuel mass remaining on board

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155
Q

the ELEC PUMP and JET PUMP are located

A

both in a feeder compt to avoid uncovering the pumps in case of vertical or lateral loads

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156
Q

what is the capacity of the feeder compt

A

160 kg

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157
Q

in NORM OPS, the ELEC PUMP in each tank is used only to

A

START the ENG, which pressurizes the JET PUMP via its HMU HP FUEL PUMP for subsequent pressurization of the fuel syst

158
Q

the two FUEL PUMP pb control

A

-auto. starting and stopping function of the related ELEC PUMP when sel. IN
-closure of the related MOTIVE FLOW VALVE, thus shut-off of the related JET PUMP when sel OFF

159
Q

the ELEC PUMP normally runs anytime the related pump pb is in and

A

-JET PUMP PR drops < 5 psi
-during xfeed op

160
Q

when does the MOTIVE FLOW VALVE open

A

anytime the related PUMP PB is IN and pressure from the HMU is sufficient to open it

161
Q

JET PUMP is activated by

A

HP FUEL from engine HMU

162
Q

in the whole flight envelope how many engines can only one elec pump supply

163
Q

a JET PUMP fail is detected by

A

ill of RUN green lt in the related elec pump pb

164
Q

engine running, FEED LO PR can mean (FUEL)

A

pressure < 4 psi or fuel starvation

165
Q

to feed ENG 1 with TANK 2, LH and RH FUEL PUMPS running, you must

A

open the xfeed valve and then select ENG 1 FUEL PUMP pb OFF

166
Q

during xfeed with 2 eng running, after xfeed open and pump pb off in the side with least fuel, how many pumps are running

A
  1. ELEC and JET PUMP on the side with the most fuel
167
Q

if no green FLOW BAR is visible in the XFEED pb

A

XFEED valve is in transit or a fault exists

168
Q

how is the LP VALVE at the outlet of each tank controlled

A

ELEC by the related fire handle

169
Q

LO LVL amber lt

A

-fuel qty < 160 kg
-feeder tank lvl < 160 kg and the corresponding electrical pump runs automatically

170
Q

each HYD syst is mainly pressurized by means of

A

an ACW ELEC PUMP

171
Q

an AUX DC ELEC PUMP is located

A

in the BLUE HYD SYST

172
Q

the NORM HYD PR of the BLUE and GREEN SYST is

173
Q

the HYD FLUID is contained in

A

a single common not pressurized tank, divided in two compartments BLUE and GREEN, located in the HYD BAY (LH L/G fairing)

174
Q

normal accumulator pre-charge pressure on the three gauges near the left main gear bay

175
Q

BLUE HYD SYST users

A

-NWS
-FLPS
-SPLRS
-PROP BRK
-EMER + PARK BRK

176
Q

GREEN HYD SYST users

A

-L/G
-NORM BRKS

177
Q

on GND without elec pwr (BAT OFF) we can read

A

HYD PR or GAS PR GAUGE on the HYD BAY (LH L/G fairing)

178
Q

on GND, pushing the AUX PUMP ob on the pedestal allows

A

to energize the AUX PUMP which pressurize the BLUE HYD SYST, regardless of BAT SW ON/OFF

179
Q

A/C ON GND, RH ENG MAX RPM, the following main pumps are activated

A

GREEN only

180
Q

when PROP BRK LOCKING SEQ is initiated (ENG ONE STOPPED, ENG TWO RUNNING) aux pump….

A

AUX PUMP stops to run when PROP BRK is engaged

181
Q

AUX PUMP runs automatically (PB pressed) HYD

A

-in flt, BLUE SYST LO PR, L/G LEVER SEL DN, at least ONE ENG RUNNING
-on gnd, BLUE SYST LO PR, PROP BRK NOT ENG, at least ONE ENG RUNNING

182
Q

LO PR amber lt on GREEN HYD PUMP pb ON, the XFEED VALVE automatically opens

183
Q

BLUE HYD MAIN PUMP LO PR IN FLT L/G UP

A

AUX PUMP does not take over auto.

184
Q

with BLUE PUMP OFF, and GREEN PUMP running XFEED allows pressurization of

A

both BLUE SYST and BRK ACCU

185
Q

you are on final appr, L/G DN, all lts ext on the HYD PNL. a LO PR caution lt ill on the BLUE MAIN PUMP

A

the AUX PUMP automatically restores the blue pressure

186
Q

OVHT ALERT

A

OVHT of the pump case drain line

187
Q

LO LVL ALERT (HYD)

