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Diagnostic imaging > Systemic Bone Disease > Flashcards

Systemic Bone Disease Flashcards

1
Q

<p>What are the three catagorys of systemic bone disease?</p>

A

<p>Metabolic, Nutritional, Endocrine</p>

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2
Q

<p>What does CATBITES stand for?</p>

A 
<p>Congenital 
ARthritis 
Trauma
Blood
Infection
Tumor
Endocrine
Soft Tissue</p>
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3
Q

<p>What Homrones and nutrients stimulate bone production?</p>

A 
<p>Growth Hormone
Thyroid hormone (T3, T4)
Calcitonin
Vit. D
Vit. C</p>
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4
Q

<p>What hormones inhibit bone production?</p>

A

<p>Parathyroid hormone

| Cortisol</p>

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5
Q

<p>What is the termfor an all encompassing definition for increased radiolucency of bone?</p>

A

<p>Osteopenia</p>

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6
Q

<p>What is the most common etiology of osteopenia?</p>

A

<p>osteoporosis</p>

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7
Q

<p>What are some other etiologies that can cause osteopenia?</p>

A 
<p>osteomalacia
hyperparathyroidism
Rickets
Scurvy
Neoplasm</p>
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8
Q

<p>T/F the finding of radiolucent on a bone on an x-ray is an automatic diagnosis of osteoporisis?</p>

A

<p>False</p>

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9
Q

<p>When bone resorption exceeds bone formation it is known as what? </p>

A

<p>osteopenia</p>

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10
Q

<p>What is done once osteopenia is discovered?</p>

A

<p> a search is done for more specific abnormalities </p>

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11
Q

<p>osteomalacia reveals linear radiolucenies called?</p>

A

<p>Looser's lines</p>

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12
Q

<p>HPT can produce subperiosteal and subchondral resorption and is normally found by what health care professional?</p>

A

<p>Dentsits</p>

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13
Q

<p>neoplasms such as plasma cell myeloma produce \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_</p>

A

<p>focal lesions</p>

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14
Q

<p>If there are reasons for decreased bone density other than osteoporosis then we use the term \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_</p>

A

<p>osteopenia</p>

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15
Q

<p>plain film is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to changes in bone mineral?</p>

A

<p>insensitive</p>

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16
Q

<p>What percentage of bone mass loss is needed before osteopenia can be diagnosed on a plain film?</p>

A

<p>30-50%</p>

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17
Q

<p>T/F Radiographic technique can widely alter the perception of whether or not osteopenia is present</p>

A

<p>True</p>

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18
Q

<p>In osteoporosis, bone is qualitatively \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_,nad quantitatively \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bone

a. normal; deficient
b. deficient; normal</p>

A

<p>a. </p>

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19
Q

<p>diagnosis of osteoporosis is made by the radiographic find of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ </p>

A

<p>osteopenia</p>

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20
Q

<p>At what age does bone mass begin to decrease?</p>

A

<p>35</p>

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21
Q

<p>bone mass decreases due to reduced \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ differentiation, activity and life span</p>

A

<p>osteoblastic </p>

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22
Q

<p>What is more active in osteoporosis?

a. osteoblasts
b. osteoclast</p>

A

<p>b</p>

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23
Q

<p>What are the two reasons that women get osteoporosis faster than men?</p>

A

<p>hormonal deprivation

| increased osteoclast activity</p>

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24
Q

<p>what is the most common type of bone fracture in osteoporosis?</p>

A

<p>compression bone fractures in the vertebrea </p>

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25
Q

<p>Chance of hip fracture for women increase at what rate?</p>

A

<p>double every five year after 60</p>

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26
Q

<p>What are the two classification systems of osteoporosis?</p>

A

<p>primary and secondary</p>

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27
Q

<p>What are the example of primary osteoporosis?</p>

A

<p>Senile osteoporosis
Postemenopausal osteoporosis
transient or regional osteoporosis</p>

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28
Q

<p>What are some examples of secondary osteoporosis?</p>

A 
<p>Corticosteroids
Malignancy
Infection
Arthritides
Disuse
RSD</p>
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29
Q

<p>Cushing's disease is an example of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ osteopenia</p>

A

<p>Endocrine</p>

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30
Q

<p>What percentage of the population will have osteoporosis after the age of 50?</p>

