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EMB 145 > System > Flashcards

System Flashcards

1
Q

Airplane Description: Length? Height? Wingspan?

A

Length 98ft. Height 22ft. 2in. Wingspan 65ft. 9in. (XR: 68ft. 11in.)

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2
Q

Airplane Description: Cabin Height? Number of rows? Emergency exit row?

A

Cabin Height 6ft. Number of rows 18 Exit row 12

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3
Q

How many vortex generators are on each wing?

A

12 groups of 9 and 3

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4
Q

Describe air stair door operation?

A

2 hydraulic actuators powered by system 1 or by accumulator allow the door to be raised or lowered. The accumulator has has the capacity for 4 door operating cycles. The operation can be controlled inside or outside through the entrance panel, through the exterior main door control panel, or manually by an outside ground attendant.

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5
Q

How many people allowed on the stairs?

A

3 person max.

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6
Q

What does door blocked mean?

A

Solenoid valve failure. The main door actuator line remained pressurized when the door was closed.

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7
Q

What do you do in the door becomes blocked?

A

There is an alternate opening valve located in the cockpit on the floor next the the FO’s center console, or an outside access panel on the right nose section that will depressurize the door close line and allow the door to be opened.

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8
Q

How many and location of access panels?

A

3 FWD electronics compartment (nose well) Under cockpit access hatch Rear electronics compartment

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9
Q

Type of emergency exits and doors?

A

Main door, Service door, Emergency exit window plug type hatches, Cockpit direct vision window

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10
Q

How will you know if a door or access hatch is open?

A

There will be an EICAS caution message on the doors section of the T/O page on the MFD.

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11
Q

What happens with the security door if the cockpit pressure is lower than cabin pressure?

A

The pressure sensitive latch releases allowing the decompression panel to partially open.

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12
Q

What does the crew awareness system do?

A

If provides a variety of visual, aural, and sensitive warnings to notify the crew regarding system status, malfunctions, and abnormal aircraft configurations.

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13
Q

What do the DAU’s do?

A

They are the central data collection points for the EICAS. DAU 1 collects data from the forward aircraft systems and engine 1. DAU 2 collects data from the aft aircraft systems and engine 2. Engine data is sent through the FADEC and directly from engine sensors. They convert the data to a digital signal and send it to the IC-600’s. The DAU’s are multi-channel. Channel A is primary and B is for backup.

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14
Q

How do you select channel B on a DAU?

A

Manually through the DAU reversionary panel.

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15
Q

What is the IC-600’s function?

A

Take data from the DAU’s and other aircraft computers and process the data. They interact with each other and send outputs to the Aural Warning unit to generate a tone indicating a caution or warning message when there is an abnormal situation.

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16
Q

What happens if you loose IC-600 1?

A

The PFD 1, MFD 1, and EICAS will display a red X. The engine backup page will automatically display on RUM 1.

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17
Q

What happens if you loose IC-600 2?

A

The PFD 2 and MFD 2 will display a red X.

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18
Q

If the IC-600 1 or 2 goes offline, how can we display the good computers information on the affected displays?

A

Press the SG button on the affected side’s reversionary panel.

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19
Q

Are the CRT displays interchangeable?

A

yes

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20
Q

What are the 5 system pages available on the MFD.

A 
Hydraulic and brakes
Fuel
Electrical
Environmental and ice protection
Take off and doors page.
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21
Q

Can the PFD and EICAS be displayed on the MFD?

A

Yes, if selected on the reversionary panel.

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22
Q

RMU’s may be selected to display what backup information for the PFD, MFD, and EICAS?

A

Navigation
Engine information
System information
Some EICAS messages

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23
Q

Are all the displays on the same electrical bus?

A

No, 4 different buses

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24
Q

What buses do the displays and IC-600’s use?