A

XFEED VALVE is auto. closed and inhibited

188
Q

DUAL DC GEN LOSS. WHICH HYD PUMPS ARE LOST

A

only DC AUX PUMP is lost

189
Q

ice and rain protection is provided by

A

ELEC HTG + PNEUMATIC SYST

190
Q

ANTI ICING ELEC HTG is provided mainly by ACW CURRENT for

A

-PROP BLADES
-WINDSHIELDS
-PROBES
-FLT CONTROL HORNS

191
Q

AIRFRAME BLEED PB

A

-must be IN, no OFF LT, in order to operate ENG and WING STABILIZER BOOTS
-can be OFF, OFF LT ON, in order to isolate ENG DE-ICING and AFR DE-ICING

192
Q

the purpose of AIRFRAME BLEED is

A

-to control DE ICE and ISOL VALVES normal operation, PB pressed both DEICE and ISOL VALVES are open
-to permit a detection of an ENG or AIRFRAME DE ICE SYST FAIL

193
Q

both AFR and ENG DEICING sel ON

A

they are DEICED sequentially

194
Q

DE ICING LT ON on memo pnl

A

AFR DEICING ON

195
Q

MODE SEL AUTO IN “MAN” ON THE DEICING PNL. WHEN SHOULD THE MODE SEL PB BE “ON”

A

if SAT < 20°C; causes a cycle length of 180s

196
Q

can you use the PNEUMATIC DE ICING SYST with both eng bleed valves OFF, engines running

197
Q

ONE ENG INOP, if the AAS SYST DET ICE WHILE ICING AOA GREEN LT is EXT

A

amber ICING lt illuminates flashing, MC and SC

198
Q

A/C IN FLT, ANTI ICING ON. if the AAS syst det ice

A

the amber ICING lt ill flashing, MC and SC + green ICING AOA ill steady

199
Q

A/C in flt, DE ICING blue lt flashing on memo pnl

A

AIR FRAME DE ICING STILL ON 5’ after the last ice accretion has been det by the AAS syst

200
Q

FAULT lt in airframe BLEED PB ill amber and CCAS is act when

A

air pressure downstream of the de-ice valves stays below 14 psi, more than 10”, or air temp upstream of the de-ice valves exceeds 230°C

201
Q

DE ICING OVRD PB IN OVRD POS

A

-bypasses the MFC modules logic and a timing cycle of 60s is sel
-only used when the associated FAULT LT is ILL

202
Q

MODE SEL AUTO PB in MAN pos

A

DE ICING MODE SEL PB is operative and allows the crew to select the appropriate timing cycle, depending on SAT

203
Q

NORM OPS, when is it possible to use PROP ANTI ICING

A

only when both engines are running

204
Q

PROP ANTI ICING MODE SEL ON

A

BLADES HTG is 20” long according to a cycle of 80”

205
Q

STALL ALERT threshold is reduced from NORM OPS to ICING OPS as soon as

A

At least one horn anti icing is sel ON

206
Q

when does the GREEN AOA lt disappear

A

manually by depressing AOA GREEN LT PB after it is visually confirmed that the A/C is clear of any residual ice and A/C is flying now in norm cond

207
Q

to prevent the formation of ice on air data sensors, elec probe htg is provided for

A

CPT,FO,STBY PITOT TUBES (3) and STATIC PORTS (6), CPT and FO AOA PROBES (2) + TAT PROBES (2) in flight only

208
Q

PITOTS, PROBES AND STATIC PORTS ARE

A

HEATED AND MONITORED BY CCAS ON GND AND IN FLT (EXCEPT STATIC PORTS MONITORED BY CCAS ON GND ONLY)

209
Q

PROBES HTG AND WINDSHIELD HTG PB ON IN H MODE OPS

A

STATIC PORTS + STBY PORTS ARE HEATED

210
Q

you can use wipers

A

below 160 kt

211
Q

L/G pos ind are controlled by

A

2 isolates systems, SYST 1 and SYST 2 and two separated position indicators

212
Q

A/C supplied by BAT ONLY, which L/G syst is supplied

A

SYST 1 ONLY (central pnl)

213
Q

L/G NOT DN. the alarm is generated

A

-by MFC 2 associated to the OVHD pnl (SYST 2)
-by MFC 1 associated to the central pnl (SYST 1)

214
Q

an anti retraction latch prevents selection of the L/G lever to the UP pos as long as

A

the 3 L/G shock absorbers are not ext

215
Q

L/G SEL VALVE is located in the LH MAIN GEAR FAIRING, and is controlled electrically from which BUS

A

DC STBY BUS

216
Q

L/G NORMAL OPS

A

-main gear wheels are braked auto as soon as the lever is sel UP
-as soon as the gear is locked at its selected pos, HYD PR is released

217
Q

to consider the L/G DN, 3 lts must be ill

A

either on the OVHD or CENTRAL PNL

218
Q

UNLK lt ill on the L/G PNL

A

-respective gear not seen locked in the lever selected position, or on the gnd, the uplock box is not in the opened pos