A

<p>55%</p>

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31
Q

<p>What is the mortality rate per year of osteoporosis?</p>

A

<p>10-20%</p>

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32
Q

<p>what percentage of patients will require long term nursing home care after a hip fracture?</p>

A

<p>25%</p>

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33
Q

<p>What is the best the way to diagnose for osteoporosis?</p>

A

<p>prior films of the patients </p>

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34
Q

<p>What color should the vertebrae be on a T1 MRI?

| If the patient has dark vertebrae?</p>

A

<p>White

it will be dark and an indicator of marrow replacement or possibly a tumor</p>

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35
Q

<p>the gradual loss of skeletal mass</p>

A

<p>Senile Osteoporosis</p>

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36
Q

<p>the increased bone loss seen in women following menopause </p>

A

<p>postmenopausal osteoporsis</p>

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37
Q

<p>the gradual loss of skeletal mass begins in women in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ decade</p>

A

<p>fourth</p>

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38
Q

<p>the gradual loss of skeletal mass begins in men in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_decade</p>

A

<p>fifth or sixth</p>

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39
Q

<p>What three things occur with senile/postmenopausal osteoporosis?</p>

A

<p>pain (due to microfractures)
loss of height/compression fracture
accentuated kyphosis (thoracics). </p>

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40
Q

<p>what are some risk factors for osteoporosis?

| </p>

A 
<p>Female
>70 years
Caucasian or Asian
Early onset of menopause
longer menopausal interval
Inactivity, lack of weight bearing activities</p>
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41
Q

<p>cortical thinning &quot;pencil thin&quot; is an indicator of what condition?</p>

A

<p>osteoporosis</p>

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42
Q

<p>resorption of nonstress bearing trabeculae is a sign of what condition?</p>

A

<p>osteoporosis</p>

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43
Q

<p>vertical lines an x ray is an indicator of what condition?</p>

A

<p>osteoporosis</p>

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44
Q

a codfist deformity might be seen in a patient with _________

A

osteoporosis

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45
Q

prominent trabeculation and thin cortex

are signs of what condition?

A

osteoporosis

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46
Q

What are some spine findings of osteoporosis?

A 
changes in vertebral contour
uniform decrease in
    radiodensity is noted
Endplate fractures/infarctions
Compression fractures
Pathologic fractures
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47
Q

What is the order of pathology in vertebrae shape?

A

step defect -> wedge deformity -> Biconcave vertebra -> pancake vertebra

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48
Q

if the compression exceeds 30% of the original body height or retropulsion is present or if neurologically compromised in the veretbra what is the suggested action?

A

take a CT scan

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49
Q

What are some reasons for doing a CT/MRI scan?

A

canal and neuroforaminbone marrow for differentiation between osteoporosis and pathologyal effacement
bone marrow for differentiation between osteoporosis and pathology

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50
Q

A loss of whiteness on an x ray is an indicator of what condition?

A

osteopenia

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51
Q

What are some radiographic manifestations of osteoporosis?

A 
radiolucency
altered trabecular pattern
cortical thinning 
Wedge shaped vertebrae
    fish vertebrae, codfish deformity
Schmorl's nodes
End plate infractions
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52
Q

What are some reasons for a pathological compression fracture?

A

Osteoporosis
Lytic metastasis
Multiple myeloma

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53
Q

What makes a pathological compression fracture (why is it pathologic?)

A

decrease in height of the entire body

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54
Q

A pathological compression fracture can be attributed to what reason in a child?

A

Eosinophilic granuloma

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55
Q

What is the three column method criteria for mechanical stability of the vertebra?

A

Fracture of column A or C is stable.

Column B is unstable.

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56
Q

What are some features of osteoporosis in an extremity?

A

thinned cortices (pencil thin)
endosteal scalloping
loss of the secondary trabeculae
risks of fractures

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57
Q

What makes up Ward’s triangle?

A

primary compressive band (1)
secondary compressive band (2)
primary tensile band (3)

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58
Q

an accentuated wieght bearing trabeculation is also known as what?

A

pseudo hemangioma

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59
Q

Radiolucency of Ward’s trangle is more prominent in what condition?

A

osteoporosis

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60
Q

What is the last compressive component to be involved in osteoporosis?

