Systemic Path - Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of glands make up the endocrine system?

A

Ductless glands

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2
Q

Where are hormones from the endocrine system secreted?

A

Bloodstream

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3
Q

This organ has both exocrine and endocrine function.

A

Pancreas

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4
Q

What are mixed function organs?

A

Has both exocrine and endocrine function.

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5
Q

What are diffuse endocrine systems?

A

Comprised of scattered cells within organs acting locally on adjacent cells without entry into blood stream.

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6
Q

Which type hormones are biologically active?

A

Free hormones

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7
Q

Purpose of hormones bound to plasma proteins

A

Serve as a reserve for acute changes (e.g. thyroid and steroid)

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8
Q

General characteristics of hormones.

A
  • Have a specific rate and pattern of secretion.
  • Feedback systems: to maintain an optimal internal environment
  • Affect only cells with appropriate receptors
  • Excreted by one organ and deactivated by another (e.g. excreted by the kidney, deactivated by the liver or other mechanisms)
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9
Q

Functions of endocrine system.

A
  • Response to stress and injury
  • Growth and development
  • Reproduction
  • Homeostasis
  • Energy metabolism
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10
Q

How does the feedback loop mechanism work?

A
  • When biological sensor detects that a hormone level is low, it will cause processes that increase the hormone level.
  • When the hormone level is too high, the sensors will cause a decreased in hormonal production.

Analogous to a thermostat and furnace.

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11
Q

Classification of diseases.

A
  1. Hyperfunction - overproduction of secretion
  2. Hypofunction - underproduction
  3. Mass effects (tumors)
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12
Q

The parathyroid is a derivative of…

A

Third and forth branchial pouches

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13
Q

How many parathyroid glands does the typical person have?

A

Most have four glands, but may vary 1-12.

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14
Q

Ectopic locations of the parathyroid

A
  • intrathyroid
  • intrathymic
  • anterior mediastinum
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15
Q

Location of the parathyroid.

A

Normally on the posterior thyroid surface.

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16
Q

What cells make up the parathyroid?

A
  • Chief cells
  • Oxyphil cells
  • Stromal fat
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17
Q

What do chief cells secrete?

A

parathyroid hormone (PTH)

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18
Q

What controls the activity of the parathyroid gland?

A

Free (ionized) calcium, not trophic hormones

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19
Q

Where does PTH act?

A

Bones, kidneys, and intestines

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20
Q

Describe PTH and regulation of systemic calcium homeostasis

A
  • PTH increases bone resorption in bone –> increases plasma Ca++
  • PTH decreases PO4 reabsorption, but increases Ca++ reabsorption in the kidney –> increases plasma Ca++
  • After hydroxylation in the liver and kidney, active form of vitamin D3 (1,25-dihydroxy-vitamin D3) increases calcium reabsorption in the intestine –> increases plasma Ca++

As plasma calcium increases, this is sensed by the parathyroid glands as negative feedback –> less PTH will be produced, and this is how calcium homeostasis is maintained

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21
Q

What is normal PTH level?

A

10 to 65 nanomoles/L

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22
Q

What are the causes of hypercalcemia?

A

1) Due to raised PTH –> hyperparathyroidism (increased production of PTH)

2) Due to decreased PTH:
• Hypercalcemia of malignancy
• Vitamin D toxicity
• Immobilization
• Thiazide diuretics
• Granulomatous disease (sarcoidosis)
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23
Q

What is hyperparathyroidism?

A
  • Increased production of parathyroid hormone

* Serum calcium may be decreased, increased or normal, depending upon renal function

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24
Q

What is primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Excess of parathyroid hormone from adenoma (85 to 95%), hyperplasia (5 to 10%) or carcinoma (1%)

Note: >95% of cases, primary hyperparathyroidism is caused by a sporadic adenoma or sporadic hyperplasia

Scribe note: PTH normal or increased, calcium increased

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25
Q

What is secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Adaptive increase in parathyroid hormone secondary to hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia of chronic renal failure

Scribe note: PTH increased, calcium normal or decreased

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26
Q

What is tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A

autonomous parathyroid hyperfunction in patients with secondary hyperparathyroidism

Scribe note: Both PTH and calcium are increased since it is autonomous

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27
Q

Signs and symptoms of hyperparathyroidism

A
  • Asymptomatic

* “Bones, stones, abdominal groans, psychic moans”

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28
Q

Effects/symptoms of the main cause of hyperparathyroidism, parathyroid adenoma:

A

BONE. Excess PTH acts on bone, causing calcium to leech out and cause osteoporosis (prone to fractures) and osteitis fibrosa cystica (radiolucent areas, called brown tumor, due to hemorrhage).

RENAL. Patient may develop kidney stones, frequent urination, and nephrocalcinosis (increased calcium reabsorption in renal tubules causes calcifications).

GI TRACT. Patient may develop peptic ulcer, gallstones, and acute pancreatitis

BRAIN. Hyperparathyroidism can cause depression or seizures

BLOOD. Hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia

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29
Q

Brown tumor

A

Osteitis fibrosa cystica

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30
Q

What’s parathyroid adenoma?

A
  • Benign neoplasm
  • Involve a single gland, rarely two or more (<1%)
  • Major cause of primary hyperparathyroidism
  • Any age, F:M 3:1
  • Excellent prognosis after excision
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31
Q

Major cause of hyperparathyroidism

A

Parathyroid adenoma

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32
Q

Appearance of parathyroid adenoma

A
  • Sharply demarcated from the adjacent rim of normal parathyroid
  • Predominantly chief cells in sheets or tubules
  • Adipose tissue inconspicuous
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33
Q

What’s parathyroid hyperplasia?

A
  • Classically all four parathyroid involved (frequently asymmetrical)
  • Sporadic or as a component of MEN syndrome
  • 75% of patients – sporadic
  • 15% of patients – part of MEN 2A (not MEN 2B)
  • 15% of hyperparathyroidism cases

Note: diagnosis of adenoma versus hyperplasia may depend on the size of the other glands

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34
Q

Appearance of parathyroid hyperplasia

A
  • Enlarged parathyroids
  • Stromal fat inconspicuous
  • Usually chief cell hyperplasia, diffuse or nodular
  • Variable oncocytes
  • Cystic change in markedly enlarged glands
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35
Q

What’s parathyroid carcinoma?

A
  • Palpable neck mass (75%)
  • Excessive PTH secretion, high serum calcium > 14 mg/dl
  • Non-functioning tumors are rare
  • Diagnosis based on local invasion and metastases (clinical criteria, NOT microscopic criteria)
  • 1/3 recur locally, 1/3 have distant metastases
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36
Q

Appearance of parathyroid carcinoma

A
  • Capsular invasion
  • Densely adherent to surrounding soft tissue
  • Thick fibrous bands
  • Predominantly chief cells arranged in solid or trabecular pattern
  • Macronucleoli, more than five mitoses per 50 high-power fields, and necrosis associated with aggressive behavior
  • Cytological detail, unreliable for the diagnosis of carcinoma
  • Vascular invasion and metastasis (ABSOLUTE CRITERIA)
  • Local recurrence (1/3 of cases), distant metastasis (in another 1/3)
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37
Q

What is hypoparathyroidism?

A
  • Disorder in which insufficient parathyroid hormone (PTH) is secreted from the parathyroid glands, resulting in abnormally low levels of calcium in the blood
  • Far less common
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38
Q

Causes of hypoparathyroidism

A
  • Damage to the gland or its vessels during thyroid surgery

* Idiopathic, autoimmune disease, congenital

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39
Q

Clinical features of hypoparathyroidism

A
  • Tetany
  • Convulsion
  • Neuromuscular irritability
  • Cardiac arrhythmias
  • Increased intracranial pressure
  • Seizures
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40
Q

MEN stands for?

A

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia

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41
Q

What’s MEN I?

A
  • AKA Wermer syndrome

* Neoplasia of: pituitary, parathyroids, pancreas and carcinoids, parathyroid hyperplasia

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42
Q

What’s MEN IIA?

A
  • AKA Sipple’s Syndrome

* Medullary throid carcinoma (c-cell), parathyroid hyperplasia, pheochromocytomas (tumor of adrenal medullary)

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43
Q

What’s MEN IIB?

A
  • Neuromas of the eye, buccal mucosa, and GI mucosa

* There may be medullary thyroid carcinoma and pheochromocytomas

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44
Q

What’s the largest endocrine organ?

A

Thyroid

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45
Q

What are the thyroid hormones?

A

• Thyroid hormones (TH):

 - Thyroxine (T4)
 - Triiodothyronine (T3)
 - Calcitonin
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46
Q

Layers of skin

A

• Epidermis - top most layer, contains melanocytes (makes pigment) and Langerhans cells (immune cells)
• Dermis - located beneath the epidermis, contains dendritic cells (immune cells) and appendages
- appendages include: hair follicles, sweat glands, Pacinian corpuscles (pressure receptors).
- Red tissue you see when you skin your knee and the epidermis has been removed
• Subcutaneous fat

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47
Q

Where are melanocytes derived from?

A
  • Neural crest derived cells
  • Present in epidermal basal layer
  • Synthesize melanin
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48
Q

Synthesis of melanin

A
  • Synthesized in melanosomes
  • Catalyzed by tyrosine
  • Tyrosine -> DOPA –> melanin
  • Dendritic processes extend between keratinocytes
  • Melanin is transferred from melanocytes to neighboring keratinocytes in melanosomes
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49
Q

Innate immune response: what is it, physical barriers, soluble factors, cells involved?

A
  • Immediate defense; short lived; no memory
    • Physical barriers include skin and mucosal epithelia
    • Soluble factors include complement, antimicrobial peptides, chemokines, and cytokines
    • Cells include monocytes/macrophages, dendritic cells, natural killer cells, and neutrophils
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50
Q

Adaptive immune response

A
  • Has memory; has specificity; long lasting
  • Initiated by dendritic antigen-presenting cells
    • Langerhan cells in the epidermis
    • Dermal dendritic cells in the dermis
  • Executed by T cells and antibodies produced by B cells and plasma cells
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51
Q

Which dendritic antigen presenting cell is present in the epidermis?

A

Langerhans cells

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52
Q

Which dendritic antigen presenting cell is present in the dermis?

A

Dendritic cells

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53
Q

What are keratinocytes?

A
  • Present in melanosomes

* Secrete cytokines, chemokines, arachidonic acid metabolites, complement components, and antimicrobial peptides

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54
Q

What are Langerhans cells?

A
  • Antigen presenting cells in the epidermis
  • Phagocytose antigens
  • Migrate via lymphatics to regional lymph nodes
  • Expresses protein on its surface to T lymphocytes then undergo clonal proliferation
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55
Q

What do Langerhans cells do, and how do they travel?

A
  • Phagocytose antigens
  • Migrate via lymphatics to regional lymph nodes
  • Express antigen protein on their surface and present to T lymphocytes, then undergo clonal proliferation
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56
Q

Plays a similar role to Langerhans cells in the dermis…

A

Dermal dendritiic cells

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57
Q

What are natural killer (NK) cells?

A
  • Survey the body looking for transformed or infected cells

* Kill cells directly or indirectly via the secretion of cytokines

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58
Q

What are macrophages?

A
  • Cutaneous immune surveillance in the dermis

* Phagocytic function (also neutrophils): take up pathogens, recognize them, and destroy them

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59
Q

What is a macule?

A
  • Circumscribed FLAT lesion

* 5mm or smaller in diameter

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60
Q

What is a patch?

A
  • Flat circumscibed lesion

* > 5mm

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61
Q

What is a papule?

A
  • ELEVATED dome-shaped or flat-topped lesion

* 5mm or less across

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62
Q

What is a nodule?

A

Greater than 5mm

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63
Q

What is a pustule?

A

Discrete, pus-filled, raised lesion

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64
Q

What is a plaque?

A
  • Elevated flat-topped lesion

* Greater than 5mm across

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65
Q

What is a petechiae?

A
  • Small (1-2mm) red or purple macules due to minor hemorrahage
  • Do not blanch with pressure
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66
Q

What is a purpura?

A
  • Large hemorrhagic lesion
  • 0.3 - 1cm red or purple macules and patches
  • Do not blanch with pressure
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67
Q

These two skin lesions do not blanch with pressure…

A

Purpura and petechiae

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68
Q

What is a vesicle?

A
  • Fluid-filled raised lesion

* 5mm or less across

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69
Q

What is a bulla?

A
  • Fluid-filled raised lesion

* Greater than 5mm

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70
Q

What is a wheal?

A
  • Itchy, transient, elevated lesion, +/- erythema

* Dermal edema

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71
Q

What is a scale?

A
  • Dry, horny, plate like excrescence

* Imperfect cornification

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72
Q

What is lichenification?

A

• Caused by repeated rubbing/scratching
• Thickened and rough skin, prominent skin markings
** Looks like lichen

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73
Q

What is ulceration?

A

Complete loss of the epidermis, revealing dermis or subcutis.

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74
Q

What is eschar?

A

When tissue dies, turns black, and sloughs.

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75
Q

What is onycholysis?

A

Nail separates from nail bed.

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76
Q

Microscopic terms used to describe skin findings

A
  • Hyperkeratosis: thickening of the stratum corneum
    • Basket weave hyperkeratosis: most normal healthy skin on our body is keratinized in this fashion
    • Compact hyperkeratosis: the soles of feet and palms of hands are thicker
  • Parakeratosis: keratinization with retained nuclei in the stratum corneum
  • Hypergranulosis: hyperplasia of the stratum granulosum
  • Spongiosis: intercellular edema of the epidermis
  • Hydropic swelling (ballooning): intracellular edema of keratinocytes
  • Acanthosis: diffuse epidermal hyperplasia wih thickening of the malphigian layer
  • Acantholysis: loss of intercellular cohesion between keratinocytes
  • Dysplasia: premalignant proliferation; disorderly, pleomorphic, lacks maturation
  • Dyskeratosis: premature keratinization of cells below the stratum granulosum
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77
Q

What is hyperkeratosis?

A

Thickening of the stratum corneum.
• Basket weave hyperkeratosis: most normal healthy skin on our body is keratinized in this fashion
• Compact hyperkeratosis: the soles of feet and palms of hands are thicker

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78
Q

What is parakeratosis?

A

Keratinization with retained nuclei in the stratum corneum.

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79
Q

What is hypergranulosis?

A

Hyperplasia of the stratum granulosum.

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80
Q

What is spongiosis?

A

Intercellular edema of the epidermis.

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81
Q

What is hydropic swelling (ballooning)?

A

Intracellular edema of keratinocytes.

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82
Q

What is acanthosis?

A

Diffuse epidermal hyperplasia with thickening of the malphigian layer.

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83
Q

What is acantholysis?

A

Loss on intercellular cohesion between keratinocytes

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84
Q

What is dysplasia?

A
  • Premalignant proliferation

* Disorderly, pleomorphic, lacks maturation

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85
Q

What is dyskeratosis?

A

• Premature keratinization of cells below the stratum granulosum.

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86
Q

Histologic pattern of inflammatory skin disease –> perivascular dermatitis

A

Can be superficial and deep

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87
Q

Histologic pattern of inflammatory skin disease –> vasculitis

A
  • Injury to blood vessels, causing blood cells to leak out

* Grossly we see petechiae and purpura

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88
Q

Histologic pattern of inflammatory skin disease –> vesicular dermatitis

A

Blistering diseases like pemphigoid

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89
Q

Histologic pattern of inflammatory skin disease –> diffuse dermatitis

A

Example: sarcoidosis

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90
Q

Histologic pattern of inflammatory skin disease –> panniculitis

A

Subcutaneous fat is inflamed.

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91
Q

Group of disorders of differing etiologies that share similar morphologic and histological features spongiotic dermatitis.

Skin rash

A

Eczematous dermatitis

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92
Q

Acute appearance of eczematous dermatitis

A
  • Erythema
  • Aggregates of tiny pruritic vesicles (1mm)
    • Itchy, excude clear fluid, and become encrusted
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93
Q

Chronic appearance of eczematous dermatitis

A
  • Scaly and thickened (lichenification) from continued scratching
  • Acanthosis: spongiosum layer gets thickened due to causes like rubbing or psoriasis
  • Hyperkeratosis: thickening of the stratum corneum
  • Dermal scarring
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94
Q

A generic term applied to acute or chronic inflammatory reactions to substances that come in contact with the skin.

A

Contact dermatitis

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95
Q

Two variants of contact dermatitis

A
  • Allergic contact

* Irritant contact

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96
Q

What is allergic contact dermatitis?

A
  • Idiosyncratic immunological reaction to an environmental allergen
  • Cell-mediated, delayed (type IV) hypersensitivity reaction mediated by Langerhans cells and t-cells.
  • Ex: poison ivy; nickel; chromates; synthetic rubber; primula; topical creams
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97
Q

What is irritant contact dermatitis?

A
  • Follows exposure to physical or chemical substances capable of direct damage to the skin.
  • Mechanisms include keratin denaturation, removal of surface lipids and water, damage to cell membranes, and direct cytotoxic effects
  • Ex: Soaps, detergents, acids and alkalis, industrial solvents
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98
Q

What is atopic dermatitis?