A

DC bus 1: PFD 1 and MFD 2
DC bus 2: MFD 1, PFD2, TBCH and IC-600 2
Essential DC bus 1: RUM 1 and IC-600 1
Essential DC bus 2: ISIS and RMU 2

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25
Q

What will you see on the displays if you lose DC bus 1?

A

PFD 1 and MFD 2 blank (blackout)

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26
Q

What will you see on the displays if you lose DC bus 2?

A

MFD 1, PFD 2 and TBCH blank. MFD 2 red X.

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27
Q

What will you see on the displays if you lose Essential DC bus 1?

A

EICAS and RUM 1 blank. PFD 1 and MFD 1 red X.

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28
Q

What will you see on the displays if you lose Essential DC bus 2?

A

ISIS and RUM 2 blank.

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29
Q

How many built in tests do the IC-600’s have? What are they?

A

3: Power up
Continuous
Pilot initiated

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30
Q

How is the IC-600 tested, and what happens?

A

Pressing and holding the test button on the display control panel. The first test displays the failure modes and the second test checks the IC-600 internal interfaces.

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31
Q

What are the crew awareness EICAS message levels and what do they mean?

A

Warning (red): always on top; requires immediate crew action.
Caution (amber): after warning messages; requires immediate crew awareness.
Advisory (cyan): after caution messages; minor failure or system status.

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32
Q

How many messages can be displayed on the EICAS at one time?

A

15 at once. The bezel knob allows you to cycle through the messages if there are more than 15.

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33
Q

What is the inhibition logic for EICAS messages during takeoff and landing?

A

Takeoff V1 -15 to
400ft AGL or CAS below 60 kts or after 1 min.
Landing 200AGL to
WOW +3 sec. or after 1 min.

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34
Q

What systems does the aural warning unit receive signals from

A

TCAS, GPWS, Windshear detection, IC-600’s, Fire detection, Stall Protection, Trims, Flaps, Brakes, Spoilers, RA, Autopilot, Landing gear, ADC, Pressurization, SELCAL

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35
Q

What provides power to the AWU?

A

One DC bus and One Essential DC bus.

“A”-primary, “B”-backup. “A” fails “B” is selected automatically.

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36
Q

How many chimes is a Red Warning and how often is it repeated?

A

3 repeated every second (DING DING DING)

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37
Q

How many chimes is a Caution and how often is it repeated?

A

1 repeated every 5 seconds (DING)

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38
Q

What triggers the takeoff configuration warning when the button is pressed or any thrust lever >60 dgr?

A

Flaps
Brakes
Spoilers
Trim

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39
Q

Describe the stall protection system (SPS)

A

The SPS consist of:
one computer, 2 independent channels, SPS panel, 2 AOA sensors, 2 stick shaker actuators, 1 stick pusher (captain’s side)

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40
Q

To avoid bogus warning the SPS takes into account:

A 
Icing conditions
Windshear
Gear position
Flap setting
Mach number
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41
Q

What inhibition logic does the stick pusher incorporate?

A 
(2C's, 2G's, 2 200's, and a Q)
Cannel inop, Cutout button pressed,
on the Ground, below .5G's,
>200 KIAS, below 200ft or 10 sec. after T/O if RA inop,
Quick disconnect button pressed
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42
Q

When is the SPS test button illuminated?

A

Start up or Unsuccessful test

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43
Q

What does the pitch limit indicator represent?

A

The remaining margin left for the stick shaker AOA set point.

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44
Q

What are tie pitch limit indications?

A

Green (10 to 5 degree)
Amber (5 to 2 degree)
Red (<2 degree)

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45
Q

What is the difference between EGPWS and GPWS?

A

Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System has terrain mapping.

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46
Q

What are the 2 windshear alerts and what triggers them?

A

Caution (amber) increasing headwind and/or updraft increasing performance
Warning (red) increasing tailwind and/or downdraft decreasing performance

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47
Q

What is windshear escape guidance mode?