A

advanced osteoporosis

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61
Q

In what direction does tensile group regress from?

A

medial to lateral this opens Ward’s trangle laterally

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62
Q

What is a possible outcome of adjusting someone with with a thoracic adjustment who has osteoporosis?

A

rib fractures

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63
Q

What are some reasons for pathological generalized osteoporosis/osteopenia?

A 
plasma cell (multiple) myeloma
metastasis
anemia
nutritional deficiencies
diabetes mellitus
immunodeficiency states
chronic liver disease.
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64
Q

What test is performed to evaluate for osteoporosis?

A

DEXA scan

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65
Q

What does a DEXA scan measure for?

A

calcium content in the bones, this measure the bone mineral density

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66
Q

What is the term for the number of standard deviation from a young adult normals?

A

T-score

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67
Q

What does a T score predict?

A

predicts fracture risk

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68
Q

for every 1 standard deviation of a T score what is the increase in the chances of a fracture?

A

the risk doubles

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69
Q

What are some recommendations for the prevention of osteoporosis?

A 
Stay active and get plenty of exercise
supplement calcium protein and Vat C
Don't smoke
Don't drink excessively 
estrogen supplementation following menopause
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70
Q

What are some causes regional osteoporosis?

A

Immobilization and disuse
Reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome
Transient regional osteoporosis

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71
Q

Disuse osteoporosis inhibits _________ activity

a. osteoclast
b. osteoblast

A

b

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72
Q

What are some causes for disuse osteoporosis?

A

immobilized, paralysis, inflammatory joint ds

extremity injury

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73
Q

What is seen throughout the disused body part in a disuse osteoporotic patient?

A

diffuse osteopenia

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74
Q

What will be seen on an x-ray of a patient that suffered an extremity injury due to disuse osteoporosis?

A
  • diffuse osteopenia seen throughout the disused body part
  • lucent bands of osteopenia may be seen just proximal to the physeal line
  • subchondral lucency
  • uniform or spotty demineralization
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75
Q

What condition has clinical features of intense, burning pain, tactile stimulaion is painful, swelling, vasomotor disturbances, trophic skin changes including skin strophy and pigmentation abnormalities?

A

Reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome

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76
Q

What condition is characterized by acute pain, regional osteoporosis following trivial trauma?

A

Reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome

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77
Q

where does Reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome normally occur?

A

Hand

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78
Q

RSD has reflex hyperactivity of the _______

A

SNS

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79
Q

T/F imaging for reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome is specific enough to diagnose for it?

A

False, need clinical information

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80
Q

What is the age group for those with TOH?

A

middle aged adults 20-40

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81
Q

TOH is more common in what gender?

A

men

82
Q

TOH in men is generally…

a. unilateral
b. bilateral

A

b

83
Q

TOH in women most likely involves what hip?

A

left

84
Q

Diffused bone marrow edema on MRI is

a. decreased on T1, increased T2
b. increased on T1, decreased T2

A

a

85
Q

Osteomalacia is altered bone ________

a. quality
b. quantity

A

a

86
Q

There is abnorall high ratio of __________ to mineralized bone in osteomalacia

A

osteoid

87
Q

What are the two major causes of osteomalacia?

A
  1. vitamin D metabolis
    2, renal tubular phosphate loss
    • X- linken hypophosphatemia rickets
    • Fanconi’s syndrome
88
Q

where is Vit. D metabolized?

It is then hydroxylated in the kidney to form what?

A

Hydroxylated in the liver to form 25 OH

1,25 OH2 D

89
Q

Radiography of osteomalacia is _______

a. specific
b. nonspecific

A

b

90
Q

RAdiograph of osteomalacia will see _________ trabeculation

A

Coarsened

91
Q

What is the best diagnostic procedure for osteomalacia?

A

bone biopsy

92
Q

Looser’s lines are present with ostemalacia. These linear regions of unmineralized osteoid are usually _________ and ________ at right angles to the bone.

a. Unilateral; symmetric
b. Unilateral; Asymmetric
c. Bilateral; symmetric
d. Bilateral; asymetric

A

c

93
Q

What are three vitamins/minerals that are deficient in rickets?

A

Vit D, calcium, or phosphate

94
Q

Soft tissue swelling around growth plates due to hypertrophied cartilage is known as what?