A
  • Chronic, relapsing eczematous rash.
  • Any age, but often begins in infancy
  • In infants it often affects: head, face, neck, diaper area, and extensor aspects
  • In childhood it involves flexural aspects (e.g. back and knees).
  • Pruritus is intense - scratching leads to lichenification
  • Risk of secondary bacterial, dermatophyte and viral infections
  • Disease improves during childhood, with >50% clearing by teen years.
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99
Q

Etiology of atopic dermatitis

A
Multifactorial:
• Genetic susceptibility
• Abnormal skin barrier function
• Abnormal immune system activity
• Environmental factors

Personal or family history of asthma or allergies:
• 75% have a family history of atopy (genetic disposition to develop an allergic reaction)
• 50% have associated asthma or hay fever

Associated with dry skin (xerosis): worsens in the winter months

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100
Q

A very common chronic dermatosis characterized by redness and scaling where the sebaceous glands are most active: face, scalp, presternal area, body folds

A

Seborrheic dermatitis

  • Presents in infants; second peak in adults
  • Male predominance; often a family history
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101
Q

Skin findings of seborrheic dermatitis

A

Erythematous or yellowish patches, covered by a greasy scale

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102
Q

Pathogenesis of seborrheic dermatitis

A

Pathogenesis is unknown.

• Linked with the yeast Malessezia, immunologic abnormalities, sebaceous activity, stress, neurological disorders, and AIDS

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103
Q

Course of seborrheic dermatitis

A
  • Self-limited with a good prognosis in infants

* Chronic and relapsing in adults

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104
Q

Delayed hypersensitivity type 4 reaction to photo product of topical or systemic medications and chemicals

A

Photoallergic reactions

• An allergic reaction to something on skin or in blood, as a result of photochemical reaction

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105
Q

Skin lesions observed in photoallergic reactions

A
  • Eczematous papular, vesicular, scaling, and crusted

* Can persist for months or years

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106
Q

What are phototoxic reactions?

A

UV radiation associated with use of medications causes formation of toxic photoproducts such as free radicals
• Damages DNA or cell membranes

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107
Q

Skin findings of phototoxic reactions

A
  • Occurs on sun-exposed skin
  • Occurs minutes to hours after sun exposure
  • Mimics severe sunburn: erythema, edema, and blistering desquamation and post inflammatory hyperpigmentation
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108
Q

An acute self-limited, usually mild, often relapsing mucocutaneous syndrome characterized by presence of target-shaped plaques with or without central blisters, predominantly on face and extremeties.

A

Erythema multiforme

• Any age, peaks in 20-40s; children

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109
Q

What is erythema multiforme minor?

A

No mucosal involvement

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110
Q

What is erythema multiforme major?

A

Mucosal involvement

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111
Q

Pathogenesis of erythema multiforme

A

Epithelial cells are killed by skin-homing CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes
• Immunologic response, most often, to a recurrent herpes simplex virus
• Can also be stimulated by M. peumoniae, drugs, neoplasia
• Begins a week after a recurrence of herpes

In other words: caused by CD8+ T-cells that kill epithelial cells. This is stimulated by herpes simplex cirus, which makes us attach our own skin.

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112
Q

TARGET LESIONS, macules, papules, vesicles, bullae are associated with which inflammatory skin disease?

A

Erythema multiforme

Additional skin findings:
• symmetric, extremities, arms, legs, hands, feet, anywhere
• Half have oral or vermillion border lesions

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113
Q

Microscopic appearance of erythema multiforme

A
  • interface dermatitis because vacuolar change and cleft formation occur at the dermal-epidermal junction
  • Necrotic basal keratinocytes
  • Lymphocytic infiltrates of interface and superficial perivascular zones.
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114
Q

What is Stevens-Johnson Syndrome, aka Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis?

A
  • Acute, life-threatening skin and mucous membrane reaction characterized by extensive necrosis and detachment of the epidermis.
  • Previously considered severe variants of erythema multiforme, but now considered a separate entity.
  • An epidermal emergency
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115
Q

Stevens-Johnson-Syndrome and Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis are the same process, but vary in the % of involved surface area…

A
  • SJS if involved area < 10% of body surface
  • SJS/TEN overlap if 10-30%
  • Toxic epidermal necrolysis if > 30%
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116
Q

Risk factors for SJS and TEN

A
  • Rare
  • Any age, but risk increases with age
  • 2F:1M predilection
  • Increased risk: HIV, collagen vascular disease and cancer
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117
Q

Mortality SJS vs TEN

A

SJS: 5-12%
TEN: > 30%

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118
Q

Skin findings on SJS/TEN

A
  • Confluent, erythematous, purpuric and target-like macules evolve into flaccid blisters and epidermal detachment
  • Mostly trunk, extremities, and mucous membranes
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119
Q

Pathogenesis of SJS/TEN

A

Cell-mediated cytotoxic reaction against keratinocytes leads to massive apoptosis.

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120
Q

Common (1%), pruritic (itchy), symmetrical, papulosquamous dermatosis

A

Lichen planus

Add’l info:
• Often presents in fourth to sixth decades; uncommon in childhood
• Slight female predominance
• Familial cases reported. Associated with specific HLA types
• Usually self-limiting-lesions clear from weeks to 1 or 2 years. Sometimes protracted.

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121
Q

Skin findings for lichen planus

A
  • Four P’s: polygonal, pruritic, purple papule; few millimeters to 1 cm
  • Wickham’s striae - white streaks
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122
Q

Inflammatory skin disease where Wickham’s striae (white streaks) are observed

A

Lichen Planus

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123
Q

Sites affected by Lichen Planus

A
  • Flexor aspect of the wrists, the forearms, the extensor aspect of the hands and ankles, lumbar area, nails, glans penis and generalized
  • Oral involvement common: may involve pharynx, larynx, esophagus, nose, anus, and genitalia; ocular rare
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124
Q

Microscopic appearance of Lichen Planus

A
  • Interface dermatitis
  • Dense, band like lymphocytic infiltrate along the D-E junction
  • Vacuolar degeneration of the basal layer
  • Hypergranulosis, hyperkeratosis and sawtoothing of epidermis
  • Necrotic keratinocytes - “Civatte bodies”
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125
Q

Civatte bodies, which are necrotic keratinocytes, are observed in which inflammatory skin disease?

A

Lichen Planus

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126
Q

Pathogenesis of Lichen Planus

A
  • Possibly expression of altered external antigen stimulus elicits a cell-mediated cytotoxic T-cell immune response at the level of the dermoepidermal junction
  • Assoociated with viral infections, metals, and drugs.
  • Body mistakes own antigens for external antigens
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127
Q

Course of Lichen planus

A
  • Unpredictable disease
  • Typically persists for 1-2 years, but may follow a chronic, relapsing course over many years
  • Rx: Topical and systemic glucocorticoids, cyclosporine
  • NAILS may be affected: longitudinal ridging, thinning, and distal splitting of the nail plate
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128
Q

Common chronic inflammatory dermatosis characterized by erythmatous scaly plaques of the elbows, knees, scalp, lumbosacral areas and other sites

A

Psoriasis

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129
Q

Which inflammatory skin disease is this:

  • Associated with arthritis, myopathy, enteropathy, joint disease, AIDS.
  • Polygenic trait
A

Psoriasis

Additional info:
• Any age, bimodal
• Often presents in the teens and in early adult life (type I).
• Second peak in sixth decade (type II).

More on polygenic trait: one parent has psoriasis 8% of kids get psoriasis. Both parents have psoriasis, 41% of kids get psoriasis.

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130
Q

Acute form of psoriasis

A

Eruptive, guttate psoriasis; multiple small lesions; greater tendency toward spontaneous resolution; 2%

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131
Q

Chronic stable plaque psoriasis

A
  • Majority of patients

* Chronic indolent lesions present for months and years

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132
Q

Pathogenesis of psoriasis

A
  • Multifactorial, both genetic and environmental factors
  • Interactions between CD4+ T-cells, CD8+ T-cells, dendritic cells, and keratinocytes causing bassal keratinocytes to hyperproliferate
  • Strong association with HLA-Cw6; only 10% develop psoriasis
  • Systemic glucocorticoids, oral lithium, antimalarial drugs, interferon, adrenergic blockers and alcohol can cause flares
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133
Q

Which inflammatory skin disease has a strong association with HLA-Cw6?

A

Psoriasis

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134
Q

Skin findings for psoriasis

A
  • Begin as papules, coalesce to form raised, sharply demarcated plaques, silvery scale surface, erythematous base
    • Elbows, knees, scalp, lumbosacral areas, intergluteal cleft, and glans penis
    • Nail pitting and onycholysis
  • Auspitz’s sign: small droplets of blood when removing scales
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135
Q

What is Auspitz’s sign, and in which inflammatory skin disease is it observed?

A
  • Auspitz’s sign is small droplets of blood when removing scales
  • Psoriasis
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136
Q

Destruction of the interphalangeal joints resulting in telescoping fingers.

A

Psoriatic arthritis

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137
Q

Microscopic appearance of psoriasis

A
  • Acanthosis
  • Elongation of the rete ridges, suprapapillary thinning, parakeratotic scale, spongiosis and superficial perivascular inflammation
  • Munro’s microabscesses - neutrophils aggregates within the parakeratotic stratum corneum
  • Spongiform pustules - neutrophils form small aggregates within epidermis
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138
Q

In which inflammatory skin disease are Munro’s microabscesses and spongiform pustules are observed?

A

Psoriasis

  • Munro’s microabscesses: neutrophils aggregates within the parakeratotic stratum corneum
  • Spongiform pustules: neutrophils form small aggregates within epidermis
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139
Q

Inflammatory skin diseases include _______ disorders and _______

A

Blistering disorders; adverse cutaneous drug reactions

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140
Q

Infectious skin diseases can be _____, _____, or _____

A

Viral, fungal, or infestations

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141
Q

Pemphigus Vulgaris, Bullous Phemphigoid, Dermatitis Herpetiformis

A

Blistering Disorders

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142
Q

Exanthematous drug eruption, Acute exanthematous pustulosis, Acneiform eruptions, Urticarial eruptions, Fixed drug eruption

A

Adverse cutaneous drug reactions

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143
Q

Verruca vulgaris, Mulluscum contagiosum, Herpes simplex, Varicella zoster (chickenpox and shingles)

A

Viral diseases

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144
Q

Dermatophyte infections, pityriasis versicolor, candida infection

A

Fungal disease

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145
Q

Pediculosis

A

Infestations

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146
Q

What is pemphigus?

A
  • A serious autoimmune mucocutaeous blistering disorder caused by IgG autoantibodies against desmogleins (proteins involved in cell to cell attachment) causing acantholysis and intraepidermal bullae.
  • Disease associated with specific HLA haplotypes.
  • Majority fourth to sixth decades; M = F
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147
Q

Net-like pericellular IgG deposit for immunofluorescence indicates this…

A

Pemphigus

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148
Q

Skin findings for pemphigus vulgaris..

A
  • Superficial vesicles and FLACCID bullae which rupture leaving shallow crusted erosions.
  • Commonly involves scalp, face, axilla, groin, trunk, and pressure points.
  • Oral ulcers may persist for months before onset of skin involvement.
  • Extracutaneous sites include the nasopharynx, larynx, esophagus, ear, eye, urethra, anal, and colonic mucosa.
  • Nikolsky sign positive, dislodge epidermis by lateral pressure near lesions.
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149
Q

Which blistering disorder involves positive Nikolsky sign and dislodge epidermis by lateral pressure near lesions?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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150
Q

Treatment for Pemphigus vulgaris

A

• Systemic corticosteroids, immunosuppressive agents. Manage fluids and infections

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151
Q

Course of Pemphigus vulgaris

A
  • Systemic glucocorticoids and use of immunosuppressive therapy have dramatically improved the prognosis; still significant mortality because patients have trouble maintaining fluid dynamics (ooze causes loss of water) and high risk of infection.
  • Before glucocorticoid therapy, almost invariably fatal.
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152
Q

Microscopic appearance of pemphigus vularis

A
  • Acantholysis: the lysis, of the desmosomes connecting squamous cells leads to a suprabasal vesicle.
  • Superficial dermal infiltration by lymphocytes, histiocytes, and eosinophils.
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153
Q

What is bullous pemphigoid?

A
  • A bullous autoimmune disease usually in elderly patients.

* Most cases sporadic. Few associated with UV light and medications.

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154
Q

Pathogenesis of bullous pemphigoid

A
  • Auto-antibodies react with basal cell – basement membrane hemidesmosomes involved in dermoepidermal bonding.
  • Two forms of antigen recognized: BPAG1 and BPAG2 (collagen type XVIII).
  • Causes complement activation, recruitment of neutrophils & eosinophils and injury.
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155
Q

What antigens are recognized in Bullous Pemphigoid?

A

BPAG1 and BPAG2 (collagen type XVIII).

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156
Q

Skin findings of Bullous Pemphigoid

A
  • TENSE bullae, filled with clear fluid, on normal or erythematous skin usually up to 2 cm or greater in diameter
  • Nikolsky sign negative
  • Affects any area; lower abdomen, thighs, forearms, axillae, and groin most common
  • Oral lesions in 10% to 15%; usually appear after skin lesions
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157
Q

Treatment for bullae pemphigoid

A

Systemic prednisone alone or combined with azathioprine

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158
Q

Course of bullae pemphigoid

A
  • Patients often go into a permanent remission after therapy.
  • Some go into spontaneous remission without therapy.
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159
Q

Microscopic appearance of bullous pemphigoid

A
  • SUBEPIDERMAL BLISTERS containing eosinophils, lymphocytes, and occasional neutrophils.
  • Dermal edema, perivascular lymphocytes and eosinophils.
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160
Q

When doing immunoflorescence a linear deposition of IgG and complement in the basement membrane zone…

A

Bullous pemphigoid

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161
Q

What is dermatitis herpetiformis?

A
  • A rare, chronic, intensely burning, pruritic papulovesicular eruption associated with GLUTIN SENSITIVE ENTEROPATHY AND IgA DEPOSITS in upper dermis.
  • all ages, but 20-40 years most common
  • Male to female ratio is 2:1
  • Caucasians mainly affected; rare in Asians and blacks
  • Familial involvement; up to 10% of cases
  • Relatives of patients with DH have increased risk for celiac disease.
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162
Q

Relatives of patients with dermatitis herpetiformis have increased risk for this…

A

celiac disease

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163
Q

Skin findings for dermatitis herpetiformis

A
  • Pruritic papulovesicular and urticarial rash
  • Often symmetrical, posterior scalp, shoulders, back, buttocks, and extensor aspects of the limbs; excoriation and/or lichenification
  • Occasionally, larger blisters. Oral involvement is rare.
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164
Q

Pathogenesis of dermatitis herpetiformis

A
  • Genetically predisposed patients develop IgA antibodies to gluten in diet
  • Antibodies cross-react with reticulin, a component of the fibrils that anchor the epidermal basement membrane to the dermis.
  • Asymptomatic patients can develop GI lesions with large gluten intake. Some people with DH and GSE respond to a gluten free diet.
  • Increased incidence of thyroid disease, insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, and connective tissue diseases.
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165
Q

Immunofluorescence reveals discontinuous, granular deposits of IgA localized to the tips of ermal papillae in normal appearing skin.

A

Dermatitis Herpetiformis

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166
Q

Treatment for dermatitis herpetiformis

A

Sulfones; gluten free diet

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167
Q

Microscopic findings for dermatitis herpetiformis

A
  • Papillary dermal neutrophilic microabscesses within the tips of the dermal papillae.
  • Coalesce to multilocular subepidermal vesicles.
  • Dermal mixed inflammatory infiltrate of lymphocytes, histiocytes, and abundant neutrophils.
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168
Q

What are adverse cutaneous drug reactions?

A
  • Mimic virtually all skin rashes.
  • First consideration in the DDx (differential diagnosis?) of a suddenly appearing eruption.
  • Occur in both systemic or topical administration of a drug.
  • Most are mild, pruritic, and resolve after drug discontinued.
  • Severe, life-threatening ACDRs do occur.
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169
Q

What causes adverse cutaneous drug reactions?

A
  • Caused by immunologic and nonimmunologic mechanisms.
  • The majority are immunologic hypersensitivity reactions and may be of types I, II, III, or IV.
  • Nonimmunologic mechanisms include idiosyncratic, irritant toxicity photosensativity reaction, accumulation of drug, atrophy secondary to drug effect.
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170
Q

What is exanthematous drug eruption?

A
  • Exanthem = breaking out in mouth
  • Moribiliform = measles-like
  • Hypersensitivity reaction to an ingested or parenterally administered drug
  • Symmetric; almost always on trunk and extremities
  • Intertriginous areas
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171
Q

What are pustular eruptions?

A
  • Acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis
  • Acute febrile eruption; often leukocytosis
  • Drug or virus can trigger the eruption
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172
Q

Skin findings for pustular eruptions

A
  • Nonfollicular sterile pustules on a diffuse, edematous erythema
  • Usually starting in the folds and/or the face
  • Resolves spontaneously in two weeks
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173
Q

Acneform eruptions (mimics acne) may appear in atypical areas, such as on the arms and legs, in this adverse cutaneous drug reaction…

A

Pustular eruptions

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174
Q

What are urticarial eruptions?

A
  • Pruritic red WHEALS, generally last for < 24 hours; new lesions can develop
  • Pruritus, cutaneous flushing, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, rhinorrhea, laryngeal edema, bronchospasm, hypotension
  • Angiodema - deep dermal and subcutaneous tissues swollen, nonpruritic; lasts for 1-2 hours, up to 2-5 days
  • Can be IgE-mediated or non-IgE-mediated
    • IgE mediated: immediate hypersensitivity reaction: penicillin; ABs
    • Non IgE mediated: direct stimulation of mast cells: NSAIDs, ACE-inhibitors and opioids
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175
Q

What are fixed drug eruptions?