219
Q

a red light incorporated in the L/G lever will ill and CCAS will be act whenever any gear is not seen DN and LOCKED

A

-at least one PL at FI, RA < 500ft
-F30 and RA < 500 lt

220
Q

brakes equipped on the ATR

A

multidisc carbon brakes

221
Q

if the norm L/G ext fails, the EMER EXT HANDLE allows mechanical unlocking then

A

L/G extends because of gravity, aerodynamic forces and a gas actuator. MAIN L/G is assisted by gas actuation and integrated springs, NOSE L/G by a mechanical device

222
Q

how many valves in the NWS syst must be open before NWS is avail

A

both the SOLENOID and SWIVEL VALVES must be open to obtain a max L/R deflection of 60°

223
Q

NWS operation

A

-before TO, NWS CTRL will be maintained as long as one gear stays on ground
-at LDG, it will work with the nose gear locked down, nose and main gear shock absorbers compressed

224
Q

how long should the ANTISKID F lts ill during a test of a normal syst

A

-6s on the gnd
-3s in flt

225
Q

the ANTISKID is INHI at wheel speed above

226
Q

the ANTISKID PROTECTION is operative at speeds over

227
Q

if an ANTISKID CHNL FAILS during the ANTISKID TEST, what is the indication

A

related F lt does not ext after test

228
Q

the ANTISKID SYST uses which elec busses

A

-DC ESS BUS for INBD WHEELS
-DC EMER BUS for OTBD WHEELS

229
Q

TOTAL HYD SYST FAIL, BRK ACCU allows via the EMER PARK BRK HANDLE

A

at least 6 applications of braking force at fzll emer brk pr without ANTISKID prot

230
Q

the BRK and TIRE HIGH TEMP PROT consist of

A

-HOT lt on the central pnl indicating a brakes temp of 160 °C or more
-fuse plugs designed to release internal tire pr at HI temp (177 °C or more) on the main wheels

231
Q

the ANTISKID syst is provides protection against

A

-LOCKED WHEEL PROT, to preclude tire scuffing for wheel speed > 23 kt
-TOUCH DOWN PROT, to preclude inadvertent brk appl when spin up is below 35 kt or for 5s, whichever occurs first

232
Q

the two NAV CONTROL BOXES on the glareshield pnl control

A

-the respective VOR receivers using a common VOR antenna located on top of the VERT STAB
-the respective ILS rec using a common antenna used for VOR (LOC info) and a common GS antenna

233
Q

you can have VOR information on

A

EHSI course pointer and deviation, EADI deviation in COMPOSITE MODE ONLY, plus course pointers in RMI

234
Q

you can have ILS information on

A

EHSI and EADI LOC and GS

235
Q

course pointer indication on EHSI and RMI

A

you can have NDB or VOR indication either on the EHSI or RMI depending on VOR/ADF SELECTOR pos

236
Q

the NAV information VOR or ILS displayed on the top RH of the EHSI

A

identifies the NAV source, which supplies the COURSE DEV BAR (in amber when both pilots are using the same syst)

237
Q

the H in front of the DME mileage information on the EHSI means that

A

HOLD DME MODE is sel and will keep the distance info even if the VOR/ILS freq is changed

238
Q

VOR RECEIVER FAIL is shown on EHSI by

A

a red cross on DEV BAR N°1 and the POINTER indication is removed if VOR is selected

239
Q

which corrective action can you take in case of VOR 1 REC FAIL

A

press CPT VOR/ILS SW to transfer N°2 VOR REC on CPT’s DEV BAR

240
Q

a GS 2 REC FAIL is shown by

A

a red cross on EADI 2 and EHSI 2 GS DEVIATION

241
Q

which corrective action can you take in case of GS 2 REC FAIL

A

press FO VOR/ILS SWITCHING to transfer N°2 ILS (LOC+GS) REC ON FO ILS indication

242
Q

A/C supplied by BAT ONLY. which VHF is operating

A

VHF NAV 1 ONLY

243
Q

MARKER BEACON RECEIVER gives

A

-audio signal
-a visual signal displayed at the bottom RH corner of the EADI

244
Q

flying over TLS airport (elev 500 ft). at 3500ft on qnh, what is the RA indication on EADI

A

nothing, RA not displayed > 2500ft

245
Q

DH IND OCCUR

A

-when RA < than sel DH+100ft, a white box appears on EADI
-when RA < than sel DH, a DH amber symbol comes inside the box

246
Q

GPWS provides

A

-visual and aural alerts in case of dangerous flight
-alerts between 50 and 2500 ft AGL only
-test on gnd and in flt (>1000ft RA), by pressing one of the GPWS/GS pb

247
Q

when can the GPWS GS WARNING be inhi

A

< 1000 ft AGL by pressing one of the GPWS/GS SW

248
Q

what audio alert is triggered when descending through the sel DH with the L/G EXT