A

Rickets

95
Q

There is ___________ alkaline phosphatase in Rickets

a. elevated
b. diminished

A

a

96
Q

What are some causes of Rickets?

A

inadequate vit D intake, Inadequate UV radiation, malabsorption, chronic acidosis, renal tubular defects, anticonvulsants

97
Q

What is the treatment for rickets?

A

Vit D supplements and sunlight

98
Q

Findings for rickets is most prominently in _________ growing bones in the body?
What bones?

A

fastest

costochondral junctions of the middle ribs, distal femur, the proximal humerus, both ends of the tibia, distal ulna and radius

99
Q

Cupping of the weakneded bone at the junction of the metaphysis and physis is seen in what condition?

A

Rickets

100
Q

What is the feature and condition that is characterized by cartilage overgrowth and metaphysealsplaying at the costochondral junction of the ribs

A

Rachitic rosary

rickets

101
Q

wide, frayed, irregular metaphysis, lack of zone of provisional calcification and coarsened trabeculation is a sign of what condition?

A

Rickets

102
Q

A Paintbrush metaphysis is most commonly seen in what condition?

A

Rickets

103
Q

Scurvy is also known as what?

A

Barlow’s disease

104
Q

What population is most commonly affected by scurvy?

How long does it take to occur?

A

8-14 month infants fed on pasteurized or boiled milk

4 months of avitaminosis

105
Q

Cutaneous petechiae, bleeding gums, hematuria, joint swelling, and laying in the frog leg position is most common of what condition?

A

Scurvy

106
Q

What condition is often mistaken for child abuse?

A

Scuvy

107
Q

What condition has low serum ascorbic acid levels?

A

Scurvy

108
Q

Vitamin C is essential for the formation of what substances?

A

Collagen, osteoid, endothelial linings

109
Q

What condition has beak-like metaphyseal outgrowths that extend at right angles to the shaft of the vertebra?

A

Pelken’s spurs

110
Q

Radiodense sclerosis around epiphysis, and radiolucent centrally is an indicator of what condition?
What is it known as?

A

Scurvy

Wimberger’s sign

111
Q

A rediolucent band tha tmay be visible directly beneath zone of provisional calcification (disorganized osteoid) is known as what?
It is most likely seen in what condition?

A

Trummerfeld’s zone

Scurvy

112
Q

PTH is a strong ___________ hormone

a. osteoblastic
b. osteoclastic

A

osteoclastic

113
Q

What is the cause of primary HPT?

A

Parathyroid gland adenoma 90% of the time

114
Q

What is the cause of secondary HPT?

A

Chronic renal disease

115
Q

What is the cause of tertiary HPT?

It is also known as?

A

Hemodialysis

Renal osteodystrophy

116
Q

What is the most common type of HPT?

a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary

A

a

117
Q

What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia?

A

Primary HPT

118
Q

A persistent loss of calcium and phosphorus will stimulation what type of HPT?

a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary

A

b

119
Q

What HPT is seen in dialysis patients, parathryoid gland acts __________ of serum calcium levels

a. dependent
b. independent

A

b

120
Q

T/F Radiographic DDx of types of PTH is difficult

A

True

121
Q

What age group and gender most commonly have HPT?

A

30-50

women

122
Q

Hypercalcemia leads to what other condition?

What is a condition that HYpercalcemia cancome from?

A

muscle weakness, hypotonia

HPT

123
Q

Hypercalcemia in __________ PTH, normal to low calcium levels in __________

a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
* two answers

A

A, B

124
Q

HPT will have elevated levels of what enzyme and hormone?

A

alkaline phosphatase and PTH

125
Q

stones, bones, abdominal groans and psychiatric moans has to do with what condition?

what does each of them mean?

A

HPT

renal stones, peptic ulcers, pancreatitis, confusion, lethargy, weakness

126
Q

What is the main function of parathormone physiology?

A

maintain circulating levels of calcium ion

127
Q

Parathyroid hormone stimulates…

a. osteoclasts
b. osteoblasts

A

a

128
Q

Parathormone increase calcium absorption through _________________

A

intestines

129
Q

The presence of a brown tumor on an x-ray is most likely a manifestation of what disease?