A
  • Solitary, erythematous,dusky macules or plaques; May blister
  • 30 min to 8-16 hours after ingestion
  • ** On rechallenge, lesions recur in same spot; often with new lesions
  • Commonly genitalia and perianal area; anywhere
  • +/- burning fever, malaise, and abdominal symptoms
  • Acute phase lasts days to weeks; residual hyperpigmentation
  • Hundreds of drugs can cause fixed eruption
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176
Q

Which adverse cutaneous drug reaction on rechallenge, lesions recur in the same spot?

A

Fixed drug eruptions

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177
Q

What is verruca vulgaris?

A
  • Common wart

* Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection

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178
Q

Common warts (verruca vulgaris) are caused by HPV types…

A

1, 2, 4, 7, and 26-29

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179
Q

Skin findings for verruca vulgaris

A
  • Firm, flesh colored, keratotic papules 1-10mm
  • Anywhere, any age
  • Most common location: backs of the hands, fingers and knees
  • Persist for months up to years and often regress spontaneously
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180
Q

Microscopic finding for verruca vulgaris

A
  • Acanthosis
  • Hyperkeratosis
  • Papillomatosis
  • Hypergranulosis
  • Inward folding of rete
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181
Q

Treatment for verruca vulgaris

A
  • Topical salicylic acid preparations, liquid nitrogen, and very light electrocautery for initial therapy.
  • Burn or freeze warts off
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182
Q

HPV types that cause plantar warts

A
  • Plantar surface of feet can get warts

* Caused by HPV 1, 2, 4, 63

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183
Q

HPV types that cause planar warts

A

HPV 3, 10, 27, 38, 41, 49, 75, 76

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184
Q

HPV types that cause condyloma accuminatum

A
  • Fleshy moist warts on genitalia, can look like syphilis

* HPV 6, 11, 30, 43, 43, 44, 45, 51, 54, 55, 70

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185
Q

HPV types that cause epidermodysplasia verruciformis

A
  • A genetic disease, patient is highly predisposed to HPV infection
  • HPV 5
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186
Q

What is mulluscum contagiosum?

A

Viral skin infection from DNA pox virus

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187
Q

Transmission of mulluscum contagiosum

A

Direct cutaneous contact; fomites; sexual contact in young adults

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188
Q

Skin findings for mulluscum contagiosum

A
  • Clusters of small 1 to 6 mm white, pink or brown papules with CENTRAL PIT (umbilicated)
  • Can be much larger in HIV patients
  • Face, trunk, and limbs

• COURSE: may persist for months or occasionally years and remit

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189
Q

Microscopic appearance of Mulluscum Contagiosum

A
  • Proliferation of epidermis in PEAR shaped lobules

* Maturing epidermal cells contain mulluscum bodies, eosinophilic inclusions compressing the nucleus

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190
Q

Which viral skin disease is associated with pear-shaped lobules of epidermal proliferation with pink bodies (mulluscum bodies) that rise into the umbilication?

A

Mulluscum contagiosum

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191
Q

Are HSV-1 and HSV-2 DNA or RNA viruses?

A

DNA

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192
Q

HSV-1 usually causes…

A

• Herpes labialis

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193
Q

HSV-2 usually causes…

A

• Herpes genitalis

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194
Q

How is HSV transmitted?

A
  • Transmitted through mucosal surfaces or break in skin by contact or exposure to secretions.
  • First-episode often with fever and malaise
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195
Q

What is herpetic whitlow?

A

• HSV infection, involvement of a finger or hand; often healthcare workers, dental practitioners

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196
Q

How to diagnose this is a herpes virus?

A
  • Tzank smear
  • Unroof a vesicle and scrape the base onto a slide
  • Viral cytopathy present in cells
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197
Q

Skin findings for herpes simplex

A
  • Small grouped vesicles
  • +/- erythematous base
  • Evolve into pustules, rupture and form a crusted ulcer
  • Mucosal lesions ulcerate early
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198
Q

Microscopic findings for herpes simplex

A
  • Ballooning degeneration coalesce to intraepidermal vesicle
  • Multinucleation
  • Intranuclear inclusions
    • Nuclei have a ground-glass look because millions of live virus inside
    • Dense red inclusion is a degeneration byproduct
  • Nuclear molding
  • Margination
  • Almost looks like vasculitis, because so much dermal inflammation
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199
Q

Course of herpes simplex

A
  • Primary episode resolve completely in around 15 days
  • Virus persists, become latent within the ganglia of the corresponding sensory nerve
  • Recurrent HSV lesions are usually less florid than the first infection without general symptoms
  • Secondary outbreaks are precipitated by sunlight, fever, menstruation, pregnancy, HIV infection, emotional stress, or local trauma
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200
Q

Treatment ofr herpes simplex

A

Acyclovir tropical and oral

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201
Q

What is varicella zoster?

A
  • Herpes varicella zoster virus infection
  • Chickenpox
  • Worldwide, all races, gender and age
  • Largely a childhood disease < 10 years of age
  • Incubation period 2-3 weeks
  • ** Remains in anterior horn cells and be reactivated as herpes zoster infection (shingles)
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202
Q

Mode of transmission of varicella zoster?

A
  • Highly contagious
  • Inhaled fomite droplets
  • Direct contact with the fluid from the open sores
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203
Q

Used to diagnosis chickenpox/varicella zoster

A

Tzank smear

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204
Q

Skin findings for chickenpox

A
  • Pruritic red papules & vesicles to crusted ulcer
  • Commonly affected areas include trunk, back, face
  • Spreads distally (lesions usually start centrally - near bellybutton - then grow out peripherally)
  • Can involve palms soles and mouth
  • Remain infectious for 4-5 days until vesicles crusted
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205
Q

What are varicella zoster - shingles?

A

• Reactivation of varicella virus infection manifests as a painful outbreak of papules and vesicle in a dermatome distribution

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206
Q

Shingles, increasing incidence with…

A
  • Age: average 55 y/o
  • Immunosuppression
  • Malignancy, especially from lymphoproliferative disorders and chemotherapy/radiotherapy
  • HIV/AIDS: eightfold increased incidence of HZ
  • Most cases triggering factors are not known
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207
Q

What is prodrome?

A
Shingles may have a prodrome, meaning certain symptoms occur before specific symptoms of shingle occur:
• pain in dermatome distribution
• fever and headache
• lymph nodes enlarged and tender
• 1-3 day prior to rash
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208
Q

Skin findings for varicella zoster-shingles

A
  • Crops of red papules, progress to vesicles in a dermatome pattern
    • Thoracic, lumbar, facial
    • Lesions very painful

Even after rash resolves you can have post-herpetic neuralgia:
• Pain may persist for months or years

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209
Q

Treatment for varicella zoster

A
  • Acyclovir

* Prevention through vaccination

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210
Q

What is impetigo?

A
  • Superficial staph aureus skin infection; strep pyogenes may also be the culprit
  • Can occur at any age, but most common in children
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211
Q

How is impetigo spread?

A
  • Contagious

* Spread by close contact through primary breaks in skin or secondary involvement of rash or preexisting lesion

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212
Q

Clinical presentation of impetigo

A
  • Bullous (less common):
    • caused by an epidermolytic toxin produced at the site of intefection (bacteria produces toxin that causes epidermal cells to lyse)
    • causes intraepidermal cleavage below or within the stratum granulosum
  • Nonbullous
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213
Q

Skin findings for impetigo

A
  • Pustules and oozing patches
  • Golden yellow honey crusts or blisters (bullous impetigo)
  • Most often exposed areas such as the hands and face, or in skin folds (axilla)
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214
Q

Golden yellow honey crusts or blisters observed in …

A

Impetigo

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215
Q

Microscopic appearance of impetigo…

A

Neutrophil filled subcorneal vesicle

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216
Q

What is cellulitis?

A
  • Bacterial infection of skin and subcutis

* Usually caused by strep pyogenes (2/3), and staph aureus (1/3)

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217
Q

Skin findings for cellulitis

A
  • Expanding area of redness, swelling, warmth, tenderness, blistering abscess, ulteration
  • Often fever and leukocytosis
  • Can ascend up lymphatics = lymphangitis
    • Infection involves lymphatics
    • Red line originates from the cellulitis leading to draining lymph nodes
  • Minor trauma to the skin is common cause
  • Seen commonly in peripheral vascular disease, diabetes, lymphedema, and alcohol predispose
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218
Q

Treatment for cellulitis

A

Antibiotics

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219
Q

What is scarlet fever?

A

• Streptococcus pharyngitis with erythrogenic toxic strains (a streptococcus infection - a toxin causes redness in affected person)

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220
Q

Clinical findings of scarlet fever

A
  • Fever
  • Sore throat
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Headache
  • Vomiting
  • Strawberry tongue
  • Abdominal pain
  • Aches
  • Malaise
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221
Q

Manifestation of strawberry tongue

A

Scarlet fever

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222
Q

What are sand paper rash

A
  • Rashes for scarlet fever

* Begins as scarlet blotches, progresses to look like sunburn with goose pimples

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223
Q

Treatment for scarlet fever

A

Systemic antibiotic

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224
Q

What’s dermatophyte infections?

A
  • Superficial fungal infection of the keratin of the stratum corneum, hair or nail
  • Three species: Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton
  • Spread is by contact, animals, or soil
  • Favors moist and warm conditions
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225
Q

Skin findings for dermatophyte infections

A
  • Expanding, erythematous, scaly, annular lesions with central clearing (ringworm)
  • Less common vesicles, bullae, pustules
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226
Q

Treatment for dermatophyte infections

A
  • Topical antifungals

* Systemic for severe or refractory cases

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227
Q

Microscopic findings for dermatophyte infections

A

PAS stain will reveal fungal hyphae in the stratum corneum

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228
Q

KOH (potassium hydroxide) prep

A
  • Another test that can be done for dermatophyte infections
  • A scraping of the lesion placed on a slide in a drop of KOH
  • Visualization of fungal hyphae is a positive test
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229
Q

What’s Wood’s lamp?

A
  • A backlight, which will cause infected lesion to fluoresce
  • Pertains to dermatophyte infections
  • Can be used for differential diagnosis against psoriasis
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230
Q

Clinical name for dermatophyte infection

A

• Tinea

Buffet of tinea infections:
• Tinea corporis - when fungal infection involves body
• Tinea capitis - involves scalp
• Tinea pedis - aka athlete’s foot
• Onychomycosis - fungal infection of nails. Less treatable when involves nails

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231
Q

What is pityriasis versicolor?

A
  • Superficial fungal infection by Malassezia furfur
  • Often young adults 20-40
  • F:M, 2:1
  • More common in warm climate
  • Children more common in tropics
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232
Q

Skin findings for pityriasis versicolor

A
  • Multiple, oval, well demarcated, hypo- or hyperpigmented macular lesions
  • Become confluent and extensive
  • Trunk and shoulders most common
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233
Q

Microscopic findings for pityriasis versicolor

A

Yeast and short septate hyphae, spaghetti and meatballs

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234
Q

Spaghetti and meatballs

A

Pityriasis versicolor

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235
Q

Treatment for pityriasis versicolor

A

Tropical antifungals

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236
Q

What is a candida infection?

A
  • Persistent/recurrent infections of the skin, nails, and oropharynx
  • Fungal organisms with yeast and pseudohyphal forms
  • Candida albicans most common
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237
Q

Predisposing factors for candida infection

A
  • Immunosuppression
  • Diabetes
  • Cushings disease
  • Pregnancy
  • Malnutrition
  • HIV
  • Systemic steroid and antibiotics
  • Predelection for moist, occluded skin
  • Intertrigo (seen below the breast), occlusive dressings, diaper dermatitis
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238
Q

Skin findings for candida infection

A
  • Erythematous, pruritic, tender, painful rash

* In neonates, curd like pseudomembrane on an erythematous base

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239
Q

Mucosal candiasis

A
  • Oral thrush - white patches inside mouth
  • Angular chelitis - inflammation at corners of mouth
  • Vulvovaginal trush
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240
Q

Chronic forms of candida infection frequently associated with…

A

Endocrinopathies

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241
Q

What are scabies?

A
  • Infestation by mite

* Sarcoptes scabiei

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242
Q

Skin findings for scabies

A
  • Papules and burrows between fingers or along the sides of the fingers, soles, and sides of the feet with excoriations and eczematous dermatitis
  • Also affects elbows, axillae, scrotum, penis, labia
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243
Q

Transmission of scabies

A

Close personal contact and sexually transmitted

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244
Q

What is pediculosis?

A

• An infestation of sucking lice that lay their eggs on hair shafts or in seams of clothing

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245
Q

Species that infest humans to cause pediculosis…

A
  • Pediculus humanus: capitus (headlice) and humanus (bodylice)
  • Pthirius pubis: public lice
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246
Q

Transmission of pediculosis

A

direct contact

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247
Q

Skin lesions associated with pediculosis

A
  • Vary with immune sensitivity
  • From subclinical to papules, urticaria and pruritus
  • May become secondarily infected
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248
Q

Treatment for pediculosis

A
  • Topical insecticides: malathion, permethrin
  • Environment vacuumed, bedding, clothing
  • Combs and brushes cleaned
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249
Q

What’s actinic lentigo?

A
  • Benign, irregular, pigmented macular lesions that involves sun-damaged skin of the middle aged and elderly
  • Fair skin Caucasians most at risk
  • 0.1 to > 1.0 cm
  • Not precancerous, needs no Rx
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250
Q

Mimics lentigo maligna

A

Actinic lentigo

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251
Q

What’s vitiligo?

A
  • Common acquired loss of pigment due to autoimmune destruction of melanocytes by cytotoxic T-cells
  • Peak incidence 10 and 30 years
  • More common in dark skin
  • 15-30% associated autoimmune disease
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252
Q

Skin presentation of vitiligo.

A

Hyperpigmented macules enlarge and become confluent

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253
Q

Microscopic presentation of vitiligo

A

Loss of melanocytes and melanin pigment. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate.

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254
Q

What is melanocytic nevus?

A
  • “nevus” = “birthmark”
  • Benign melanocytic neoplasm; acquired or congenital
  • Acquired - present in childhood and adolescence
  • Skin, nails, mucosa, conjunctiva, uveal tract
  • More common in pale skinned with light colored eyes
    • Caucasians average 15-40 nevi
  • Related to sun exposure (intermittent intense sunlight) during the first two decades of life. People who burn.
  • Rare cases develop melanoma
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255
Q

In what type of people are melanocytic nevus more common in?

A
  • Pale skinned with light colored eyes

* Caucasians average 15-40 nevi

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256
Q

What’s a junctional nevus?

A
  • Ovoid to round, well circumscribed; light to dark brown, macular or slightly raised, up to 0.5 cm, regular border
  • Micro –> proliferaion begins in nests at the dermo-epidermal junction
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257
Q

What’s a compound nevus?

A
  • Raised, often warty, often deeply pigmented; circumscribed with a regular border
  • Micro –> Nevus cells, still proliferating at the D-E junction, descent into the dermis and form nests
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258
Q

What’s an intradermal nevus?

A
  • Raised
  • +/- pigment
  • May be dome shaped nodule, papillomatous, or pedunculated
  • Micro –> melanocytes are only found in nests in the dermis. Cells “mature” as they descend deeper into the dermis
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259
Q

Congental Nevus

A

Risk of malignancy (if large) and can be covered with hair

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260
Q

Blue nevus

A
  • Collections of spindled dermal melanocytes

* Tyndall effect: blue light is scattered more passing through the dermis

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261
Q

Halo nevus

A

A zone of HYPOpigmentation represents immunologic regression seen microscopically as an intense lymphocytic dermal infiltrate

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262
Q

What’s a dysplastic nevi?

A
  • Melanocytic nevi with dysplastic melanocytic proliferation
  • Isolated solitary lesions of familial autosomal dominant syndrome
  • May progress to melanoma
  • Most remain clinically stable and never progress
  • In 36% of melanomas we find adjacent dysplastic nevi.
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263
Q

Skin findings for dysplastic nevi

A
  • Large (>6mm)
  • Irregular shaped
  • Ill-defined border
  • Variable shades of browns, tans, and pink
  • May be erythematous surround
  • Not all clinically atypical nevi are dysplastic
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264
Q

What’s dysplastic nevus syndrome?

A
• Inherited autosomal dominant syndrome
• Normal at birth, develop large numbers of nevi in early childhood
     • Few to > hundred 
• Acquire atypical clinical features
around puberty. Predilection for trunk, face, and arms; also buttocks, genitalia, breasts, scalp.
• Histology show dysplastic features.
• Increased incidence of melanoma;
50% by age 60.
• Five dysplastic nevi – relative risk
for melanoma increases to 46%.
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265
Q

What’s malignant melanoma?

A

Malignant transformation of melanocytes.

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266
Q

Highest incidence of malignant melanoma occurs in…

A
  • Fair skinned caucasians - highest incidence.
  • The incidence increasing.
    • 1 in 50 born in the US in 2010.
    • 1 in 1500 in 1935.
  • Mean age 52 years; 35% < 45 years of age.
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267
Q

Prognosis of malignant melanoma

A
  • Early detection of melanoma - high cure rates after excision.
  • Prognosis directly related to size and depth of invasion.
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268
Q

Etiology and pathogenesis of malignant melanoma

A
  • Sun exposure; Genetic predisposition.

* Germline mutations in the chromosome 9p21 tumor suppressor gene, account for 40% of hereditary melanoma cases.