A

minimums-minimums

249
Q

the WX RDR DET is displayed on

A

EHSI in ARC MODE only

250
Q

when you check the WX RDR working in test pos

A

-the range is auto sel at 100NM
-three arcs appear on EHSI (green, yellow, red) + an arc predominately green between 85 and 95 NM
-selected mode appears on the top LH of EHSI

251
Q

when will the selection of the TGT mode on WX RDR CTRL PNL activates the amber TGT advice on the EHSI

A

anytime a LVL 3 (RED) radar return is between 60 and 120 NM and within 7.5° of HDG

252
Q

what is the purpose of the S bend of the air intake duct

A

-to provide uniform inlet airflow to the compressor
-to protect ENG INLET in case of foreign object ingestion and to divide airflow in a primary flow directed to the ENG and secondary flow directed to the OIL COOLER

253
Q

the ACCESSORY GEAR BOX, which is driven by the HP SPOOL, contains drives for

A

-DC STARTER/GEN
-FUEL HP PUMP
-OIL PUMP

254
Q

on the PROP REDUCTION GEAR BOX are installed

A

-PVM
-FTR PUMP
-OVSPD GOVERNOR
-AUX FTR PUMP
-ACW GEN
-RH ENG PROP BRK
-FUEL COOLED OIL COOLER

255
Q

is the fuel heated before HP PUMP, to prevent icing?

A

yes, by an automatic FUEL HEATER installed at the filter outlet, heated by ENG OIL

256
Q

how are the OIL PR SURGES prevented

A

-AIR/OIL cooler and pressure filter are both fitted with bypasses
-a COLD RELIEF VALVE bypasses the OIL back to the tank, during cold wx start

257
Q

EEC regulates ENG PWR as a function of

A

-PLs and PWR MGT sel pos
-FLT COND and bleed air valves pos

258
Q

EEC function is

A

-to provide uptrim pwr in case of ENG FAIL during TO (ATPCS) and ensure, at a given engine rating, a constant PL position
-to control at low thrust level and low speed, a CONSTANT PROP SPD (for instance on GND)

259
Q

HMU functions are

A

-meter FF delivery to the ENG
-provide MOTIVE FLOW to the fuel tank JET PUMP
-provide FUEL SO function (controlled by CL)

260
Q

the PROP BRK is powered by

A

HYD BLUE PR

261
Q

what is the logic to engage the PROP BRK

A

-gear shock abs compressed and gust lock lever engaged
-BLUE HYD PR AVAIL (READY LT)
-CL in FUEL SO or FTR

262
Q

BLUE HYD PR LOST DURING H MODE

A

PROP BRK remains engaged

263
Q

are the TQ,ITT,NP,NH,FF,OIL PR,OIL TEMP GAUGES ALL AVAIL on a BAT START

A

No, FF/FUEL USED and OIL PR/TEMP require DC ELEC PWR, they become available at 61.5% NH during ENG START

264
Q

during start sequence, the XSTART SYST

A

makes use of the MAIN BAT up to 10% NH, then uses MAIN BAT and opposite DC GEN (on gnd only)

265
Q

HIGH ENERGY IGN SYST consists of

A

2 IGN exciters (A and B), for each engine, pwrd by DC ESS BUS and 2 spark igniters, one for each ignition exciter

266
Q

when ENG START rotary sel is in CRANK pos, the exciters are energized

267
Q

the exciters A+B, for each ENG, are auto activated

A

if NH drops < 60%

268
Q

the use of MAN IGN energizes the exciters on both ENG

A

in case of adverse WX ops or EEC failure

269
Q

on GND with gust lock engaged, what is the max pwr avail

A

a few degrees above FI

270
Q

which ATPCS functions are AVAIL when it has been armed for TO

A

uptrim and autoftr

271
Q

A/C on gnd, pwr mgt TO, ATPCS armed if

A

both PL > 49° and both TQ > 46%

272
Q

when the PWR MGT is set in TO, what is indicated by the two AMBER TARGET BUGS on the TQ gauges

A

PWR MGT amber bugs are set by FDAU to the RTO (uptrim value)

273
Q

after a normal TO, how is ATPCS usually disarmed

A

PWR MGT moved from TO

274
Q

a gate prevents PL angle reduction below FI as soon as

A

both main L/G absorbers are released

275
Q

the PEC is a dual chnl elec box which provides

A

-synchrophasing between the two props by a closed loop control over the PROP PITCH change syst
-detect isolate and accomodate syst fault