A

HPT, it is the accumulation of fibrous tissue

130
Q

What is the most definitive radiographic sign of HPT?

A

Subperiosteal resorption

131
Q

Where does subperiosteal resorption normally occur?

A

radial margins, middle and proximal phalanges of the 2nd and 3rd digits

132
Q

widened joint spaces adnn osteolysis esp at the AC and SI joint is a sign of what condition?

A

Subperiosteal resorption which is a radiographic sign for HPT

133
Q

outer cortical erosion that appears frayed or lace like is a radiographic sign of what?

A

Subperiosteal resorption which is a radiographic sign for HPT

134
Q

Ungal tuft resorption is a radiographic feature of what condition?

A

HPT

135
Q

Resorption of the distal clavicale is a sign of what condition?

A

HPT

136
Q

Rugger jersey spine would be seen in what condition?

A

HPT

137
Q

What is another name for osteosclerosis and what condition is it normally seen in?

A

Rugger jersey spine

HPT

138
Q

How would sub-endplate sclerosis be seen on an x-ray?

A

rugger jersey spine

139
Q

Wide SI joints is consistent with what condition?

A

Subchondral resorption/HPT

140
Q

The_________from the hemorrhage produces the grossly brown color found in a brown tumor

A

hemosiderine

141
Q

Geographic lytic lesion containing osteoclasts and mononuclear cells and fibroblasts with focal hemorrhages.

A

Brown tumor

142
Q

What is another name for a brown tumor?

A

osteoclastoma

143
Q

A radiographic sign of a salt and pepper skull would be indicative of what condition/

A

HPT

144
Q

Waht is a bone disorder occurring when the kidneys fail to maintain proper lavels of calcium and phosphorus in the blood?

A

Renal osteodystrophy

145
Q

What population is affected by renal osteodystrophy?

A

patients on dialysis

146
Q

What are some causes of renal osteodytrophy?

A

HPT
Amyloid
Aluminum arthropathy

147
Q

Secondary HPT may be similar to what other condition?

A

osteopetrosis

148
Q

Pituitary tumors account for _____% of all neoplasms within the cranium

A

10%

149
Q

What percentage of the US population have small pituitary adenomas?

A

25%

150
Q

What are some symptoms of pituitary tumors?

A

Headaches
Visual disturbances
Generalized discomfort in the extremities

symptoms may vary depending on the type of tumor that is present

151
Q

An enlarged sella Turcica could be a sign of what?

A

Pituitary tumor

152
Q

The secretion of growth hormone by a pituitary adenoma in the adult produces what condition?

What two things does it produce?

A

Acromegaly

intramembranous bone tissue and subcutaneous hypertrophy

153
Q

Excessive growth hormone before growth centers close is manifest in what condition?

A

Gigantism

154
Q

A person with acromegaly or gigantism has a predisposition to _____________

A

DJD

155
Q

What conditoin has a radiographic feature of spade-like distal tufts of the extremities?

A

Acromegaly

156
Q

A prominent frontal sinus of ht eforehead might be a sign of what condition?

A

Acromegaly

157
Q

A progmatic jaw might be a radiographic feature of what condition?

A

Acromegaly

158
Q

Hypercortisolism is a condition that is caused by an increase in the production of ________ or by excessive use of it and other ____________

A

cortisol; steroid hormones

159
Q

Hypercortisolism can be caused byeither exogenous mean or __________

A

endogenous

160
Q

What condition is result of excessive glucocorticoid steroid release?

Glucocorticod steroids are released from what?

A

Cushing’s syndrome

adrenal cortex

161
Q

A patient that is obese, especially in the upper thorax and face “moon face” has what conditon?

A

Cushing’s syndrome

162
Q

The round face that comes with Cushing’s syndrome is known as what?

A

moon face

163
Q

The deposition of fat over the upper thoracic spine is known as what and is characteristic of what disease?

A

buffalo hump

Cushing’s Syndrome

164
Q

Purple striae on the abdomen, with vertebra and rib fractures are symptoms of what disease?

A

Cushin’s syndrome

165
Q

What kind of fracture is most likely to be seen in a patient with
Cushing’s syndrome?

A

compression fracture

166
Q

A compression fracture with excessive callus is a radiographic feature of what condition?