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269
Q

Risk Factors for Development of Melanoma

A
  • Genetic markers (CDKN2a mutation)
  • Skin type I/II (light skin)
  • Family history of dysplastic nevi or melanoma
  • Personal history of melanoma
  • Ultraviolet irradiation; childhood sunburns, intermittent burning exposures
  • Number (>50) and size (>5 mm) of melanocytic nevi
  • Congenital nevi
  • Number of dysplastic nevi (>5)
  • Dysplastic melanocytic nevus syndrome
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270
Q

Melanoma signs, ABCDE rule

A
  • Asymmetry: 1/2 unlike the other
  • Border: irregular, poorly defined edges
  • Color: not uniform; all shades of brown, black, pink
  • Diameter: greater than 6.0 mm
  • Elevation & enlargement: change in size or shape
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271
Q

Growth phases of melanoma

A

Most melanomas show an initial radial growth phase followed by a subsequent vertical phase.

  • Radial growth: cells are running up and down rete, with upward invasion into epidermis; cells spread out laterally
  • Vertical growth phase: loose E-cadherin and express N-cadherin
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272
Q

What is superficial spreading melanoma?

A
  • 70% of melanomas
  • Any site, lower extremities, trunk
  • Radial growth phase - Months to 2 years
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273
Q

Microscopic appearance of superficial spreading melanoma

A
  • Neoplastic melanocytes proliferate along D-E junction
  • Pagetoid invasion of epidermis
  • Severe atypia. Inflammation
  • Gas not invaded dermis, so this is called melanoma in situ
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274
Q

What’s Nodular melanoma?

A
  • 15% of melanomas
  • Any site, trunk, head, neck
  • Arises rapido; NO RADIAL GROWTH PHASE
  • Brown, black, or pink, nodule
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275
Q

What’s lentigo maliga melanoma?

A
  • Occurs in older patients with heavily sundamaged skin; mean age 65
  • Flat, irregular variably pigmented macule or patch
  • Face, neck, dorsa of hand
  • 5% of melanomas
  • Radial growth phase - very long; years
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276
Q

What’s Acral Lentiginous melanoma?

A
  • 5-10% of melanomas
  • Asians, Africans, and African Americans most common
    • 50-70% of the melanomas found in these populations
  • Palms, soles, subungual (nails?)
  • Radial growth phase - months to years
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277
Q

What is mucosal melanoma?

A
  • Can be seen in the mouth

* Biopsy patient if present

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278
Q

What’s Amelanotic melanoma?

A

• Little to no pigment - bizarre giant cells with prominent nucleoli.

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279
Q

Which type of melanoma is most common?

A

Superficial spreading melanoma (70% of melanomas)

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280
Q

Which type of melanoma is most commonly observed in palms, soles, subungual (nails)?

A

Acral lentiginous melanoma

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281
Q

Which type of melanoma is most commonly observed on the face, neck, dorsa of hand?

A

Lentigo maligna melanoma

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282
Q

Which type of melanoma affects any site, but more commonly the trunk, head, neck?

A

Nodular melanoma

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283
Q

Which type of melanoma affects any site, but more commonly the lower extremities, trunk?

A

Superficial spreading melanoma

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284
Q

Compare and contrast the radial growth phases of the different types of melanoma

A
  • Superficial spreading melanoma –> radial growth phase: months to 2 years
  • Nodular melanoma –> arises rapidly, no radial growth phase
  • Lentigo maligna melanoma –> radial growth phase: very long; years
  • Acral lentiginous melanoma –> growth phase: months to years
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285
Q

What is staging?

A
  • T Staging is based on tumor thickness and +/- ulceration.
    • T1: < 1.0mm
    • T2: 0.1-2.0mm
    • T3: 2.01-4.0mm
    • T4: >4.0mm
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286
Q

Treatment for melanoma

A
  • Surgical excision with 1.0 cm. Margin
  • Sentinel node biopsy in lesions > 1.0mm thickness
  • Complete lymph node dissection for metastatic disease
  • Chemotherapy, immunotherapy for higher stage disease
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287
Q

Survival rates for melanoma (general idea)

A
  • Lymph node involvement and metastasis indicates very poor prognosis.
  • Presence of any mitosis (?) means only 10% survival.
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288
Q

What is seborrheic keratoses?

A
  • Most common BENIGN epithelial tumor seen in middle-aged or older
  • Trunk most common, also extremities, head, and neck
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289
Q

Skin findings for seborrheic keratoses

A
  • Sharply delineated
  • Round or oval
  • Brown-black or flesh-colored warty plaques
  • Millimeters to several centimeters
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290
Q

Activitating mutations in which growth factor is though to drive the growth of the tumor in seborrheic keratoses?

A

Fibroblast growth factor receptor-3

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291
Q

Seborrheic keratoses occur explosively in large numbers associated with gastric adenocarcinoma…

A

Leser-Trelat sign

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292
Q

Microscopic appearance of seborrheic keratoses

A
  • Exophytic and sharply demarcated proliferation of small basal like keratinocytes
  • Hyperkeratotic with horn cysts
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293
Q

What is dermatoheliosis?

A
  • Means chronic photodamage
  • Involves epidermis, vascular system, and dermal connective tissue
  • Severity depends on duration, intensity, skin color, tanning capacity
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294
Q

What is Fitzpatrick’s skin phototypes?

A

• Lists different skin types and how they tan/damage

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295
Q

Which type in Fitzpatrick’s skin phototypes is most susceptible to chronic photodamage (dermatoheliosis)?

A
  • Type 1 will get the worst
    • Pale skin, blue/hazel eyes, blond/red hair
    • Always burns, does not tan
  • Photodamage occurs mostly in types 1-3, and also 4 with heavy exposure
  • SPT I and II make up 25% of the white population in the US
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296
Q

Which is the most damaging UV radiation?

A

UVB

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297
Q

Pathogenesis of chronic photodamage/dermatoheliosis

A

UVB is the most damaging UV radiation

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298
Q

Skin findings for chronic photodamage/dermatoheliosis

A
  • Epidermal atrophy
  • Wrinkles
  • Telangiectasia
  • Hypo/hyperpigmentation
  • Solar lentigines
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299
Q

Microscopic appearance of chronic photodamage/dermatoheliosis

A
  • Acanthosis hyperkeratosis

* Elastosis

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300
Q

Treatment for chronic photodamage/dermatoheliosis

A
  • Protective sunblocks
  • Change of behavior
  • Topical sun-protective lotions
  • SPT I and II persons should avoid the peak hours of sun 10-2:00
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301
Q

What is actinic keratosis?

A
  • Sun induced dysplasia of the epidermis.
  • Excessive exposure to UV radiation, particularly UVB.
  • Males > females
  • Middle aged or elderly
  • Fair complexions that burn rather than tan
  • 2-5% of cases develop an invasive squamous cell carcinoma. Numerous lesions for many years have higher risk.
  • Predictor of risk for melanoma and other skin cancers.
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302
Q

2-5% of cases of Actinic keratosis develop this…

A
  • Invasive squamous cell carcinoma
  • Numerous lesions for many years have higher risk
  • Predictor of risk for melanoma and other skin cancers
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303
Q

Appearance of actinic keratosis

A
  • Erythematous or yellow-brown, flat, rough, scaly papules
  • 2 mm to > cm
  • Sun exposed surfaces: face and neck, dorsal hands and forearms
  • Sun damaged of surrounding skin
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304
Q

Microscopic appearance of actinic keratosis

A

Epithelial dysplasia with alternating parakeratosis and orthokeratosis

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305
Q

Etiology for squamous cell carcinoma in situ

A
  • Ultraviolet radiation
  • Chronic arsenicism
  • Immunosuppression
  • Ionizing radiation, HPV, PUVA Rx
  • 3-5% progress to invasive carcinoma
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306
Q

Treatment for squamous cell carcinoma in situ

A
  • Excision
  • Mohs micrographic surgery
  • Histopathologic evaluation to exclude invasive SCC
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307
Q

What’s invasive squamous cell carcinoma?

A
  • Malignant tumor of keratinocytes, arising in the epidermis
  • Usually arises in epidermal precancerous lesions
  • M>F, except legs
  • Age of onset - >55 in the US
    • 20s & 30s in Florida, Southwest, Southern California, Australia, New Zealand
  • Incidence varies with sun exposure
    • Continental US: 7-12/100,000
    • Hawaii: 62/100,000 whites
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308
Q

Aggressiveness of invasive squamous cell carcinoma

A
  • Aggressiveness varies with etiology and differentiation
    • Sun induced lesions low rate of metastasis
    • Immunosuppressed –> more aggressive more often metastasizes
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309
Q

Skin findings for invasive squamous cell carcinoma

A
  • Indurated erythematous, yellowish or skin tone papule, plaque or nodule
  • Keratotic scale
  • Eroded or ulcerated, firm elevated margin
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310
Q

Etiology of invasive squamous cell carcinoma

A
  • Ultraviolet radiation
  • HPV
  • Immunosuppression
  • Chronic inflammatory and scarring conditions
  • Industrial carcinogens
  • Inorganic arsenic
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311
Q

Cellular process in the development of invasive squamous cell carcinoma

A
  • Multistep process that involves:
    • p53
    • cyclin D1
    • human telomerase reverse transcriptase
    • p16
    • thrombospondin
  • Dysregulation of p53 and other apoptotic regulatory proteins
312
Q

Factors for high risk of invasive squamous cell carcinoma

A
  • diameter > 2cm
  • depth > 4mm
  • bone, muscle, nerve involvement
  • location on ear, lip
  • tumor arising in scar
  • high grade
  • immunosuppression
  • absence of inflammation
313
Q

Treatment for invasive squamous cell carcinoma

A
  • Conventional surgical excision
  • Mohs micrographic surgery
  • Radiation therapy
314
Q

What’s the most common invasive cancer in humans?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

315
Q

What is Basal cell carcinoma?

A
  • Most common invasive cancer in humans; 1 million per yer in US
  • Slow growing, locally invasive, and destructive; METASTASIS rare
  • Tendency to sun-exposed sites and in lightly pigmented people
  • Males > females, usually > 40 years
  • Increased and younger in immunosuppression and inherited defects in DNA repair (xeroderma pigmentosum)
316
Q

Pathogenesis for basal cell carcinoma

A
  • Derived from an undifferentiated pluripotent epithelial germ cell
  • Exposure to UVL, particularly UVB induces mutations in tumor suppressor genes
  • Also arise in scars, stasis ulcers, surgical, burn, and post vaccination, and healed infectious diseases such as leuishmania and chickenpox
317
Q

Clinical types of basal cell carcinoma

A
  • Nodular
  • Ulcerating
  • Pigmented variant
  • Superficial variant
  • Sclerosing variant
318
Q

Treatment for basal cell carcinoma

A
  • Surgical excision
  • Mohs micrographic surgery
  • Electrodesiccaiton
  • Curettage
319
Q

Microscopic appearance of basal cell carcinoma

A
  • Proliferating monotonous hyperchromatic, basaloid cells attached to epidermis
  • Peripheral palisading
  • Infrequent mitoses
320
Q

Pheripheral palisading is important in the diagnosis for…

A

Basal cell carcinoma

321
Q

What is Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

• Multifocal tumor of endothelial origin development linked to Human herpesvirus (HHV)-8 infection

322
Q

Compare the clinical variants of Kaposi’s sarcoma

A
  • Classical KS - extremities of old mediterranean male, slow growing
  • Endemic African KS - Central African countries; rapidly progressive lymphadenopathic variant, extracutaneous sites
  • AIDS-related KS - rapidly progressive form with early involvement of extracutaneous sites
  • KS associated with immunosuppressive therapy - organ transplant recipients. Course varies from slow or rapid
323
Q

Treatment for Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

Chemotherapy and radiation therapy

324
Q

Small, reddish-blue macules or flat plaques, often multiple, gradually enlarge. May become nodular, pigmented, coalesce or fungate.

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

325
Q

Microscopic appearance of kaposi’s sarcoma

A

Spindle cell proliferation with blood percolating between slits

326
Q

What is Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis?

A
  • Group of idiopathic disorders characterizes by infiltration of tissues by Langerhans cells.
  • Varies from localized self-healing forms to generalized and fatal
327
Q

Pathogenesis of Langerhans cell Histiocytosis

A
  • Unclear
  • Debate whether LCH is a neoplasm, a reactive disorder, or immune dysfunction
  • Viral involvement?
328
Q

Clinical syndromes of Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis

A
  • Eosinophilic granuloma: unifocal skin, mucous membranes, bone, or soft tissue lesions; childhood and young adult
  • Hand-Schuller-Christian: chronic, progressive multifocal form of LCH; childhood and adult
  • Letterer-Siwe Disease: the most aggressive multifocal LCH form, with skin and internal organ involvement. Infant and child
329
Q

Which of the Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis syndromes is the most aggressive?

A
  • Letterer-Siwe-Disease
  • Mutlifocal
  • Skin and internal organ involvement
  • Infant and child
330
Q

Single system disease of Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis

A
  • Eosinophilic granuloma: unifocal

* Hand-Schuller-Christian disease: multifocal

331
Q

Multisystem disease of Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis

A
  • Letterer-Siwe Disease
  • And more extensive presentations of Hand-Schuller-Christian disease

** Can be low risk (involve skin, bone, lymph node, pituitary) or high risk (involve hematopoietic system, lungs, liver, spleen)

332
Q

Skin findings range from soft tissue swelling, to dermatitis to papules, pustules, erosions, and shallow punched out ulcers

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

333
Q

How many bones comprise the skeletal system?

A

206 bones connect by joints

334
Q

Inorganic mineral of skeletal system consists mainly of…

A

Calcium hydroxyapatite

335
Q

Organic portion of the skeletal system includes…

A

The bone cells and osteoid

336
Q

What are osteoprogenitor cells

A
  • Pluripotent mesenchymal stem cells found in the vicinity of all bony surfaces
  • When appropriately stimulated by growth factors they produce offspring that differentiate into osteoblasts
337
Q

What are osteoblasts

A

• Synthesize, transport, and arrange the many proteins of matrix and initiate the process of mineralization

338
Q

What are osteoclasts?

A

Responsible for bone resorption

339
Q

What are osteocytes?

A
  • Help to control calcium and phosphate levels in the microenvironment (responsible for homeostasis)
  • Detech mechanical forces and translate them into biologic activity
340
Q

What factors regulate bone remodeling?

A
  • RANK
  • RANK Ligand (RANKL)
  • Osteoprotegerin
341
Q

What is RANK?

A
  • Receptor activator for nuclear factor kB
  • Member of the TNF family
  • Expressed on cell membranes of preosteoclasts and mature osteoclasts
  • Stimulated by RANKL
342
Q

What is RANK Ligand (RANKL)?

A
  • Expressed by osteoblasts and marrow stromal cells

* Stimulates RANK which leads to activation of NF-kB which in turn stimulates osteoclasts

343
Q

What is osteoprotegerin?

A

Blocks the actions of RANKL

344
Q

RANK and RANKL relation to bone resorption

A
  • RANKL present on osteoblasts
  • RANK present on osteoclasts and preosteoclasts
  • Increase in RANK and RANKL = increase in bone resorption
345
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • AKA brittle bone disease
  • a phenotypically diverse disorder caused by deficiencies in the synthesis of type 1 collagen
  • Principally affects bone, but also impacts other tissues rich in type 1 collagen (joints, eyes, ears, skin, and teeth)
  • Usually results from autosomal dominant mutations in the genes that encode the alpha1 and alpha2 chains of type 1 collagen.
346
Q

Caused by deficiencies in the synthesis of type 1 collagen

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

347
Q

Most common inherited disorder of connective tissue.

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

348
Q

Usually results from autosomal dominant mutations in the genes that encode the alpha 1 and alpha 2 chains of type 1 collagen.

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

349
Q

Subtypes of osteogenesis imperfecta

A
  • Type I, or mild OI, is the most common form. Persons with this type can live a normal lifespan.
  • Type II is a severe form that usually leads to death in the first year of life.
  • Type III is also called severe OI. Persons with this type have many fractures starting very early in life and can have severe bone deformities. Many become wheelchair bound and usually have a somewhat shortened life expectancy.
  • Type IV, or moderately severe OI, is similar to type I, although persons with type IV often need braces or crutches to walk. Life expectancy is normal or near normal.
350
Q

What’s the most common form of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • Type I.

* Persons with this type can live a normal lifespan.

351
Q

What’s the most severe form of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • Type III (severe OI)
  • Persons with this type have many fractures starting very early in life and can have severe bone deformities
  • Many become wheelchair bound and usually have a somewhat shortened life expectancy.
352
Q

The fundamental abnormality in osteogenesis imperfecta is…

A
  • Too little bone.

* Body is not laying down enough matrix to form proper bone.

353
Q

Classic gross finding of blue sclera is a flag for…

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

354
Q

Most common disease of the growth plate.

A

Achondroplasia

355
Q

Most common form of dwarfism.

A

Achondroplasia

356
Q

What is Achondroplasia?

A
  • Most common form of dwarfism; affects all bones which undergo endochondral ossification
  • Autosomal dominant; almost 80% are new mutations and most of these are paternally derived
  • Caused by an activating point mutation in fibroblast frowth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3)
357
Q

What is Thanatophoric dwarfism?

A
  • Lethal variant of dwarfism
  • Affects 1 in every 20,000 live births
  • Caused by missense or point mutations in FGFR3
  • Has extreme shortening of limbs, frontal bossing of the skull, extremely small thorax
358
Q

What is osteopetrosis?

A
  • AKA marble bone disease and Albers-Schonberg disease
  • A group of rare genetic diseases that are characterized by abnormal osteoclast function
  • The term osteopetrosis reflects the stonelike quality of the bones, but the bones are abnormally brittle and fracture easily, like a piece of chalk. They lack a medullary canal and Ehrlenmeyer flask deformity is common.
  • The autosomal recessive severe type and the autosomal dominant mild type are the most common variants.
359
Q

In which congenital disorder of bone and cartilage lacks a medullary canal and has a Ehrlenmeyer flask deformity?