A

Minimize altitude loss and Speed loss. It provides pitch command to recover from windshear encounters.

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48
Q

When does the windshear escape guidance mode engage?

A

Manually: Go-Around button in windshear condition.
Automatically: Go-Around, Takeoff mode in windshear condition
Automatically: Thrust lever angle is >78 dgr in decreasing performance.

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49
Q

What flight director modes are inhibited when a windshear caution or warning is present?

A

Altitude preselect mode, Go Around and takeoff mode.

No lateral modes are inhibited.

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50
Q

In order of priority what are the requirements the windshear escape guidance mode is designed to meet?

A

Prevent the airplane from: Stalling, Descending, Exceeding Vmo.

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51
Q

When are Resolution Advisories inhibited?

A

Below 600ft AGL climbing

Below 400ft AGL descending

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52
Q

What are the TCAS altitude bands?

A

Normal:+/-1200ft
Auto: +/-2700ft
Above: +7000ft to -2700ft
Below: -7000ft to +2700ft

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53
Q

What is the Aircraft electrical system comprised of?

A 
4-28V DC/400A engine driven generators
1-28V DC/400A starter-generator
2-24V DC/44Ah Ni-Cad batteries
1-24V DC/5Ah Lead-Acid backup battery
External power source (GPU 28V DC)
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54
Q

What generators charge the batteries?

A

Gen 1 and 3 charge battery 1 and B/C battery. Gen 2 and 4 charge battery 2.

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55
Q

What happens in generator over-voltage situation?

A

The GCU takes the associated generator offline.

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56
Q

What happens when a bus fails?

A

A bus failure will cause an over-current condition to one or more generators. The GCU isolates the system network by opening BTC’s. If the generators remain overloaded then the GCU will take it offline.

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57
Q

Does the GPU have priority over the batteries and/or generators?

A

yes, when selected.

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58
Q

How do you reset a tripped GPU?

A

Release and press the button again.

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59
Q

What is powered when GPU AVAIL is illuminated and the batteries are off?

A

Ground service bus.

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60
Q

When are the engine generators brought online?

A

N2: 56.4%

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61
Q

Which battery starts the APU?

A 
#2
#1 is isolated from the start to prevent voltage transients.
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62
Q

If 4 to 5 generators are online, how many independent electrical networks do we have?

A

2 Networks all buses

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63
Q

If 3 generators are online, how many independent electrical networks do we have?

A

1 Network all buses

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64
Q

If 2 generators are online, will the shed buses be on?

A

Not in flight. On the ground you can select Shed Bus OVRD to get Shed Buses.

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65
Q

If all generators are lost in flight, what will the batteries supply power to?

A

Essential Buses and Central DC Bus to allow for APU start.

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66
Q

How long will battery power last with complete generator failure?

A

40 min. to include 3 APU start attempts. 45 if Pitot 3 Sensor Heating Button deselected.

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67
Q

Will shed buses be online on the ground with GPU selected?

A

yes

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68
Q

What does the ground service bus power?

A

Cockpit Dome Lights, Courtesy Stair Lights, Galley Lights, Passenger Cabin Lights, Lavatory Lights, Baggage Service Compartment Light.

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69
Q

What is the AC electrical system comprised of?

A

1 Single Phase Static Inverter (250VA/ 400Hz), which converts 28V DC into 115V AC powered by DC Bus 1.

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70
Q

What is on the 115V AC Bus?

A

GPWS, WSHR, MQAR, ACARS printer

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71
Q

During normal flight operations, what contactors will be open?

A

BTC 1 and EIC

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72
Q

How long do Photo luminescent emergency lights last?

A

Initially 4.75 hours after a 15 min. charge.

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73
Q

Can you activate the APU fire extinguishing system with the battery off?

A

No, it is on DC Bus 2.

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74
Q

Can you activate the Engine fire extinguishing system with the batteries off?

A

Yes, it is on the Hot Bus.