A

Cushing’s Syndrome

167
Q

Avascular necrosis and atherosclerotic plaquing would be seen in what condition?

A

Cushing’s Syndrome

168
Q

Wha tis the most common condition of congnital dwarfing skeletal dysplasia?

A

Achondroplasia

169
Q

Achondroplasia is marked by …
A. Hypochondroplasia
B Hyperchondroplasia

A

A

170
Q

T/F normal life expectancy and metal status is seen in people with achondroplasia?

A

True

171
Q

A patient with achondroplasia will have normal or near normal trunk length with marked ___________

A

Rhizomelic micromelia

172
Q

A champagne glass radiographic feature is characteristic of what condition?

A

Achondroplasia

173
Q

Fingers that are of approximately equal length and diverge from one another in two pairs plus the thumb is known as what and seen in what condition?’

A

Trident Hands

Achondroplasia

174
Q

Posterior body scalloping and short pedicles with narrowed interpediculate distance leading to a narrow, trefoil spinal canal is seen in what condition?

A

Achondroplasia

175
Q

A rounded “bullet” vertebrae will be seen in what condition?

A

Achondroplasia

176
Q

A flat vertebra that is seen in a patient with achondroplasia is known as what?

A

Platyspondyly

177
Q

A horizontal sacrum on an x-ray would be an indicator of what condition?

A

Achondroplasia

178
Q

What abnormality would be seen in a patient with achondroplasia in the thoracolumbar area of the spine?

A

Kyphosis

179
Q

A patient with Achondroplasia will have macrocephaly, fontal bossing, foramen magnum stenosis , and is assocated with __________ malformation?

A

Arnold-Chiari

180
Q

What kind of gait will be seen in a person with Achondroplasia?

A

Waddling gait

181
Q

Cleidocranial dysplasia would show a defect of _____________ bone growth

A

intramembranous

182
Q

What condition would you expect to see Pubic diastasis in?

A

Cleidocranial dysplasia

183
Q

an inverted “pear shape” of a skull with wormian bones would be characteristic of someone with what condition?

A

Cleidocranial dysplasia

184
Q

What would you expect to see with the clavicles of a patient with Cleidocranial dysplasia?

A

Hypoplasia or aplasia

185
Q

What would be your clinical diagnosis of a patient with generalized syplasia, below average height, large head, and drooping shoulders?

A

Cleidocranial dysplasia

186
Q

What condition would be characterized by a collagen disorder that fails to produce normal collagen, it is also a connective tissue disorder?

A

Marfan’s syndrome

187
Q

Scoliosis, acetabular protrusion, and pectus excavatum would be seen in what condition?

A

Marfan’s syndrome

188
Q

What condition of the fingers would lead you to a diagnosis of Marfan’s syndrome?

A

Archnodactyly

189
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta is an inherited disorder marked by abnormal type _____ collagen formation

A

I

190
Q

How many subtypes exist for Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

4

191
Q

What are four major clinical criteria for Osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

skeletal fragility
Blue sclera
Abnormal dentition
premature otosclerosis

192
Q

Osteopenia, bowed long bones, thin cortices, multiple fractures, and syphscoiosis would be indicators of what condition?

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

193
Q

What is the treatment for Osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

limiting deformity and injury

194
Q

T/F Osteogenesis imperfecta can be confused with child abuse

A

True

195
Q

Zebra stripes on an x-ray is associated with _____________ therapy, which is a therapy for Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Bisphosphate therapy

196
Q

What condition is known as brittle bone disease?

A

Osteopetrosis

197
Q

What is a group of entities, representing a type of sclerosing bone disease?

A

Osteopetrosis

198
Q

How is osteopetrosis normally acquired?

A

hereditary and familial

199
Q

Osteopetrosis is an abnormality of decreased ___________ activity

A

osteoclastic

200
Q

What are some radiographic images that may be seen in someone with osteopetrosis?

A 
Loss of medullary space
Pathological fractures
dense bones, thick cortices
hypoplasia of frontal sinuses
bone within a bone or endobone
sandwich vertebrae
Undertubulation of extremities resuling in an "Erlenmeyer flask" deformity
201
Q

Excessive white bone on an x-ray would be a sign of what condition?

A

osteopetrosis

Diagnostic imaging (2 decks)

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