A

Osteopetrosis

360
Q

Other effects of osteopetrosis includes..

A
  • cranial nerve palsies (due to compression of nerves within cranial foramina)
  • infections (due to reduced marrow size and activity)
  • hepatosplenomegaly (due to extramedullary hematopoiesis)
361
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A
  • Characterized by porous bones and decreased bone mass
  • Postmenopausal women are most commonly affected, and Caucasian women more than African-American women
  • In postmenopausal women, bones with high surface area, such as vertebral bodies, become thinned and the trabeculae are fine.
  • Kyphosis (curving of the spine) and rib fractures are common.
362
Q

Treatment for osteoporosis.

A
  • Exercise
  • Appropriate calcium and vitamin D intake
  • Pharmacologic agents, most commonly bisphosphonates
363
Q

What happens in menopause that increases risk for osteoporosis?

A
  • Decreased serum estrogen
  • Increased IL-1, IL-6, TNF levels
  • Increased expression of RANK, RANKL
  • Increased osteoclast activity
364
Q

Aging and osteoporosis

A
  • Decreased replicative activity of osteoprogenitor cells
  • Decreased synthetic activity of osteoblasts
  • Decreased biologic activity of matrix-bound growth factors
  • Reduced physical activity
365
Q

Honeycomb pattern

A

• Osteoporosis, much, much more porous than normal bone matrix.

366
Q

Thin trabeculae (thin bony spaces with lots of fat and marrow in between), unfilled spaces cause porous appearance in this…

A

Osteoporosis

367
Q

What is Paget disease of bone?

A
  • Also known as osteitis deformans.
  • Separated into three phases: an initial osteolytic stage, followed by a mixed osteolytic/osteoblastic phase, and ending in a quiescent osteosclerotic stage.
  • Common in whites in England, France, Austria, regions of Gernamny, Australia, New Zealand, and the United States.
368
Q

What is the hallmark of Paget’s disease?

A

• Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone, which is linked to a jigsaw puzzle and is produced by prominent cement lines that anneal haphazardly oriented units of lamellar bone.

369
Q

Most common cause of rickets and osteomalacia?

A

• Malabsorption of vitamin D

370
Q

What is rickets?

A

Rickets occurs in children and results in derangement of bone growth.

371
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Osteomalacia occurs in adults and results in remodeled bone which is poorly mineralized. Osteopenia and insufficiency fractures result.

372
Q

In children with rickets you can experience…

A
  1. Genu varum - bow leggedness
  2. Windswept deformity
  3. Genu valgum - knock knees
373
Q

Histological appearance of rickets and osteomalacia

A
  • Normal bone has slight areas of remodeling

* In osteomalacia and rickets, there are large areas of poor mineralization, which can lead to fracture.

374
Q

What is hyperparathyroidism?

A
  • Increased PTH concentrations are detected by receptors on osteoblasts, which release factors that stimulate osteoclast activity.
  • Skeletal manifestations of hyperparathyroidism are caused by unabated osteoclastic bone resorption.
  • The entire skeleton can be affected.
  • The bone loss leads to microfractures and secondary hemorrhages that elicit an influx of macrophages and an ingrowth of reparative fibrous tissue, creating a mass of reactive tissue, known as a brown tumor.
375
Q

PTH concentrations are detected by receptors on …

A

Osteoblasts

376
Q

Increased bone cell activity + peritrabecular fibrosis + cystic brown tumors =

A

Generalized osteitis fibrosa cystica (von Recklinghausen disease of bone)

377
Q

What is a pathologic fracture?

A

If the break occurs in bone altered by a disease process.

378
Q

What is a stress fracture?

A

A slowly developing fracture that follows a period of increased physical activity in which the bone is subjected to new repetitive loads.

379
Q

Classification of fractures

A
  • Complete or incomplete
  • Closed (simple) when the overlying tissue is intact
  • Compound, when the fracture site communicates with the skin surface
  • Comminuted when the bone is splintered
  • Displaced when the ends of the bone at the fracture site are not aligned
380
Q

Process of fractures and healing…

A
  • When you fracture a bone, you create a hematoma.
  • Pooling blood around ends of fracture allows bone building proteins to gather.
  • Osteoprogenitor cells are activated to make osteoblasts.
  • First lay down cartilage in long bones (endochondral ossification) or fibrous tissue (intramembranous ossification).
  • Cartilage lets bone fill in to create a fracture callous (bony callous).
381
Q

Nonunion of fractures

A

Displaced (ends of bones at fracture site not aligned) and comminuted (bone is splinteered) fractures frequently result in some deformity, and inadequate immobilization permits constant movement at the fracture site, so that the normal constituents of callus do not form, resulting in delayed union and nonunion.

382
Q

What is pseudoarthrosis?

A
  • False joint
  • If a nonunion allows too much motion along fracture gap, the central portion of the callus undergoes cystic degeneration, and the luminal surface can actually become lined by synovial-like cells, creating a false joint.
  • Scribe: […] no proper callous formation/healing… these cases often need repeat surgery… ends of the bone do not join and you get what is called a false joint.
383
Q

What is avascular necrosis?

A
  • Osteonecrosis
  • Infarct of bone or marrow which occurs in the medullary cavity
  • Fracture, corticosteroid use, and idiopathic causes are most common
  • Geographic in appearance
  • Eventually results in collapse of the bone with possible distortion and fracture of the bone and sloughing of the articular cartilage.
384
Q

A wedge shape infarct is commonly observed in…

A

• Avascular necrosis (osteonecrosis)

385
Q

Histology of osteonecrosis

A
  • Dead bone with empty lacunae
  • Fat necrosis
  • Insoluble calcium soaps
386
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A
  • Bone infection.
  • Most common infectious agent is S. aureus.
  • Common infectious agent seen in sickle cell-disease is Salmonella.
  • Acute, subacute, and chronic
    • Acute is almost always caused by bacteria, which reach the bone via 3 routes - hematogenous, direct extension, and trauma.
387
Q

How to distinguish between tumor and osteomyelitis?

A

We know it is not a tumor if, upon inserting a needle, pus sprays everywhere.

388
Q

What are bone tumors?

A
  • Very diverse and rare group of diseases
  • Accurate diagnosis is essential for survival and also to maintain optimal function
  • Correlation with radiological images is of utmost importance
  • Classification is based on cell of origin, connective tissue matrix they produce and differentiate
389
Q

Clinical findings for bone forming tumors

A
  • Common lesions are most often asymptomatic and are detected as incidental findings.
  • Some tumors produce pain and are slow growing - but pain does not always indicate malignancy.
390
Q

What may be the first evidence of a bone tumor?

A

Pathologic gracture

391
Q

Multidisciplinary team required to diagnose and treat patients with bone tumors…

A
  • Oncologist
  • Radiologist
  • Pathologist to read biopsy
  • Orthopedic surgeon
392
Q

Tumors occur at different places depending on age…

A
  • Younger patient –> more likely to be primary tumor

* Older patient –> more likely from metastasis

393
Q

Osseous lesions must be __-__% destructive before they can be seen on plain films

A

40-50%

394
Q

Purpose of x-rays

A

• to localize and assist in the biopsy of a lesion

395
Q

Purpose of computed tomography (CT) scans

A

• Good evaluation of bone, but not soft tissue

396
Q

Purpose of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A

• Good evaluation of soft tissue but not bone

397
Q

What is osteoma?

A
  • Bosselated, round to oval sessile tumors that project from the surface of the cortex
  • M:F ratio approximately 2:1
  • Usually solitary, detected in middle age
  • Most often arise on or inside the skull and facial bones
  • Multiple osteomas are seen in the setting of Gardner syndrome
  • Of little clinical significance unless a vital structure is impinged upon
398
Q

Xray findings for osteoma

A

• dense radioopaque circumscribed mass

399
Q

What is osteoid osteoma?

A
  • Classic lesion
  • 75% occur between 5 and 25 years old
  • M:F ratio 2:1 to 3:1
  • Any bone; commonly long tubular bones, diaphyseal, cortical
  • Histologically, the nidus is surrounded by osteoblasts which are variably mineralized
400
Q

Bone forming tumor characterized by painful lesion (relieved by aspirin), and pain most common at night.

A

Osteoid osteoma

401
Q

X-ray finding for osteoid osteoma

A

Central lucent nidus surrounded by dense sclerosis

402
Q

Treatment for osteoid osteoma

A

Excision of nidus is curative

403
Q

What is osteoblastoma?

A
  • Same thing as osteoid osteoma, except it’s larger than 2 cm.
  • Occurs between 10 and 35 years.
  • Axial skeleton - spine common.
  • Pain is NOT relieved by aspirin
  • X-ray is not specific - mimics other lesions
  • Complete excision is curative-rare local aggressiveness.
  • Again, size >2cm - histologically identical to osteoid osteoma
404
Q

Histologically identical to osteoid osteoma, except size > 2cm

A

Osteoblastoma

405
Q

Most common primary malignant tumor of bone.

A

Osteosarcoma

406
Q

Skip lesions are prognostically grave for this disease…

A

Osteosarcoma

407
Q

What is osteosarcoma?

A
  • Most common primary malignant tumor of bone
  • Bimodal age distribution - second and fifth decades
  • Site of predilection is proportional to the rate of skeletal growth (distal femur and proximal tibia are the commonest sites)
  • Often present clinically as pain present for several months.
  • Radiographic presentation can vary greatly (lytic or sclerotic or mixed).
  • Accompanying soft tissue mass is common.
408
Q

Site of predilection is proportional to the rate of skeletal growth (distal femur and proximal tibia are commonest sites)

A

Osteosarcoma

409
Q

Thin lace like woven osteoid/bone is hallmark of this…

A

Osteosarcoma

410
Q

Most common treatment modality for osteosarcoma

A
  • Chemotherapy followed by a limb sparing resection and post operative chemotherapy
  • Aggressive and highly lethal neoplasm
411
Q

Common sites of metastasis include the lungs (most common), liver, and skeletal system for …

A

osteosarcoma

412
Q

Most common primary benign bone tumor

A

Osteochondroma (Exostosis)

413
Q

What is osteochondroma?

A
  • Cartilaginous lesions
  • Most common primary benign bone tumor
  • 85% are solitary; the remainder are part of the multiple hereditary exostosis syndrome, an autosomal dominant syndrome
  • Inactivation of EXT1 and EXT2 is seen in syndromic and hereditary osteochondromas
  • Develop only in bones with enchondral ossification
  • Present more commonly in the syndrome because of bony deformity
414
Q

Treatment for osteochondroma

A

Excision is curative

415
Q

Histologic appearance of osteochondroma

A
  • Pedunculated or sessile
  • Range in size from 1-20 cm
  • Cap is constructed of hyaline cartilage
  • Cartilage undergoes endochondral ossification, resulting in the bone in the center of the lesion
416
Q

Neoplasm consisting of mature hyaline cartilage

A

Enchondroma

417
Q

Enchondromas can appear as part of syndromes involving…

A
  • Multiple enchondromas - Ollier’s Disease

* Enchondromas and soft tissue hemangiomas - Mafucci’s syndrome

418
Q

X-ray appearance –> radiolucent lesions with ring like calcification

A

Enchondroma

419
Q

Histologic appearance of enchondroma

A

Mature hyaline cartilage (grey-blue) with calcifications

420
Q

Enchondroma is most commonly found on…

A
  • Encondromas-metaphyseal ends of tubular bones

* Common in hands and feet

421
Q

What is chondrosarcoma?

A
  • Malignant tumor of cartilage
  • Second most common primary malignant tumor of bone
  • Adults - 40 and older. Males more common
  • Location: pelvis, ribs, shoulder, long bones
  • Dull aching pain waking the patient at night
  • Classification - Location: intramedullary and juxtacortical
  • Survival and tumor progression are based on grade.
422
Q

Histology: conventional, clear cell, mesenchymal, and dedifferentiated

A

Chondrosarcoma

423
Q

Hypercellular lesion containing numerous malignant chondrocytes in a pale grey cartilaginous background is observed in this disease…

A

Chondrosarcoma

424
Q

Chondrosarcoma may appear in these two locations…

A
  1. Intramedullary (center)

2. Juxtacortical (edge)

425
Q

What is a benign lesion of bone made up of fibro-osseous tissue proliferating in an irregular manner; some think of as localized developmental arrest…

A

Fibrous dysplasia

• It is a fibro-osseous lesion

426
Q

What are the two forms of fibrous dysplasia?

A

• Monostotic
- Single bone, 70% of all cases)
• Polyostotic
- Multiple bones, 27% of all cases

427
Q

What is McCune-Albright syndrome?

A

• 3% of cases of fibrous dysplasia is part of McCune-Albright syndrome

Characterized by:
• Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
• Precocious puberty
• Cafe-au-lait spots

Due to a somatic mutation of guanine-nucleotide binding protein (G-protein), encoded by the GNAS gene.

This has a female predominance.

428
Q

Which gender is more likely to get Albright’s syndrome?

A

Female

429
Q

Fibrous dysplasia affects which gender more?

A
  • Males more than females

* Young adults

430
Q

Which bones are involved in fibrous dysplasia?

A

• Any bone can be involved

431
Q

X-ray appearance of fibrous dysplasia

A

X-ray lucent lesion with “ground glass” appearance

432
Q

How frequently does fibrous dysplasia transform to sarcoma?

A

RARE

433
Q

Fibrous stroma containing osteoid and woven bone - “Chinese letters” associated with which disease?

A

Fibrous dysplasia

Note: we almost never see mitotic figures in the background, as it is generally benign

434
Q

Malignant small blue cell tumor

A

Ewing sarcoma

435
Q

Promiscuous gene (EWS), characterized by unique chromosomal translocation t(11;22)(q24;q12)(EWS-FLI-1)

A

Ewing sarcoma

436
Q

Most common chromosomal translocation for Ewing sarcoma

A

t(11;22)

Result is a fusion of EWS gene to FLI1 gene.

EWS is a promiscuuous gene because it has a lot of partners.

437
Q

Treatment for Ewing sarcoma

A
  • Radiation and chemotherapy

* 5 year survival about 70%

438
Q

Commonly affected areas of the skeleton for Ewing sarcoma

A

Axial and appendicular skeleton

439
Q

Permeative with “onion-skin” periosteal reaction observed in which disease…

A

Ewing Sarcoma

440
Q

Histological appearance of Ewing Sarcoma

A
  • Sheets of small round blue cells, not much larger than lymphocytes make up the lesion.
  • Scant cytoplasm with white halos due to glycogen production
  • Necrosis may be prominent
441
Q

Most common joint disorder

A

Osteoarthritis

442
Q

In what age range is osteoarthritis most commonly seen?

A
  • Most commonly seen in patients over 65

* Most commonly appears with advancing age and without cause (primary OA)

443
Q

Which joint disorder is primarily a degenerative disorder of articular cartilage?

A

Osteoarthritis

• Chondroid matrix is broken down

444
Q

What is eburnation?

A

Eburnation is identified as holes in the articular surface

445
Q

Histologic appearance of osteoarthritis

A
  • The surface cartilage appears chewed, compatible with the gross finding of eburnation
  • Eburnation: holes in the articular surface
446
Q

Which joint disorder is a systemic, chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease which principally attacks the joints?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

447
Q

When extraarticular involvement develops in this joint disorder, it may resemble lupus or scleroderma.

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

448
Q

What happens in rheumatoid arthritis

A

Causes a nonsuppurative proliferative synovitis that frequently progresses to destroy articular cartilage and underlying bone with resulting disabling arthritis.

449
Q

Incidence of rheumatoid arthritis

A
  • Relatively common condition, with a prevalence of approximately 1%
  • Three to five times more common in women than in men
  • Peak incidence is in the second to fourth decades of life
450
Q

Pathologic changes in rheumatoid arthritis are caused mainly by…

A

Cytokine-mediated inflammation, with CD4+ T cells being the principal source of the cytokines

451
Q

Risk factors for rheumatoid arthritis

A
  • Estimated that 50% of the risk of developing RA is related to genetic factors
  • Susceptibility to RA is linked to the HLA-DRB1 locus
  • Inflammatory and environmental insults such as smoking and infections may induce the citrullination of some self proteins, creating new epitopes that trigger autoimmune reactions.
452
Q

Histologic appearance of rheumatoid arthritis

A
  • On histologic examination, the affected joints show chronic papillary synovitis
  • The classic appearance is that of a pannus, formed by proliferating synovial lining cells admixed with inflammatory cells, granulation tissue, and fibrous connective tissue
453
Q

Incidence of gout

A

Affects about 1% of the population, and shows a predilection for males.

454
Q

What causes gout?

A
  • Caused by excessive amounts of uric acid, an end product of purine metabolism, within tissues and body fluids
  • Monosodium urate crystals precipitate from supersaturated body fluids and induce an acute inflammatory reaction
  • Recurrent episodes of acute arthritis, sometimes accompanied by the formation of large crystalline aggregates called tophi, and eventual permanent joint deformity (joint deformity can occur if not treated)
455
Q

T/F: Although an elevated level of uric acid is an essential component of gout, not all such persons develop gout, and genetic and environmental factors also contribute to pathogenesis

A

True

456
Q

What increases urate level? (Related to gout)

A

Increase in urate level due to:
• Dietary purine load
• Endogenous purine synthesis

Excretion:
• Renal excretion
• Gut

In gout:
• Urate supersaturation and crystallization

457
Q

Histologic appearance of gout…

A
  • Aggregations of urate crystals surrounded by an intense inflammatory reaction of lymphocytes, macrophages, and foreign-body giant cells, attempting to engulf the masses of crystals
  • Under polarized light, the crystals are needle shaped and demonstrate negative birefringence
458
Q

Which joint disorder is also known as chondrocalcinosis and calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease?