276
Q

the PROP PITCH CHANGE is hydromech controlled by

A

PVM, PCV or PEC depending on A/C version

277
Q

during a GA with 2 ENG operating the ATPCS

A

is armed, provided that the PWR MGT sel is set at TO pos, but only for auto ftr

278
Q

during LDG, when does the idle gate move rearward to allow the GI pos

A

as soon as one L/G shock absorber is compressed

279
Q

STARTER FAULT lt ill when

A

-a GCU fail is det
-on R ENG, ENG START sel in START, PROP BRK ON, but gust lock is not engaged
-starter remains engaged after 45% NH

280
Q

at TO what happens if an EEC FAULT occurs

A

pwr remains virtually unchanged due to a FAIL FIX device, EEC fault lt flashes and EEC deselection is strictly prohibited

281
Q

in case of an EEC fault

A

-when PL are retarded below 52° EEC fault lt ill steady
-with PL below 52° after EEC deselection, PL is active again and it follows HMU base law

282
Q

how is a failed eng detected by the ATPCS

A

when one TQ gauge drops < 18%

283
Q

UPTRIM lt ill during TO when ONE ENG fails to indicate

A

that the ATPCS has auto increased TQ (10% of PWR) on the live engine

284
Q

AUTO FTR occurs

A

after 2.15” following a TQ drop below 18%

285
Q

the delay from the time an ENG FAIL is sensed, until the initiation of AUTO FTR allows the ACCELERATE-STOP PHASE of a TO to benefit from some drag on the failed ENG

286
Q

if an ENG FAIL occurs before V1 and BOTH PL are retarded within 2.15”, when does ATPCS disarm

A

at least one PL is retarded below 49° or both TQ reading are below 46%

287
Q

during an ATPCS ENG FAIL SEQ when does the ARM lt ext

A

AUTO FTR signal triggered on the failed engine

288
Q

how is a failed engine’s prop feathered by the ATPCS

A

via an electrical motor that drives the blades to the feather stop

289
Q

sequence after atpcs triggering

A

-the trigger cancellation can only result from PWR MGT other than TO, ATPCS pb off, both PL RETARDED
-if the engine is restarted, it will be necessary to select PWR MGT at MCT pos after relight, in order to unfeather the prop

290
Q

in the event of a fail of primary chnl in PEC

A

the prop control will be automatically transferred to the backup chnl

291
Q

the correct warning of the backup chnl is confirmed

A

on gnd, at each prop unfeathering by SGL CH light on for 2”

292
Q

when the PEC fault lt ill amber, selecting off the relevant pb, NP is automatically set to…

A

PEC is deactivated and NP is blocked at 102.5% when PL is sufficient

293
Q

an internal commutation allows an automatic sw from normal to alternate elec supply if source voltage falls below

294
Q

the MFC is operative as soon as

A

BAT is switched ON and the modules self test is completed (6”)

295
Q

the MFC amber lt comes ON flashing in 1A and 2A modules to indicate

A

selftest of these modules

296
Q

CCAS operating modules

297
Q

the following warnings are not processed by the MFC

A

-ENG FIRE
-EXCESS CAB DIFF PR
-EXCESS CAB ALT
-NAC OVHT
-SMK

298
Q

which lights remain on on CAP after pressing CLR

A

red lights +
-PRK BRK
-GPWS FAULT
-MAINT PNL

299
Q

TO CONFIG TEST used to check

A

-PWR MGT TO
-PITCH TRIM GREEN + F15
-TLU LO SPD + AIL LOCK EXT

300
Q

TO INHI will inhibit

A

-ENG OIL LO PR
-SMK
-all amber cautions on CAP except:
-EFIS COMP
-PRK BRK
-GPWS FAULT
-MAINT PNL
-ENG
-FLT CTL

301
Q

manual cancellation of TO INHI is obtained

A

by pressing RCL pb

302
Q

stall alert and pusher activation is triggered by

A

CRIT AOA INFO, directly processed by CCAS

303
Q

ICING AOA ill, the stall alert threshold is at a CRIT AOA of

A

-lower than normal depending on flaps pos
-8.4° for TO and change when 10’ have elapsed after lift off, or when flaps are retracted to 0, whichever occurs first

304
Q

in case of MFC 1B and 2B FAIL

A

all level 3 (WARNING) alerts, except CONFIG, ENG OIL, PROP BRK, are processed without MW and CRC, all level 2 alerts (CAUTION) are not processed

305
Q

pack valves functions are

A

-SHUT OFF
-PR CONTROL and hence FLOW CONTROL

306
Q

PACKS are installed

A

one in each L/G fairing

307
Q

which pack is the primary supplier of cockpit air

308
Q

IF THE RELATED ELECTRICAL SUPPLY (OR AIRFLOW) IS LOST, THE PACK VALVES

A

are spring loaded closed

309
Q

IN CASE OF PACK OVERHEAT DOWNSTREAM OF THE COMPRESSOR

A

the pack valve on the faulty side closes

310
Q

IN CASE OF DUCT OVERHEAT DOWNSTREAM OF THE MIXING CHAMBER

A

no pack valve closes

311
Q

TEMP SELECTOR OVHT CAUTION IS TRIGGERED WHEN

A

duct temp > 92°C

312
Q

WHAT IS THE MEANING OF A RECIRCULATION FAN “FAULT” LIGHT

A

-fan rpm too low
-fan motor ovht

313
Q

THE AIR CONDITIONING BLEED AIR IS SUPPLIED BY

A

generally supplied by engine LP stage but if the air is not sufficient air surge is automatically
switched to the engine HP stage (descent flight idle, ground operation)