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75
Q

How does the sensor tube determine an overheat condition?

A

Expanding helium gas pressures trigger a switch, which activates the warning system.

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76
Q

How does the sensor tube determine a fire or high-intensity over heat condition?

A

An expanding hydrogen impregnated core increase internal pressure and triggers a switch which activates the warning system.

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77
Q

How do you know if the sensor tube is inoperative?

A

An integrity switch monitors the sensor tubes integrity and signals if inoperative.

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78
Q

What valves do the fire handles close when pulled?

A

Fuel, Hydraulic, Bleed air, Engine lip anti-icing.

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79
Q

What happens when you press the fire detection test button?

A

Fire handle illuminate, Fire bell sounds, Warning/Caution lights illuminate, Baggage fire extinguishing button illuminate, 3 EICAS warnings: APU FIRE, ENG1(2) FIRE, BAGG SMOKE, 2 EICAS cautions: APUFIREDET FAIL, ENG1(2) FIREDET FAIL

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80
Q

What happens when you press the APU fire extinguishing button?

A

The APU fuel shutoff valve closes and the APU fire extinguishing bottle is discharged.

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81
Q

What happen s when you hold the fire detection test button for less than 2 sec. or more than 10 sec.

A

Less than 2 sec., Baggage fire extinguishing button remains illuminated. More than 10 sec., APU will shutdown.

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82
Q

How is the lavatory fire-extinguishing bottle activated?

A

A seal burns off allowing the bottle to discharge.

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83
Q

How can we inspect the baggage compartment from inside the airplane?

A

A sight glass inside the lavatory.

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84
Q

Explain the fire extinguishing system in the baggage compartment?

A

2 bottles: 1 fast discharge bottle and 1 metering bottle (50 min. discharge).

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85
Q

What reasons will cause the baggage fire-extinguishing button to illuminate?

A

Smoke detected in baggage compartment, Baggage compartment fan is deactivated, Fire detection test button pushed for less than 2 sec.

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86
Q

What happens when the baggage fire-extinguishing button is pressed?

A

Both butter fly valves close. Both extinguishing bottles discharge. fan is deactivated

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87
Q

How does fuel flow from the wing tip to the wing root?

A

gravity

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88
Q

What traps fuel in the wing root and submerges the fuel pumps?

A

collector box

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89
Q

What does the fuel vent system do and what does it consist of?

A

It prevents the buildup of positive and negative pressure in the tank. It consist of a NACA (National Advisory Committee for Aeronautics) air inlet, a surge box and 2 float valves.

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90
Q

How many electric fuel pump does each wing tank have?

A

3

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91
Q

How many total electric fuel pumps are required for takeoff and go-around?

A

2 (1 per engine)

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92
Q

If you lose all electric fuel pumps will the engines stop?

A

No, the FPMU will provide enough suction to run the engine.

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93
Q

Can you transfer fuel from one tank to the other?

A

No, a check valve prevents this.

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94
Q

How can we use fuel from the left tank to supply the APU?

A

Crossfeed to “LOW 2”.

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95
Q

What does the flame arrestor do?

A

Prevents an outside fire from entering the fuel tank.

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96
Q

When defueling which tank is fuel extracted from?

A

2, right side.

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97
Q

How can we extract fuel from the #1 (left tank) during defueling?

A

Set crossfeed to “LOW 2”.

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98
Q

How many direct measuring sticks per wing does the aircraft have?

A

EP/MP: 2

LR/XR: 3

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99
Q

How do you check fuel using the direct measuring sticks?

A

Start with the outboard first, if it reads you can stop, otherwise move inboard until you get a reading. Then compare the number to the chart to determine how much fuel is in the tank.

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100
Q

Describe the APU and its functions?

A

A source of electrical and pneumatic power that can be used simultaneously or independent of aircraft sources, while on the ground or in flight. It is a constant speed gas turbine engine, consisting of a single-stage centrifugal compressor, a reverse-flow annular combustion chamber, and a single-stage radial turbine.