A

Pseudogout

459
Q

This joint disorder most commonly occurs in people over 50, with no race or gender predilection..

A

Pseudogout

460
Q

What happens in pseudogout?

A
  • Crystals first appear in structures composed of cartilage.

* When the deposits enlarge enough they may rupture, resulting in inflammation.

461
Q

Histologic appearance of pseudogout

A
  • Numerous foci of calcification are identified in the cartilage
  • The crystals are rhomboid in shape and demonstrate positive birefringence under polarized light
462
Q

What are soft tissue tumors?

A
  • Proliferations occuring in the extraskeletal, nonepithelial tissues of the body
  • Classified according to the normal tissues they recapitulate (muscle, fat, etc)
  • Some of these have no normal histologic counterpart
  • Benign outnumber malignant 100:1
463
Q

Location of soft tissue tumors

A
  • Lower extremity: 40%
  • Upper extremity: 20%
  • Trunk and retroperitoneum: 30%
  • Head and neck: 10%
464
Q

Most common tissue tumor of adulthood

A

Lipoma

465
Q

Treatment for lipoma

A

Simple excision is curative

466
Q

Conventional lipomas show genetic rearrangements in which chromosomes?

A

Chromosome 12q13-15

467
Q

Incidence of lipoma more common in which gender?

A

Male preponderance most striking in spindle cell variant (9:1 M:F ratio)

468
Q

One of the most common sarcomas of adulthood

A

Liposarcoma

469
Q

Age range that liposarcoma most commonly appears in…

A

40s-60s

470
Q

Where does liposarcoma usually arise?

A

Usually arise in the deep soft tissues of the proximal extremities and retroperitoneum

471
Q

Well differentiated liposarcoma contains mutations in which gene and chromosome?

A

Well differentiated liposarcoma contains mutations in MDM2 gene on 12q14-q15.

472
Q

Well documented translocation, t(12;16)(q13;p11) occurs in what type of liposarcomas?

A

Myxoid and round cell liposarcomas

473
Q

Histologic hallmark: lipoblasts - mimic fetal fat cells is observed in which adipose tissue tumor?

A

Liposarcoma

474
Q

Most common of the reactive pseudosarcomas

A

Modular fasciitis

475
Q

Most common location of nodular fasciitis

A

Most often occurs in adults on the forearm, chest, and back

476
Q

Histologic appearance of nodular fasciitis

A
  • Cellular lesion with plump myofibroblasts in an often myxoid stroma
  • Stroma contains lymphocytes and extravasated blood cells
477
Q

Variants of superficial fibromatoses include…

A
  • Palmar (Dupuytren contracture)
  • Plantar
  • Penile (Peyronie disease) fibromatoses
478
Q

Characteristic of superficial fibromatoses

A

• All variants are characterized by nodular thickenings of the affected area

479
Q

Which variant of superficial fibromatoses is bilateral in 1/2 of cases?

A

Palmar variant

480
Q

Which gender does superficial fibromatoses occur more in?

A

All variants affect males more than female

481
Q

T/F: For superficial fibromatoses, some recur after excision, particularly the palmar variant

A

True

482
Q

Also known as desmoid tumors

A

Deep fibromatoses

483
Q

Which fibrous tumor presents as large infiltrative masses, most commonly abdominal, and recur after excision, but the cells appear benign

A

Deep fibromatoses

484
Q

Gender predilection of deep fibromatoses

A
  • Extraabdoominal variants affect men and women equally

* The abdominal variant is most commonly seen in women after pregnancy

485
Q

The intra-abdominal variant of deep fibromatoses occurs most frequently in..

A
  • Mesentery and pelvic walls

* Associated with Gardner syndrome

486
Q

What mutation is observed in deep fibromatoses?

A

Mutatioons in beta-catenin are seen in these lesions regardless of the presence of Gardner syndrome.

487
Q

Gross appearance of deep fibromatoses

A
  • Tumorss appear as grey/white, firm, poorly demarcated masses
  • Very rubbery when cut
488
Q

Histologic appearance of deep fibromatoses

A
  • Composed of plump benign fibroblasts arranged in broad fascicles that invade the surrounding tissue
  • Mitoses may be frequent
489
Q

Where does fibrosarcoma occur in the body?

A

Occur anywhere in the body; most common in the deep soft tissues of the extremities

490
Q

Which fibrous rumor appears most often unencapsulated, infiltrative, soft fleshy masses demonstrating areas of hemorrhage and necrosis?

A

Fibrosarcoma

491
Q

Spindle cells grow in a herringbone fashion in this tumor…

A

fibrosarcoma

492
Q

Benign fibrous histiocytoma usually occurs in…

A
  • Skin and subcutis

* Lesion is often pigmented

493
Q

Incidence of benign fibrous histiocytoma

A
  • Relatively common

* Presents in mid-adult life as firm small nodule (usually < 1cm)

494
Q

Gross appearance of benign fibrous histiocytoma.

A
  • firm small nodule (usually <1 cm)
  • Lesion is often pigmented
  • Overlying hyperpigmented squamous mucosa is also evident
495
Q

Microscopic appearance of benign fibrous histiocytoma

A

Composed of crossing spindle cells in a background of sclerotic collagen

496
Q

What are the different types of pleomorphic undifferentiated sarcoma?

A
  • Inflammatory
  • Myxoid
  • Angiomatoid
  • Giant cell
  • Storiform-pleomorphic
497
Q

What appears as a grey/white fleshy tumor with infiltrative margins, unencapulated, hemorrhage/mecrosis may be present

A

Pleomorphic undifferentiated sarcoma (formerly malignant fibrous histiocytoma)

498
Q

Histologic appearance of pleomorphic spindle cell tumor with necrosis and numerous mitoses is found in this…

A

Pleomorphic undifferentiated sarcoma

499
Q

Most common soft tissue sarcoma of childhood and adolescence (usually presents before 20 years of age)

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

500
Q

In which location does rhabdomyosarcoma occur?

A
  • May arise in any location
  • Most occur in the head, neck, or genitourinary tract
  • Only appear in relation to skeletal muscle in the extremities
501
Q

Treatment for rhabdomyosarcoma

A

Usually treated with surgery and chemotherapy with or without radiation

502
Q

Types of rhabdomyosarcma

A
  1. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
  2. Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma
  3. Pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma

All contain rhabdomyoblasts in variable quantities

503
Q

Most common type of rhabdomyosarcoma

A
  • Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

* Accounts for 60%

504
Q

Subtypes of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

A
  • Sarcoma botryoides
  • Spindle cell
  • Anaplastic
505
Q

Present as soft grey, infiltrative masses…

A

Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

506
Q

Age range for embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma..

A

•Typically arises in children <10 years old in head and neck, prostate, and paratesticular areas

507
Q

Round and spindled cells may be present in this type of rhabdomyosarcoma…

A

Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

508
Q

Accounts for 20% of rhabdomyosarcomas

A

Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma

509
Q

This rhabdomyosarcoma tends to develop in early to middle adolescence and commonly arises in the deep muscle of the extremities…

A

Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma

510
Q

Translocations that are diagnostic for alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma

A
  • t(2;13)(q35;q14)

* t(1;13)(p36;q14)

511
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma that is seen more often in adults than children

A

Pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma

512
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma that can resemble pleomorphic undifferentiated sarcoma

A

Pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma

513
Q

Characterized by numerous large, sometimes multinucleated bizarre eosinophilic tumor cells

A

Pleomorphic rhabdomysarcoma

514
Q

What is Leiomyoma?

A
  • Benign smooth muscle tumors
  • Most commonly seen in the uterus
  • May also arise from erector pili muscles of the skin, nipples, scrotum, and labia
  • Also occur in the deep soft tissues and wall of the GI tract
515
Q

Multiple cutaneous leiomyomas in some individuals are associated with …

A
  • Renal cell carcinomas
  • Hereditary leiomyomatosis and renal cell carcinoma syndrome transmitted as autosomal dominant
    • Associated with chromosome 1q42.3
516
Q

Histologic appearance of leiomyoma

A

Composed of fascicles of spindle cells that tend to intersect each other at right angles

517
Q

Histologically consist of cigar shaped nuclei arranged in interweaving fascicles…

A

Leiomyosarcoma

518
Q

Gender predilection of leiomyosarcoma

A

Afflict women more frequently than men

519
Q

Where does leiomyosarcoma most commonly occur?

A

Vast majority occur in the skin and deep soft tissues of the extremities and retroperitoneum

520
Q

A special subgroup of leiomyosarcoma exists in what type of patients?

A
  • HIV positive patients

* Occurs in unusual sites such as the liver

521
Q

Represent 10-20% of soft tissue sarcomas

A

Leiomyosarcoma

522
Q

Characteristic translocation for synovial sarcoma

A

t(X,18)(p11.2;q11.2)

523
Q

Treatment for synovial sarcoma

A

Treated with preoperative chemotherapy followed by wide resection

524
Q

Histologic appearance of synovial sarcoma

A
  • Monophasic: consist of only spindle cells (could also be only epithelioid cells)
  • Biphasic: contains both spindle and epithelioid cells
  • Stain with epithelial and mesenchymal markers
525
Q

Where does synovial sarcoma occur?

A
  • Majority arise in the deep soft tissues, and 60-70% occur in the thigh
  • Less than 10% are extra articular
526
Q

Thyroid physiology

A
  • Hypothalmus releases TRH which acts on the pituitary, which then releases TSH to stimulate the thyroid to make hormones
  • Free hormones act to inhibit the pituitary from releasing TSH to stimulate the thyroid
  • Thyroid binding proteins come from the liver to bind to T4 or T3, this plays a role in equilibrium of free hormones and bound hormones
527
Q

Most common site of heterotopic thyroid

A
  • Most frequent –> base of tongue (lingual thyroid)
  • Total migration failure
  • 75% of patients with lingual thyroid have no other thyroid tissue
528
Q

Other sites of heterotopic thyroid

A
  • Anterior tongue
  • Larynx
  • Trachea
  • Mediastinum - if it descends too far
  • Heart
529
Q

Embryology of thyroid

A
  • Foramen cecum is located at the midline between the anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3 of the tongue
    • This is where the thyroid tissue starts developing
  • Thyroglossal duct forms and descends down to its normal position in front of the larynx
  • In other words: foramen cecum to suprasternal notch
530
Q

Thyroglossal duct cyst

A
  • Occurs when the thyroglossal duct does not obliterate
  • Occurs in the midline of neck (looks like Adam’s apple)
  • Asymptomatic unless infected
  • Moves when swallowing
  • Squamous or respiratory epithelium lining cyst
531
Q

What is hypothyroidism?

A
  • Underactive thyroid

* High TSH, but low T3 and T4

532
Q

Hypothyroidism in infants cause…

A

Cretinism:
• Poor growth
• Results in short stature, delayed development of permanent teeth, delayed puberty, poor mental development

533
Q

Hypothyroidism in adults results in…

A

Myxedema:

• Periorbital and pretibial edema due to mucopolysaccharide deposition underneath skin

534
Q

Treatment for hypothyroidism

A

Synthetic thyroid hormone

535
Q

Cause of primary hypothyroidism

A

Loss of thyroid tissue due to surgery or radiation therapy

536
Q

Most common cause of hypothyroidism in the USA

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease

537
Q

Most common cause of hypothyroidism worldwide…

A

Iodine deficiency, specially in endemic areas

538
Q

Cause of secondary hypothyroidism

A
  • Pituitary or hypothalamic failure

* Causes no hormone to be secreted

539
Q

Most common cause of goiter in the United States

Goiter –> swelling of the neck due to enlarged thyroid gland

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

540
Q

Histologic diagnostic triad for Hashimoto thyroiditis (Stuma Lymphomatosa)

A
  • Lymphocytic infiltrate
  • Lymphoid follicles with germinal centers
  • Hurthle cell metaplasia of follicular epithelium
541
Q

Patients with Hashimoto thyroiditis are high risk for…

A
  • B-cell lymphoma
  • Papillary carcinoma
  • Hurthle cell neoplasm
542
Q

What presents as a painless enlargement, believed to represent a disease of autoimmune origin, has variable functional status, diffuse nontender rubbery thyroid enlargement, with flashy cut surface?

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis (Stuma lymphomatosa)

• Variable functional status: euthyroid, hyperthyroid (Hashitoxicosis), or hypothyroid

543
Q

What’s believed to be the cause of subacute thyroiditis (granulomatous thyroiditis or De Quervain thyroiditis)?

A

• Viral infection

544
Q

Clinical course of subacute thyroiditis (granulomatous thyroiditis or De Quervain thyroiditis)…

A
  • Onset often acute, with fever and malaise

* Triphasic clinical course of hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and return to normal thyroid function (within 6-8 weeks)

545
Q

Most common cause of painful thyroid

A

Subacute thyroiditis (granulomatous thyroiditis or De Quervain thyroiditis)

546
Q

Histologic appearance of subacute thyroiditis

A
  • Disruption of follicles with inflammation
  • Granulomatous reaction to colloid
  • Multinucleated giant cells
547
Q

Stony, hard, painless thyroid gland observed in…

A

Riedel’s thyroiditis

548
Q

Thyroiditis that clinically resembles carcinoma, compress trachea…

A

Riedel’s thyroiditis

549
Q

Obliterating phlebitis, where vein is obliterated by infiltrate and surrounded by dense collagen, is observed in which thyroiditis?

A

Riedel’s thyroiditis

550
Q

Gross appearance of Riedel’s thyroiditis (Riedel’s struma, fibrous thyroiditis)

A
  • Extensive fibrosis involving thyroid and contiguous neck structures
  • Broad brands of fibrosis with keloid like fibers
551
Q

Microscopic appearance of Riedel’s thyroiditis (Riedel’s struma, fibrous thyroiditis)

A
  • Follicles are obliteraed

* Patchy lymphocytes, plasma cells, and eosinophils

552
Q

Incidence of Riedel’s thyroiditis

A

Rare, suggest autoimmune etiology

553
Q

What is thyrotoxicosis?

A

Hypermetabolic state caused by increased T4 and T3

554
Q

What is primary thyrotoxicosis?

A

Grave’s disease

555
Q

What is secondary thyrotoxicosis?

A

TSH secreting pituitary adenoma

556
Q

Clinical picture of thyrotoxicosis

A
  • Heat intolerance, sweating, warm skin, malabsorption
  • Cardiac: palpitation, tachycardia, CHF
  • Menstrual disturbances
  • Neuromuscular: Tremor, muscle weakness
  • Ocular: thyroid ophthalmopathy
557
Q

Lab findings for Graves’ Disease (diffuse goiter)

A
  • Increased T4
  • Increased T3
  • Decreased TSH
558
Q

Radioactive findings for Graves’ Disease (Diffuse goiter)

A

Diffuse uptake of radioactive iodine

559
Q

What Is Graves’ disease (diffuse goiter)?

A
  • Thyrotoxicosis with smooth symmetrical enlargement of thyroid
  • Infiltrative ophthalmopathy with exophthalmus in 40% of patients
560
Q

Most common cause of endogenous hyperthyroidism

A

Diffuse goiter (Graves’ disease)

561
Q

Triad of clinical findings for Graves’ disease (Diffuse goiter)

A
  • diffuse enlargement of thyroid
  • infiltrative ophthalmopathy (exophthalmos)
  • infiltrative dermatopathy (periorbital myxedema)
562
Q

Histologic appearance of diffuse goiter (Graves’ disease)

A
  • Diffuse hyperplasia of thyroid follicular cells
  • Papillary hyperplasia
  • Scalloped appearance of the edges of the colloid
  • Lymphoid follicles

• Scribe: We do not see round follicles lined by epithelial cells. Instead we see papillary projections in the lumen.

563
Q

Which type of nodule in the thyroid is more likely to be neoplastic?

A
  • Solitary nodule is more likely to be neoplastic than multiple
  • Nodules in younger patients are more likely to be neoplastic
  • Nodules in males are more likely to be neoplastic
564
Q

Which nodules in the thyroid are more likely to be benign?