314
Q

WHAT HAPPENS, IN ABSENCE OF AIR PRESSURE, WITH ENGINE BLEED SELECTED “ON”

A

Bleed valve closes automatically

315
Q

TO USE THE AIR CONDITIONING IN HOTEL MODE OPERATION, YOU NORMALLY USE

A

Right ENG AIR BLEED plus right PACK VALVE and via the CROSS-FEED BLEED VALVE
(automatically opened) the left PACK VALVE

316
Q

THE GROUND CROSS-FEED BLEED VALVE OPENS AUTOMATICALLY

A

In hotel mode provided that the right bleed valve is open.

317
Q

TO ENSURE A RAPID LEAK SENSING, A KEVLAR ENVELOPE IS INSTALLED AROUND THE
MAJOR PARTS OF THE HIGH TEMPERATURE BLEED DUCT

A

-in the wing lead edge and wing fuselage fairing
-in the upper and lower fuselage floor
-in the air conditioning pack area

318
Q

AN OVERHEAT CONDITION DOWNSTREAM OF THE ENGINE BLEED AIR SHUT-OFF VALVE CAUSES

A

actuation of the OVHT alert and closure of ENG BLEED AIR VALVE

319
Q

IN WHICH CASES DOES THE ENG BLEED VALVE CLOSE AUTOMATICALLY

A

-OVHT,LEAK, LACK OF AIR PR
-FIRE HANDLE ACT
-START SEQUENCE
-PROP BRK ON (L BLEED ONLY)

320
Q

THE FAULT BLEED LIGHT COMES ON AMBER AND THE “CCAS” IS ACTIVATED WHEN

A

Disagreement between the valve and the selected position or in case of OVHT or LEAK

321
Q

THE PNEUMATIC OUTFLOW VALVE

A

is slaved to the electro-pneumatic outflow valve in automatic mode only.

322
Q

N NORMAL OPERATION WITHOUT FAILURE THE DIGITAL CONTROLLER USES AS
REFERENCE

A

ADC 1 and CPT BARO ALT SETTING

323
Q

WHAT ARE THE CORRECT INDICATIONS DURING A PRESSURIZATION SYSTEM TEST

A

-The amber FAULT light in the MAN PB.
-The landing elevation indicator displays alternatively 18800 and -8800.
test inhi in flt

324
Q

AFTER TAKE OFF THE CABIN ALTITUDE REMAINS AT TAKE OFF ELEVATION UNTIL THE
AIRCRAFT REACHES 3500 FT ABOVE

A

airfield elev

325
Q

THE MAX CABIN RATE OF CLIMB, UP TO 20 000 FT IN AUTO MODE IS

326
Q

WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM CABIN DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE

A

-Positive 6.35 PSI, limited by a manometric capsule.
-Negative 0.5 PSI, limited by a non-return valve

327
Q

WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM CABIN ALTITUDE (FL250 AP=6 PSI)

328
Q

HOW IS THE SYSTEM PROTECTED AGAINST EXCEEDING THE MAXIMUM CABIN DIFFERENTIAL
PRESSURE

A

Both outflow valves incorporate a manometric capsule (aneroid) to hold the valve open sufficiently to
prevent overpressure

329
Q

N AUTO, WHAT IS THE HIGHEST CABIN RATE OF DESCENT AVAILABLE WITH THE DESCENT
RATE PUSH-BUTTON RELEASED (NORM)

330
Q

IN AUTO, WHAT IS THE HIGHEST CABIN RATE OF DESCENT AVAILABLE WITH THE DESCENT
RATE PB DEPRESSED (FAST)

331
Q

BEFORE LANDING TO AVOID A CABIN PRESSURE BUMP AT TOUCH DOWN, THE CABIN
ALTITUDE IS AUTOMATICALLY MAINTAINED AT 300 FT BELOW

A

selected landing elevation

332
Q

AFTER LANDING, THE CABIN DEPRESSURIZATION RATE IS

333
Q

N CASE OF “ADC 1” FAILURE, THE DIGITAL CONTROLLER USES AS REFERENCE AIRCRAFT
STATIC AIR PRESSURE GENERATED BY

A

ADC 2 and 1013 HPa.