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101
Q

What will cause an APU to automatically shut down on the ground?

A

Fire, Over temp., Over speed., Under speed, Failure to accelerate, Failure to light, Loss of speed data, External short, Loss of FADEC (ESU) signal, FADEC (ESU) failure, Bleed valve opening, Low oil press., High oil temp., Oil press. switch short or loss of EGT.

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102
Q

What will cause an APU to automatically shut down in flight?

A

Over speed, Under speed, Failure to accelerate, Failure to light, Loss of speed data, External short, Loss of FADEC (ESU) signal or FADEC (ESU) failure.

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103
Q

If a fire is detected in the APU on the ground, will it immediately shut down?

A

No, a 10 sec. delay occurs before shutdown.

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104
Q

Where does the APU get its fuel?

A

2 right tank

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105
Q

Does the APU use oil from the engines?

A

No, it has its own self contained lubricating system.

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106
Q

When do you begin to use APU electrical power?

A

7 sec. after the APU reaches 95% rotor speed.

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107
Q

How long after starting the APU should you wait to use the APU bleed per the SOP?

A

3 min.

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108
Q

How does the APU start?

A

APU starter generator

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109
Q

What are the 2 air vents under the APU cowling?

A

The left side is for the starter generator intake and the right is for APU compartment cooling.

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110
Q

How does the ESU (C11) model test the overspeed protection?

A

When the stop button is pressed, a signal is sent to the ESU to simulate an overspeed condition, which will shut down the APU.

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111
Q

When does the FADEC (C14) model test the overspeed protection?

A

During FADEC power up.

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112
Q

Where does the stop button cutoff fuel for the APU?

A

At the APU.

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113
Q

Where does the shutoff valve cutoff fuel for the APU?

A

At the wing root.

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114
Q

What is Ground Safe mode?

A 
IRS units- OFF
Emergency lights- OFF
Batteries- OFF
APU Bleed- OFF
APU Gen- ON
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115
Q

How many volts do you need for APU start?

A

minmum 22 volts

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116
Q

What is the EP and LR thrust rating?

A

EP: 7426 @ ISA+25
LR: 7426 @ ISA+30

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117
Q

What are the main design features of the AE3007?

A

Single stage fan, 14 stage axial flow compressor with inlet guide vanes and 5 variable geometry stator vanes, 2 stage high-pressure turbine (N2) to drive the compressor, 3 stage low-pressure turbine (N1) to drive the fan, dual FADEC’s, accessory gear box, pneumatic system.

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118
Q

What is the bypass ratio?

A

5:01

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119
Q

Compressor Variable Geometry (CVG) stators are for what stages?

A

1 thru 5 and for the inlet guide vanes.

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120
Q

What control the CVG?

A

FADEC sends signal to the FPMU.

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121
Q

What does the forced air mixer do?

A

It mixes air from the engine bypass and the core gas stream to lower the pressure ratio and control noise.

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122
Q

What drives the accessory gearbox?

A

N2 through a tower shaft.

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123
Q

What stages are the bleed air?

A

9th and 14th stage.

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124
Q

When do we use 14th stage bleed air?

A

Low thrust setting
A/I operation
Crossbleed start

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125
Q

What’s on the accessory gearbox?

A

FPMU, ATS, 2 generators, hydraulic pump, oil pump, PMA

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126
Q

What are the components of the fuel system?

A

FPMU, FCOC, CVG actuators, fuel nozzles

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127
Q

What 2 secondary functions does the fuel system have?

A

Engine oil cooling, fuel pressure to activate CVG

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128
Q

Describe the FPMU’s function?

A

Electrical-mechanical unit, which incorporates engine fuel pumping, filtering, and metering under command of the FADEC. It supplies the correct pressure and flow rate to the fuel nozzles during start, stop, and engine operation, and it also control the CVG vanes.