A
  • Hot nodules are more likely to be benign
  • Up to 10% of cold nodules prove to be malignant
  • History of previous radiation to the neck is associated with increased risk of malignancy
565
Q

Incidence of multinodular goiter

A

Incidence 3-5%, and 50% in autopsy cases

566
Q

Location and effect of multinodular goiter

A
  • Sometimes extends in the mediastinum
  • Pressure effect on trachea
  • Can arise sporadically or endemic (iodine deficiency)
567
Q

Histological appearance of multinodular goiter

A
  • Distended follicles of various sizes, filled with colloid, flat follicular epithelium
  • Focal hyperplasia, scalloping
  • Calcification
  • Fibrosis
  • Hemorrhage
568
Q

Most common endocrine malignancy

A

Thyroid neoplasm

• Less than 2% of all human cancers

569
Q

Gender predilection of thyroid neoplasm

A

Generally more common in women

570
Q

Benign to malignant ratio of thyroid neoplasm

A

10:1

571
Q

Neoplasm associated with radiation exposure and endemic goiters

A

Thyroid neoplasm

572
Q

Clinical manifestations include:
• Most patients are euthyroid and present with thyroid nodule
• Symptoms such as dysphagia, dyspnea, and hoarseness usually indicate advanced disease
• Ipsilateral cervical lymph nodes may be present

A

Thyroid neoplasm

573
Q

Definitive diagnosis for thyroid neoplasm

A

Fine needle aspiration biopsy

574
Q

Subcategories of thyroid neoplasms

A
  • Follicle derived

* C-cell derived

575
Q

Most common thyroid neoplasm

A

Follicular adenoma

576
Q

Thyroid neoplasm that is almost always solitary, well capsulated, has uniform follicles within the lesion, compress adjacent normal thyroid tissue, no vascular or capsular invasion…

A

Follicular adenoma

577
Q

Make up 10-15% of thyroid cancer

A

Follicular carcinoma

578
Q

Thyroid neoplasm that usually shows as “cold” on radionuclide scan

A

Follicular carcinoma

579
Q
Thyroid neoplasm that is:
• more aggressive
• hematologic spread
• architectural patterns, follicular, or solid
• Capsular invasion
• Vascular invasion beyond the capsule
A

follicular carcinoma

580
Q

Prognosis for follicular carcinoma

A

60% 10 year survival

581
Q

Most common malignant thyroid tumor (75%)

A

Papillarry carcinoma

582
Q

How papillary carcinoma spreads…

A

Spread via lymphatics - propensity for lymph node metastasis

583
Q

Thyroid neoplasm that’s associated with prior radiation…

A

Papillary carcinoma

584
Q

Which thyroid neoplasm has this histologic finding:
• Branching papillae with fibrovascular core, lined by cuboidal to columnar epithelial cells and psammoma bodies
• Optically clear nuclei (Orphan Annie)

A

Papillary carcinoma

585
Q

Prognosis for papillary carcinoma depends on SAGES…

A
  • Sex: women better prognosis
  • Age: children better prognosis
  • Grade: dedifferentiation, poor prognosis
  • Extent: extrathyroid extension, poor prognosis
  • Size: large lesions, poor prognosis
586
Q

Thyroid neoplasm that’s a neuroendocrine neoplasm…

A

Medullary carcinoma

587
Q

Thyroid neoplasm that originate from the calcitonin producing parafollicular C-cells

A

Medullary carcinoma

588
Q
Thyroid neoplasm that:
• solitary or multiple lessons
• 5-10% of all thyroid cancers
• 80% Sporadic
• 20% occurs in the setting of MEN syndrome 2A or 2B or as familial tumors
A

Medullary carcinoma

589
Q

Thyroid neoplasm that is congo red positive (acellular amyloid deposits) and tumor cells positive to Calcitonin immunostain

A

Medullary carcinoma

590
Q

Thyroid neoplasm that has polygonal to spindle-shaped cells, and form nests, trabeculae or follicles

A

Medullary carcinoma

591
Q

Which thyroid neoplasm grows rapidly, spreads locally, invades trachea, esophagus, mediastinum b local invasion?

A

Anaplastic carcinoma

592
Q

Which thyroid neoplasm originates from follicular cells?

A

Differentiated:
• Papillary (75%)
• Follicular (10%)
• Hurthle cell (5%)

Undifferentiated:
• Anaplastic (5%)

593
Q

Which thyroid neoplasm is highly fatal, most patients die within one year?

A

Anaplastic carcinoma

594
Q

Gross presentation of anaplastic carcinoma (thyroid neoplasm).

A

Large solid tumor with necrosis and hemorrhage.

595
Q

Incidence of anaplastic carcinoma

A
  • Constitutes 5-10% of all thyroid carcinomas

* Peak incidence - 7th decade

596
Q

Different histological morphologies of anaplastic carcinoma.

A
  • Multinucleated osteoclast - type giant cells
  • Spindle cell sarcoma-like morphology
  • Squamoid morphology
597
Q

Compare and contrast the prognosis of the various thyroid carcinomas.

A
  • Papillary - excellent
  • Follicular - good
  • Anaplastic - poor
  • Medullary - varies
598
Q

Compare and contrast the method of spread for each thyroid carcinoma.

A
  • Papillary - lymph
  • Follicular - blood vessel
  • Anaplastic - local (grows so fast it has no time to spread)
  • Medullary - all
599
Q

Compare and contrast the age incidence for each thyroid carcinoma.

A
  • Papillary - young < 45 years (75% of all thyroid carcinomas)
  • Follicular - middle age (15%)
  • Anaplastic - Elderly (5%)
  • Medullary - Elderly, familial (5%)
600
Q

Structure and location of pituitary gland.

A
  • Present in the sphenoid bone, inside a cup-shaped space in the bone called the sella turcica.
  • Weighs about 0.5 g.
  • Connected to the hypothalamus with stalk.
  • Composed of:
    • Anterior - adenohypophysis (80%)
    • Posterior - neurohypophysis
601
Q

Function of the neurohypophysis?

A

• Small posterior lobe of pituitary
• Stores hormones secreted by the hypothalamus:
1. Oxytocin
2. Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)

602
Q

Function of adenohypophysis

A
• Large anterior lobe
• Releases hormone:
     - Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
     - Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)
     - Lutenizing hormone (LH)
     - Growth hormone (GH)
     - Adenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
     - Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
     - Prolactin (PRL)
603
Q

Pituitary disease pertaining to TSH

A
  • Hypersecretion = hyperthyroidism

* Hyposecretion = hypothyroidism

604
Q

Pituitary diseases pertaining to ACTH

A
  • Hypersecretion = Cushing’s disease

* Hyposecretion = Addison’s disease

605
Q

Pituitary diseases pertaining to FSH

A
• Hyposecretion
     - M = poor sperm production
     - F = low estrogen, amenorrhea
• Hypersecretion
     - F = menopause
606
Q

Pituitary diseases pertaining to LH

A

• Hyposecretion

 - F = no ovulation
 - M = low testosterone
607
Q

Pituitary diseases pertaining to MSH

A

• Hypersecretion = excess pigment

608
Q

Pituitary diseases pertaining to GH

A

• Hypersecretion
- during growth = gigantism
- after growth = acromegaly
• Hyposecretion = dwarfism

609
Q

Pituitary disease pertaining to PRL

A
  • Hypersecretion = galactorrhea (excess milk production), infertility
  • Hyposecretion = poor milk production
610
Q

Pituitary disease pertaining to ADH

A

• Hypersecretion = SIADH
- Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion
• Hyposecretion = diabetes insipidus

611
Q

Histology of anterior pituitary

A

• Pink acidophils secrete: growth hormone (GH) and prolactin
• Dark purple basophils secrete:
- corticotrophin (ACTH)
- thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
- gonadotrophins
- follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
- luteinizing hormone (LH)
• Pale staining chromophobes have few cytoplasmic granules, but may have secretory activity

612
Q

Acidophils of the anterior pituitary secrete…

A
  • Growth hormone

* Prolactin

613
Q

Basophils of the anterior pituitary secrete…

A
  • Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
  • Corticotrophin (ACTH)
  • Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
  • Luteinizing hormone (LH)
614
Q

Chromophobes of the anterior pituitary secrete…

A
  • Have few cytoplasmic granules

* May have secretory activity

615
Q

General diseases of the pituitary

A
  • Hyperpituitarism: excessive secretion of tropic hormones; most often secondary to a benign tumor (adenoma) arising in the anterior lobe –> called anterior pituitary adenomas
  • Hypopituitary: deficiency of tropic hormones because pituitary gland is destroyed by destructive process such as injury, inflammation, surgery or radiation
  • Local mass effect: tumors compress adjacent structures - such as the optic chiasm - causing headache, loss of vision, and hydrocephalus
616
Q

Hyperpituitarism, in most cases, excess is due to __________ arising in the __________ lobe.

A

adenoma; anterior

617
Q

Benign (pituitary) adenomas have symptoms that fall into 2 main categories:

A

• Pressure symptoms from glandular enlargement
- Headache, seizures, drowsiness, visual defects
• Hormonal effects
- Usually stimulatory if functional tumor
- May be inhibitory (non-functional with pressure necrosis)

618
Q

Most common hormonally active adenomas

A

Prolactinoma

619
Q

Features common to all pituitary adenomas

A
  • 10% of all intracranial neoplasms & 25% incidental findings
  • Usually benign and sporadic
  • 3% occur with MEN syndrome
  • May or may not be functional
    • Functional - the clinical effects are secondary to the hormone produced
    • Non-functional - large size, hypopituitarism (destroy adjacent ant. pituitary), visual field abnormalities
620
Q

Hormones most commonly over-produced by adenomas…

A

Prolactin and GH

621
Q

Sizes of pituitary adenoma

A
  • Microadenoma, < 10mm, may cause focal bulging

* Macroadenoma, > 10mm, cause problem related to mass effect

622
Q

How to diagnose pituitary adenoma

A
  • Imaging: MRI brain with and without IV contrast
  • Labs: check the levels of different hormones to determine which type of tumor it is
  • Visual fields: to be performed by ophthalmologist, to see if tumor is causing visual symptoms
623
Q

Gross appearance of pituitary adenomas are usually…

A
  • Well circumscribed, invasive in up to 30%
  • Size 1cm or more, specially in nonfunctioning tumor
  • Hemorrhage & necrosis seen in large tumors
624
Q

Uniform cells, one cell type (monomorphic/monomorphism), absent reticulin network, rare or absent mitosis are histologic characteristic of…

A

Pituitary adenomas

625
Q

Most common pituitary adenoma…

A

PRL secreting adenoma

626
Q

Type of immunostain that can be done for GH

A
  • Immunoperoxidase
  • Hormone will light up

Note: this stain is not necessary, since GH can be detected in serum

627
Q

Growth hormone producing adenoma

A

Can result in:
• Gigantism: if hypersecretion occurs before puberty
• Acromegaly: if hypersecretion occurs after puberty

628
Q

Name condition:
• High linear growth due to excessive action of insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) while the epiphyseal growth plates are open during childhood
• Very tall, very long legs, and arms

A

Acromegaly/Gigantism (growth hormone producing adenoma)

• Other symptoms include: diabetes, hypertension, heart failure, increased blood pressure, arthritis, osteoporosis, large jaw & hands, etc.

629
Q

Excessive action of insulin growth factor - I (IGF-I) is related to…

A

Acromegaly or gigantism

630
Q

Physical features of acromegaly

A
  • Enlarged hands, feet, tongue
  • Enlarged liver, heart, kidney, spleen, and other organs
  • Coarsened, enlarged facial features
  • Increased chest size (barrel chest)
  • Impaired vision
  • Headaches
  • Menstrual cycle irregularities in women
  • Erectile dysfunction in men
631
Q

What are non-functioning adenomas (null cell adenoma)?

A
  • Do not function and so do not secrete hormone (25-30% of patients)
  • May grow to a large size before they are detected (mass effect)
  • Patient can experience: visual deficits, hormone deficiency
632
Q

Hypopituitarism symptoms occur only when there is a loss of greater than __% of ________ pituitary

A

75%, anterior pituitary

633
Q

Acquired causes of hypopituitary

A
  1. Nonsecretory pituitary adenoma
  2. Ischemic necrosis, e.g. postpartum
  3. Iatrogenic by radiation or surgery
  4. Autoimmune (lymphocytic) hypophysitis
  5. Inflammatory e.g. sarcoidosis or TB…
634
Q

T/F: Hypopituitarism can be congenital or acquired

A

True

635
Q

Symptoms of _______ include dwarfism & effect of individual hormone deficiencies. Ex: Loss of MSH —> decreased pigmentation

A

Hypopituitarism

636
Q

Medical condition in which the pituitary gland does not produce enough growth hormones

A

Pituitary dwarfism

637
Q

Height of the affected individuals who have pituitary dwarfism

A

2’8” to 4’8”

638
Q

Histologic appearance of posterior pituitary

A

Modified glial cells (pituicytes) and axonal process

639
Q

Posterior pituitary syndromes include…

A
  • Abnormal oxytocin secretion
  • ADH deficiency
  • ADH hypersecretion
640
Q

Effects of abnormal oxytocin secretion…

A

Abnormalities of synthesis & release have NOT been associated with an significant abnormality

641
Q

ADH deficiency causes…

A

Diabetes insipidus:

• excessive urination, dilute urine, due to inability to reabsorb water from the collecting tubules

642
Q

Secretion of inappropriately high level of ADH secretion (SIADH-syndrome of inappropriate ADH) causes…

A

Excessive resorption of water –> hyponatremia:

• So much water in the blood results in a low sodium concentration

643
Q

Which lobe of the pituitary is most commonly affected in metastic tumors…

A
  • Posterior lobe mostly affected
  • Anterior lobe rarely affected

• Metastic tumor comes from breast, lung, GI tract

644
Q

What is a benign, slow growing tumor, that is derived from remnants of Rathke’s pouch? It can be suprasellar or intrasella, often presenting with cystic calcification.

A

Craniopharyngioma

645
Q

Age range of patients most commonly affected by craniopharyngioma, and the symptoms they experience.

A
  • Children or adolescents most affected

* Symptoms of hypofunction or hyperfunction of pituitary and/or visual disturbances, diabetes insipidus.

646
Q

Stellate reticulum and wet keratin are prominent features

A

Craniopharyngioma

647
Q

Gross appearance: low grade circumscribed epithelial tumor, partly cystic and calcified mass.

A

Craniopharyngioma

648
Q

Histological appearance showing squamoid and columnar epithelium lining cystic spaces filled with oily fluid…

A

Craniopharyngioma

649
Q

Most common cause of hyperpituitarism is…

A

An anterior lobe pituitary adenoma

650
Q

Two distinctive morphologic features of most (pituitary) adenomas are…

A
  • Absence of reticulin network

* Cellular monomorphism

651
Q

Function and location of adrenal glands.

A
  • Pair of endocrine glands just above the kidney

* They secrete steroids from cortex and catecholamines from medulla.

652
Q

Layers of the adrenal cortex

A
  1. Zona glomerulosa –> mineralcorticoids (aldosterone) – SALT
  2. Zona fasiculata –> glucocorticoids (cortisol) – SUGAR
  3. Zona reticularis –> estrogens & androgens – SEX
653
Q

What does the zona glomerulosa secrete?

A

• Mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) –> SALT

654
Q

What does the zona fasiculata secrete?

A

• Glucocorticoids (cortisol) – SUGAR

655
Q

What does the zona reticularis secrete?

A

• Estrogens and androgens – SEX

656
Q

Syndromes associated with adrenal cortical hyperfunction:

A
  1. Cushing’s syndrome (excess of cortisol)
  2. Hyperaldosteronism
  3. Adrenogenital or virilizing syndrome (excess of androgen)
657
Q

Elevation of cortisol level

A

Cushing’s syndrome

Recall: zona fasiculata –> glucocorticoids (cortisol) –> sugar

658
Q

Most common exogenous cause of hypercortisolism (elevation of cortisol level, aka Cushing’ Syndrome)

A

Steroid therapy

659
Q

Most common endogenous cause of hypercortisolism (elevation of cortisol level – Cushing’ Syndrome)

A

Pituitary Cushing Syndrome - hypersecretion of ACTH (70%)

Other endogenous causes include:
• Ectopic secretion of ACTH by non-pituitary neoplasm (10%)
• Primary adrenocortical neoplasm and rarely hyperplasia (15-20%)

660
Q

What’s Pituitary Cushing Syndrome?

A
  • Tumor in anterior pituitary secretes too much ACTH

* Causes cortex to thicken (hyperplasia) and results in excess cortisol secretion

661
Q

What’s Adrenal Cushing Syndrome?

A

Adenocortical adenoma or hyperplasia increases cortisol level.

662
Q

What is Paraneoplastic Cushing Syndrome?

A
  • Neuroendocrine carcinoma of lung (or other nonendrocrine cancer) can secrete ACTH
  • Results in hyperplasia and excess cortisol
  • Most common site of these paraneoplasms is lung
663
Q

What is Iatrogenic Cushing Syndrome?

A

Taking a lot of steroids causes adrenal ATROPHY and elevated cortisol.

664
Q

Clinical features of Cushing Syndrome

A
  • Central obesity (85-90%)
  • Moon face (85%)
  • Weakness and fatigability (85%)
  • Hirsutism (abnormal hair growth, esp. in women) (75%)
  • Hypertension (75%)
  • Glucose intolerance/diabetes (75%)
  • Osteoporosis (75%)
  • Menstrual abnormalities (70%)
  • Cutaneous striae (50%)
665
Q

What happens in hyperaldosteronism?

A

Increase in aldosterone causes sodium retention and potassium excretion, increased blood pressure, hypokalemia

666
Q

What is primary hyperaldosteronism?

A
  • Adrenal gland hypersecretes aldosterone

* distinguished by decreased plasma renin

667
Q

Potential causes for primary hyperaldosteronism?

A
  • Nodular hyperplasia (60%)
  • Neoplasm (35%)
  • Rarely familial
668
Q

What is secondary hyperaldosteronism?

A
  • Hypersecretion is caused by something outside the adrenal gland
  • Distinguished by increased plasma renin
669
Q

Potential causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism

A
  • Decreased renal perfusion
  • Arterial hypovolemia and edema
  • Pregnancy
670
Q

What is virilizing syndromes?

A
  • Overproduction of sex hormones in the zona reticularis, the innermost layer
  • Virilization, precocious puberty, ambiguous genitalia
  • Neoplasms can occur at any age, frequently malignant
671
Q

Patients who have this syndrome have increased risk for acute adrenocortical insufficiency

A

Virilizing syndromes

672
Q

Causes of virilizing syndromes

A
  • Primary gonadal disorders
  • Adrenocortical neoplasms
  • Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
673
Q

Gross appearance of adrenal cortical tumors.

A
• Encapsulated, solitary, usually yellow
• Size variable
• Can be nonfunctioning or functioning
• Can be benign or malignant:
     - Malignant tumors with necrosis, hemorrhage (>= 300 g)
674
Q

How to tell if an adrenal cortical tumor is malignant or benign…

A

Local invasion, & the presence of metastases differentiate benign from malignant tumors

675
Q

Histology of this type of tumor shows:
• Capsulated tumor with uniform or slightly pleomorphic cells, may be eosinophilic or clear cell type
• Spironolactone bodies [DIAGNOSTIC]

A

Adrenal cortical adenoma

• If tumor is mineralocorticoid, you will see spironolactone bodies (in hyperaldosteronism)

676
Q

How does an adrenal cortical carcinoma differ from an adenoma?