334
Q

WHAT IS THE CORRECT WAY TO SWITCH FROM AUTOMATIC TO MANUAL OPERATION (PRESS SYST)

A

Turn the MAN RATE KNOB to 9 o’clock position, select “MAN” on the CABIN PRESS PB and
operate the MAN RATE KNOB as required.

335
Q

IN MAN, WHAT IS THE HIGHEST CABIN RATE OF DESCENT AND CLIMB AVAILABLE

A

-1500 fpm / +2500 fpm

336
Q

WHAT HAPPENS IN CASE OF LOSS OF ELECTRICAL SUPPLY TO THE “DIGITAL CONTROLLER”,
IN AUTOMATIC MODE

A

Both outflow valves go to full close

337
Q

IN CASE OF TOTAL DC ELECTRICAL POWER LOST (PRESS SYST)

A

-AUTO PRESS mode is lost.
-MANUAL PRESS mode and CABIN PRESS IND are still available.

338
Q

THE “CCAS” SYSTEM IS ACTIVATED WHEN THE CABIN ALTITUDE REACHES

339
Q

WHEN IS THE “DUMP” FUNCTION AVAILABLE

A

it only works in AUTO PRESS mode

340
Q

HOW MANY OUTFLOW VALVES ARE OPENED IN “DUMP” FUNCTION

341
Q

SELECTING THE “DITCH MODE” WITH THE “DITCH PB”

A

Two electrical motors maintain both outflow valves in closed position, regardless of AUTO or
MANUAL PRESS mode use.
B. In addition to the white light on DITCH PB, MASTER CAUTION flashes amber and AIR amber light
illuminates on CAP

342
Q

HOTEL MODE NORMAL OPERATION, THE VENTILATION PANEL BEING IN AUTO
CONFIGURATION:

A

OVBD valve is opened, UF valve is closed

343
Q

THE OVERBOARD VALVE POSITION CAN BE SELECTED MANUALLY, USING “OVBD VALVE”
OVERRIDE CTL SWITCH

A

-after AUTO mode fail
-on GND for cold day use, in order to accelerate cabin heating selecting full close pos

344
Q

when LH eng start seq is initiated

A

extract fans stops during 120”, to avoid pr shocks, and EXHAUST MODE FAULT ill

345
Q

THE “OVBD” VALVE “CTL” SWITCH ON AUTO, THE “OVBD” VALVE POSITION IS FUNCTION OF

A

-The exhaust mode PB position.
-The aircraft condition (flight or ground, ENG 1 running or not).

346
Q

WHEN SHOULD THE AVIONICS VENT SYSTEM EXTRACT FAN STOP?

A

-for 120” after ENG 1 start
-when OVBD valve is selected on the EXHAUST MODE pb

347
Q

AIRCRAFT IN FLIGHT, OR ON GROUND TWO ENGINES RUNNING, WHAT ARE THE NORMAL
POSITIONS OF THE “OVBD” AND “UNDERFLOOR VALVES

A

-OVBD FULLY CLOSED
-U/F FULLY OPEN

348
Q

EXHAUST MODE FAULT ILLUMINATES IN CASE OF

A

FAN FAILURE or OVERTEMP and CCAS is act

349
Q

WHEN SHOULD THE EXHAUST MODE P/B BE SET ON “OVBD”

A

in case of extract fan fail in flt

350
Q

IN FLIGHT, THE EXHAUST MODE P/B ON “OVBD” POSITION, AND THE CONTROL SWITCH ON
“AUTO” MODE

A

extract fan is off, U/F valve is closed, OVBD valve is partially open

351
Q

ILLUMINATION OF THE AVIONICS VENT PANEL EXHAUST MODE PUSH-BUTTON “OVBD” LIGHT.
CAUSES THE GROUND MECHANIC CALL HORN TO SOUND

A

Always on gnd

352
Q

ON THE AVIONICS VENT PANEL, THE “FAULT” LIGHT ILLUMINATES AMBER WHEN:

A

-On ground engine 1 not running, OVBD valve is not fully open, (except with OVBD VALVE on full
-In flight or on ground 2 engines running, OVBD valve is not fully close, (except with OVBD VALVE on full open position
-There is any disagreement between the valve and the switch.

353
Q

WHAT IS THE MAX AP (DIFF. PRESS) ALLOWED TO SELECT THE OVBD VALVE TO FULL OPEN
POSITION

354
Q

THE ELECTRICAL SUPPLY OF THE MAIN “AFCS” COMPONENTS IS

A

-DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2 mainly
-ESS BUS for AP off lts and AP disconnect circuit

355
Q

DURING A GO-AROUND PROCEDURE, YOU SET THE POWER LEVER IN WHICH POSITION

A

Beyond the notch to a ramp

356
Q

WHICH FLIGHT DIRECTOR VERTICAL (PITCH) MODES HAVE AN “ARMED” PHASE?

A

ALT SEL and GS TRACK

357
Q

WHICH FLIGHT DIRECTOR LATERAL (ROLL) MODES HAVE AN “ARMED” PHASE

A

NAV,APP,BC

358
Q

WHAT HAPPENS WHEN THE PITCH WHEEL IS ACTUATED WITH THE “AP” ENGAGED IN “ALT HOLD” MODE

A

NOTHING, IT IS INHIBITED IN ALT HOLD

359
Q

IF THE “AP” IS “ON”, WITH THE “FD” ENGAGED IN THE “HDG” AND “ALT” MODE, WHAT
HAPPENS IF THE “STBY” P/B IS PRESSED

A

the horizontal and vertical bars disappear from EADI and the AP returns in BASIC mode on both axes

360
Q

MAX ELEV TRIM TAB TRAVEL

A

5° UP / 1.5° DN

361
Q

ELEV TRIM GREEN SECTOR

A

0°/2.5° UP

362
Q

PITCH TRIM ASYM amber lt

A

PITCH TABS on both ELEV are desynchronized

363
Q

TLU HI SPD/LO SPD

A

HI SPD when > 185 kts
LO SPD when < 180 kts during decel

Manually set in the event of ADC FAIL

364
Q

FUEL SYST PUMPS

A

1 ELEC PUMP + 1 JET PUMP in each MAIN TANK (FEEDER COMPT)

The ELEC PUMP is normally used only for ENG START; automatically switched off after ENG START

365
Q

WATER DRAINAGE up to

A

3° ground slope

366
Q

the FUEL TEMP SENSOR is in the

A

LH FEEDER COMPT

367
Q

when a fuel tank has < 160 KG or the FEEDER COMPT is not full

A

AUTO ELEC PUMP ON (associated engine)

368
Q

the ELEC PUMP is AUTO SHUT OFF

A

-30” after HP FUEL PR is AVAIL and
-PRESS SW detects 8.5 psi and
-NORMAL JET PUMP FUNCTION

369
Q

FEED LO PR amber lt ON when

A

fuel delivery pressure < 4 psi (PUMP FAIL or FUEL STARVATION)

370
Q

how long does complete refuel take and MAX REFUEL PR

A

16’ / 50 PSI MAX

371
Q

DEFUEL

A

11 psi suction with refuel valves open

372
Q

HYD SYST
TOT FLUID VOLUME
NORM FILLING LVL
MIN FILLING LVL
LOW LVL ALERT when

A

-9.6 L for each syst
-9.35 L
-8.5 L
- <2.5 L (XFEED VALVE AUTO CLOSES)

373
Q

HYD PUMPS SUPPLIED BY

A

ACW (ELEC AUX PUMP by DC motor instead)

374
Q

HYD SYST ACCU (1 for each syst)

A

-0.2 L
-REDUCES PUMP VIBRATIONS
-REDUCES PRESSURE SURGES
-COMPENSATE RESPONSE TIME OF THE PUMP IN CASE OF HIGH OUTPUT DEMAND

375
Q

HYD OVHT

376
Q

HYD AUX PUMP (DC) will activate if

A

-AC BLUE PUMP PR < 1500 PSI
-PROP BRK RELEASED
-L/G HANDLE SEL DN
-AT LEAST ONE ENG RUN

377
Q

HYD PR IND ELEC FAIL

A

POINTERS MOVE TO 0

378
Q

BRK ACCU AVAIL for EMER+PRK BRK if PR

A

> 1600 psi

379
Q

PEDESTAL PUMP SW

A

-DC PUMP ON for 30” (HOT MAIN BAT BUS)

380
Q

BRK TEMP HOT

A

> 150 °C OF AT LEAST ONE BRK

381
Q

TCAS PROX TFC

A

+- 1200 ft and 6 NM

382
Q

TA CPA

A

Closest Point of Appr: 20/45s

383
Q

RA CPA

384
Q

AHRS VERT AND HOR ACCURACY

A

VERT +- 1.4°
HOR +- 2°

385
Q

EADI RED ARROWS

A

> 40° NUP
30° NDN

386
Q

equipment fitted on the RGB

A

-ACW GEN
-PVM
-PROP PUMP (HP) + OVSPD GOV
-AUX FTR PUMP
PROP BRK (RH)

387
Q

the ACCESSORY GEARBOX drives

A

-DC STARTER/GEN
-HP FUEL PUMP
-ENG OIL PUMPS

388
Q

IGNITION CYCLES

A

-FIRST 25”: 5/6 SPARKS PER SECOND
-AFTER 25”: 1 SPARK PER SECOND

389
Q

NOTCH
RAMP
WALL

A

67° PLA
81°
100°

390
Q

ATPCS trigger condition

A

one TQ < 18%