A
  • Larger than adenoma

* Non-capsulated with nuclear pleomorphism, mitoses, and necrosis

677
Q

When acute adrenocortical insufficiency is caused by infection it is called…

A

Waterhouse-Frederickson syndrome

678
Q

Causes of acute adrenocortical insufficiency

A
  1. Massive adrenal hemorrhage as in anticoagulant therapy, DIC, sepsis by N. meningitidis, pseudomonas
  2. Sudden withdrawal of steroid therapy
  3. Stress in a patient with underlying chronic insufficiency
679
Q

Causes of chronic (Addison’s disease) adrenocortical insufficiency

A
  1. Autoimmune disorder: 75-90%, may be sporadic
  2. Infections, e.g. Tuberculosis, fungi (AIDS)
  3. Metastatic tumors destroying adrenal, e.g. lung, breast, … others
680
Q

What is chronic adrenocortical insufficiency (Addison’s disease)?

A

Progressive destruction of the adrenal

681
Q

What cells make up the adrenal medulla, and what does it secrete?

A

Composed of Chromaffin cells secreting catecholamines.

682
Q

Adrenal medulla are derived from…

A
  • Neural crest

* Part of sympathetic system

683
Q

Diseases of the adrenal medulla…

A

Mainly tumors:
• Pheochromocytoma
• Neuroblastoma

684
Q

Neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal glands, secretes excessive amounts of adrenaline and noradrenaline

A

Pheochromocytoma

685
Q

Diagnosis of pheochromocytoma…

A

Increased urinary excretion of free catecholamine and their metabolites (VMA and metanephrins)

686
Q

Three familial syndromes that predisposes to catecholamine secreting tumors like Pheochromocytoma…

A
  • MEN2
  • Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)
  • von Hippel-Lindau syndrome (VHL)
687
Q

Where does Pheochromocytoma originate…

A

Originates from the chromaffin cells along the paravertebral SYMPATHETIC CHAIN extending from pelvis to base of skull…
• >95% are abdominal
• >90% in adrenal medulla

688
Q

Pheochromocytoma “rule of 10”

A
  • 10% extra-adrenal (closer to 15%)
  • 10% occur in children
  • 10% familial (closer to 20%)
  • 10% bilateral or multiple (more if familial)
  • 10% recur (more if extra-adrenal)
  • 10% malignant
  • 10% discovered incidentally
689
Q

Pheochromocytoma, signs & symptoms, the five P’s

A
  • Pressure (HTN) 9%
  • Pain (headache) 80%
  • Perspiration 71%
  • Palpitation 64%
  • Pallor 42%
  • Paroxysms (the sixth P!): symptoms come and go
690
Q

Classical triad for pheochromocytoma

A
  • Pain (headache), perspiration, palpitations

* Lack of all 3 virtually excluded diagnosis of pheo in a series of > 21,000 patients

691
Q

Zellballen (small nests or alveolar pattern), trabecular or solid patterns of polygonal/spindle shaped cells in rich vascular network is the histologic appearance of…

A

Pheochromocytoma (adrenal medulla tumor)

692
Q

Benign vs malignant pheochromocytoma

A
  • May have mitoses and marked pleomorphism
  • Capsular and vascular invasion common in benign behaving tumor
  • Definitive Dx of malignancy - presence of metastasis
693
Q

Second most common solid childhood neoplasm, after CNS tumors…

A

Neuroblastoma

694
Q

Treatment for neuroblastoma…

A
  • Surgery
  • Radiation therapy
  • Chemotherapy
695
Q

Adrenal medulla tumor associated with the deletion of short arm of chromosome 1…

A

Neuroblastoma

696
Q

Some differentiate into ganglioneuroblastoma and spontaneously regress…

A

Neuroblastoma

697
Q

What helps in the diagnosis of neuroblastoma?

A

VMA excreted in 24 hr. urine helpful in diagnosis

698
Q

Small round blue cell tumor with rosettes indicates…

A

Neuroblastoma

Add’l info:
• Large mass with necrosis
• Areas of necrosis and calcification

699
Q

What is MEN Syndrome?

A
  • Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Syndrome
  • Inherited diseases resulting in hyperplasia, adenomas, and carcinomas
  • Younger age
  • Multiple endocrine involvement (synchronous or metachronous)
  • Asymptomatic stage of endocrine hyperplasia
  • More aggressive and recur
700
Q

Which organ secretes insulin?

A

Pancreas

701
Q

This hormone reduces the level of sugar (glucose) in the blood…

A
  • Insulin

* Secreted by the pancreas

702
Q

Parts of the pancreas…

A

Head, neck, body and tail

703
Q

Location of the pancreas

A
  • Retroperitoneum, 2nd lumbar vertebral level

* Extends in an oblique, transverse position

704
Q

Gland with both exocrine and endocrine function

A

Pancreas

705
Q

Blood sugar and health…

A
  • Sugar (glucose) is an important source of energy
  • What is eaten is absorbed into the blood
  • Insulin is produced by the pancreas when blood sugar is high
  • Insulin keeps blood sugar level within the normal range for health
706
Q

Different cells within the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas

A
  • beta cells –> insulin
  • alpha cells –> glucagon
  • delta cells –> somatostatin
  • pancreatic polypeptide (PP) –> VIP
707
Q

Which hormone does the alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas secrete?

A
  • Glucagon

* Effect: glucose synthesis & glycogen breakdown in the liver –> increases blood glucose concentration

708
Q

Which hormone do beta cells of the pancreas secrete?

A
  • Insulin

* Effect: stimulation of lipids & glycogen storage & formation –> decreases blood glucose concentration

709
Q

Which hormone do delta cells of the pancreas secrete?

A
  • Somatostatin

* Effect: inhibits secretion of insulin & glucagon

710
Q

Islet cell diseases include..

A
  • Diabetes

* Islet cell tumors

711
Q

Normal blood glucose level

A

Homeostasis –> about 90 mg/100 mL

712
Q

How insulin and glucagon function…

A

Stimulus: rising blood glucose level (e.g. after eating a carbohydrate rich meal) –> high blood glucose level –> beta cells of the pancreas stimulated to release insulin into the blood –>
• liver takes up glucose and stores it as glycogen
• body cells take up more glucose
–> blood glucose level decline to a set point; stimulus for insulin release diminishes

Stimulus: declining blood glucose level (e.g. after skipping a meal) –> alpha cells of pancreas stimulated to release glucagon into the blood –> liver breaks down glycogen and releases glucose to the blood –> blood glucose level rise to set point; stimulus for glucagon release diminishes

713
Q

Where is glycogen stored?

A
  • Glycogen = store of glucose

* Stored in the liver

714
Q

Leading cause of end stage liver disease, adult-onset blindness, and non-traumatic lower extremity amputation in the US.

A

Diabetes Mellitus

715
Q

What is diabetes mellitus?

A
  • Metabolic disorders
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Defects in insulin secretion, insulin action, or most commonly, both
  • Affects multiple organ systems: kidneys, eyes, nerves, blood vessels
  • Affects over 20 million in adults and children
716
Q

Diabetes classification

A

• Causes could be primary in the pancreas, or secondary to other disease conditions
• Primary diabetes is classified into:
A- Type 1 (approximately 10%)
B- Type 2 (approximately 90%)
C- Genetic & miscellaneous causes
• Whatever the type, complications are the same.

717
Q

Type 1 Diabetes

A
  • Develops in childhood
  • Autoimmune destruction of islet cells
  • Heavy lymphocytic (CD4, CD8) infiltrates appear in and around islets (insulitis)
  • The islets of Langerhans are destroyed (>90% of beta cells lost before metabolic changes appear)
  • 3P’s: polyuria (excessive urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), polyphagia (excess hunger)
  • Metabolic acidosis, weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance
718
Q

In which type of diabetes is ketoacidosis common?

A
  • Ketoacidosis is common in type 1

* In type 2 ketoacidosis is rare

719
Q

Which type of diabetes develops in childhood and involves the autoimmune destruction of islet cells?

A

Type 1

720
Q

Type 2 diabetes

A
  • Age > 30 years, often present incidentally
  • Sedentary life style and overwight
  • Insulin resistance & beta cells dysfunction, resulting in relative insulin deficiency
  • Fibrosis and deposition of amylin polypeptide within islets
  • 3 P’s +/- symptoms of complications
  • Rare ketoacidosis
721
Q

Which type of diabetes involves insulin resistance & beta cells dysfunction, resulting in relative insulin deficiency…

A

Type 2

722
Q

Secondary miscellaneous causes of diabetes…

A
  • Diseases of exocrine pancreas (e.g. chronic pancreatitis)
  • Endocrinopathies (e.g. Cushing’s Syndrome, Acromegaly)
  • Infections (e.g. CMV)
  • Drugs (e.g. glucocorticoids)
  • Gestational diabetes
723
Q

Common differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes

A

Type 1
• Often diagnosed in childhood
• Not associated with excess body weight
• Often associated with higher than normal ketone levels at diagnosis
• Treated with insulin injections or insulin pump
• Cannot be controlled without taking insulin

Type 2
• Usually diagnosed in over 30 year olds
• Often associated with excess body weight
• Often associated with high blood pressure and/or cholesterol levels at diagnosis
• Is usually treated initially without medication or with tablets
• Sometimes possible to come off diabetes medication

724
Q

Laboratory diagnosis for diabetes

A
  • Random glucose >/= 200 g/dL + symptoms
  • Fasting glucose >/= 126 g/dL on more than one occasion
  • Abnormal oral glucose tolerance test when glucose level is more than 200 g/dL 2 hours after standard glucose load of 75g.
725
Q

What is glycosylated hemoglobin, HbA1c?

A
  • Blood test that measures the amount of glucose that has been incorporated into the hemoglobin protein of the red blood cell (RBC).
  • HbA1c levels remain more stable than sugar levels.
  • Not affected by short-term fluctuations in sugar
  • Normal is 4-6%
  • Evaluated periodically (1-2 per year)
726
Q

Normal HbA1c

A

4-6% is normal

727
Q

A1C% of 6.5 or above corresponds with…

A
  • Diabetes
  • Fasting glucose 126 mg/dL or above
  • Oral glucose tolerance test 200 mg/dL or above
728
Q

A1C% of 5.7 to 6.4 corresponds with…

A
  • Prediabetes
  • Fasting plasma glucose of 100 to 125 mg/dL
  • Oral tolerance test of 144-199 mg/dL
729
Q

A1C% of about 5 corresponds with…

A
  • Normal (not diabetes)
  • Fasting glucose of 99 mg/dL or below
  • Oral glucose tolerance test 139 mg/dL or below
730
Q

Renal complications associate with diabetes

A
  • Both nodular (Kimmelstiel - Wilson lesion) and diffuse glomerulosclerosis
  • Chronic renal failure
  • Infections - pyelonephritis (bacterial and fungal infections)
731
Q

Ocular complications associated with diabetes

A
  • diabetic retinopathy (one of the leading causes for irreversible blindness) in the United States
  • cataract
  • glaucoma
  • blindness
732
Q

What is one of the leading causes for irreversible blindness in the US?

A

Diabetic retinopathy

733
Q

What is cataracts?

A
  • Complication from diabetes

* Protein deposits cloud the lens

734
Q

What is retinopathy?

A
  • Complication of diabetes

* Exudate from blood vessels on retina

735
Q

What is glaucoma?

A
  • Complication of diabetes

* Increased intraocular pressure, which can lead to blindness

736
Q

What’s a vascular complication of diabetes?

A

Atherosclerosis:
• Early and accelerated atherosclerosis
• Hypertension
• Heart disease, cerebrovascular disease, and renal disease
• The most common cause of death - myocardial infarction
• Peripheral vascular disease
• Diabetic neuropathy, leading to propensity for injury

737
Q

What’s the most common cause of death?

A

Myocardial infarction

738
Q

Treatment for diabetes mellitus type 1

A

Insulin administration

739
Q

Treatment for diabetes type 2

A
  • Diet and exercise
  • Oral hypoglycemics
  • Insulin
740
Q

What are pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (PanNETs)?

A
  • AKA islet cell tumors
  • 2% of all pancreatic neoplasms
  • Common in adults, and in the body/tail of the pancreas where there are more islet cells
  • Single or multifocal
  • Functional (excessive hormone production) and nonfunctional (without hormone production) larger
  • Slow growing, metastases to nodes, liver, bone
  • 80% occur in MEN1 patients
741
Q

Most common type of pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor

A

Insulinomas are the most common, followed by gastrinomas

742
Q

Types of islet cell tumors

A
  • Insulinoma - beta cells
  • Gastrinoma - delta cells
  • Somasostatinoma - delta cells
  • Glucagonoma - alpha cells
  • VIPoma - delta cells
  • Nonfunctional
743
Q

Which type of islet tumor cells affects beta cells?

A

Insulinoma

744
Q

Which type of islet cell tumor affects delta cells?

A
  • Gastrinoma
  • VIPoma
  • Somasostatinoma
745
Q

Which type of islet cell tumor affects alpha cells?

A

Glucagonoma

746
Q

Islet cell tumor histology

A
  • Solid, gyriform, trabecular and grandular patterns
  • Nests of polygonal cells with moderate to abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm
  • Amyloid is produced by insulin-secreting tumors (from amylin or somatostatin)
747
Q

Important neuroendocrine markers for islet tumor cells

A
  • Synaptophysin
  • Chromogranin

Electron microscopy reveals dense core granules

748
Q

WHO grading system

A

• Low grade (G1): if 20 mitoses

749
Q

Treatment for insulinoma

A

90% cured by resection

750
Q

Symptoms of insulinoma…

A
  • Hypoglycemia </= 50 mg/dL

* Attack precipitated by fasting or exercise, relieved by eating or glucose administration

751
Q

Lab findings for insulinoma…

A
  • Decreased serum glucose

* Increased serum insulin

752
Q

Are insulinomas mostly benign or malignant?

A
  • Majority are benign, 10% can be malignant

* Most tumors solitary (< 2cm), can be multiple.

753
Q

Which islet cell tumor is “histologically bland”?

A

Gastrinoma

754
Q

Are gastrinomas mostly benign or malignant?

A

2/3 of cases malignant

755
Q

Lab findings for gastrinoma…

A

Marked elevation of serum gastrin (>1000 pg/ml)

756
Q

Which islet cell tumor presents with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A
  • Gastrinoma
  • Triad: hypersecretion of gastric acid, severe peptic ulceration, presence of non-beta cell tumor of the pancreas or duodenum
  • May also be associated with MEN1
757
Q

Treatment for gastrinoma…

A

Medical therapy for control of the acid hypersecretion

758
Q

Nonfunctional islet cell tumors

A
  • 25% of islet cell tumors
  • 90% malignant
  • Age 50 year, female predominance
  • Compression related symptoms
  • Treatment - surgery
759
Q

Layers of our head, from the outside to inside…

A
  1. Skin
  2. Bone
    a. Epidural space (potential space if pathology occurs)
  3. Dura mater (attached to bone)
    a. Subdural space
  4. Arachnoid mater
    a. Subarachnoid space
  5. Pia mater
  6. Brain (with specialized blood vessels that prevent many substances from entering brain)
760
Q

Which cells of the CNS are derived from neuroectoderm?

A
  • Oligodendrocytes
  • Neurons (nerve cells)
  • Ependymal cells
  • Astrocytes
761
Q

Which cells of the CNS are derived from mesoderm?

A
  • Microglial cells

* Endothelial cells

762
Q

What makes up the meninges?

A
  • Dura
  • Arachnoid
  • Pia mater
763
Q

What are the longest cells of the body?

A

Motor neurons

764
Q

Which neurons are most susceptible to hypoxia?

A
  • Most susceptible: pyramidal neurons of Sommer’s Sector (CA1) of hippocampus
  • Also highly susceptible: Purkinje cells of cerebellum
  • Also susceptible: pyramidal neurons in middle layers (III, IV, V) of cerebral cortex, neurons in basal ganglia
765
Q

Which neurons are relatively resistant to hypoxia?

A

Neurons in brainstem and cerebellum.

766
Q

What do oligodendrocytes produce?

A
  • Myelin

* Help transmit electrical impulses and supports axons.

767
Q

Shape of microglial cells.

A
  • Rod-shaped cells

* Enlarge in a disease state

768
Q

Purpose of Ricinus communis agglutinin 1 (RCA-1)

A

Highlights microglial cells that are at rest

769
Q

What are microglial nodules?

A

Clusters that form in viral diseases as a defense mechanism. This is a hallmark of viral infections of the CNS.

770
Q

Hallmark of viral infections in the CNS.

A

Microglial nodules

771
Q

Two components of the blood brain barrier, separated by a basement membrane…

A
  • Capillary endothelial cells

* Foot processes of astrocytes

772
Q

Disruption of the blood brain barrier causes…

A

Vasogenic edema

773
Q

Appearance of endothelial cells…

A
  • Specialized
  • Reduced numbers of pinocytotic vesicles
  • Many mitochondria
  • Tight junctions
774
Q

How do tumors cause edema in the brain?

A
  • They produce their own blood vessels

* New vasculature does not have a normal blood brain barrier –> edema –> headache or even seizure

775
Q

What is glioblastoma?

A
  • An aggressive tumor with dark area of hemorrhage and necrosis.
  • Edema around tumor causes a midline shift (impinges onto opposite hemisphere).