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129
Q

What pumps are in FPMU?

A

1 high pressure gear pump, 1 low pressure centrifugal pump

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130
Q

Can fuel bypass the FCOC?

A

No

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131
Q

Can oil bypass the FCOC?

A

Yes, when the fuel temp raises above 93.3C or when the oil differential pressure is above 50 psi.

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132
Q

What is the purpose of the CVG vanes?

A

To maximize engine efficiency and prevent compressor stalls.

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133
Q

How many fuel nozzles does each engine have?

A

16

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134
Q

What is the range of the fuel flow meter’s reading?

A

130-4300 pph

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135
Q

How many quarts of oil do the tanks hold?

A

12 quarts

136
Q

What is the minimum amount of oil for dispatch?

A

6 quarts

advise MX if oil is below 8 quarts. write up if oil is below 6 quarts.

137
Q

What is the highest reading of oil on the left and right engine?

A

Left-14, Right-13. due to sensor position.

138
Q

How many pumping elements does the oil system have and what are their functions?

A

6, 5 scavenge pumps that pump oil from the sumps and the gear box to the oil tank and 1 pressure pump that pumps oil from the tank to system.

139
Q

Why do the engine sumps and the oil tank vent to accessory gear box?

A

It acts as an air/oil separator.

140
Q

Can oil bypass the oil filter?

A

Yes, through a bypass valve during cold starts or when the filter is contaminated.

141
Q

What are the 5 sumps?

A

Fan, Fwd, Center, Aft, AGB

142
Q

What bleed air stage assist in normal engine starts?

A

9th stage.

143
Q

What provides primary electrical power for the engine FADEC’s and ignition system?

A

PMA

144
Q

What is sufficient power for the PMA to run the ignitors?

A

N2 >10%

145
Q

If the PMA fails will the ignitors work?

A

No, PMA is the only power source for the ignitors.

146
Q

How many ignitors does each engine have?

A

2

147
Q

What can the pneumatic start source be supplied from?

A

APU, Ground air, Cross bleed start from opposite engine.

148
Q

What does the Air Turbine Starter (ATS) do?

A

It convert pneumatic energy into driving torque for engine gas generator spool acceleration during engine start.

149
Q

What does the Starter Control Valve (SCV) do?

A

It regulates the pressure to the ATS and provides isolation from the pneumatic system after startup.

150
Q

What are the different idle settings?

A

Ground(64%), Flight(69%), Icing(whatever it takes)

151
Q

When will icing idle be cancelled?

A

Gear down below 15,000 ft.

152
Q

How many FADEC’s does each engine have?

A

2

153
Q

Will the engine quit if the PMA fails?

A

No

154
Q

When does the PMA power the FADEC’s?

A

at a min. of 50% N2.

155
Q

If you lose both FADEC’s will the engine still run?

A

No, the engine control system will shut off fuel flow and move the CVG vanes to the closed position.

156
Q

What is the role of the standby FADEC?

A

It monitors all inputs, performs all computations and built-in tests, and fault protection.

157
Q

Will the FADEC try to prevent an engine over-speed?

A

Yes, if the FADEC determines that a higher fuel flow rate will result in an over-speed condition then it will limit fuel flow to prevent it.

158
Q

Are both ignition systems energized during in-flight restarts?

A

Yes

159
Q

What happens if there is a loss of the N1 speed signal?

A

The FADEC stores data on the correlation between N1 and N2, and will control thrust governing N2 speed. N1 data will not be displayed on the EICAS if this condition exists.

160
Q

Can the FADEC operate with multiple faults?

A

Yes, the faults will be sent to the MX computer.

161
Q

When does the FADEC consider the engine to be started?

A

at 56.4% N2.

162
Q

Why do the FADEC’s crosstalk with the other engine’s FADEC’s?

A

ATTCS, Reverser interlock.

163
Q

What are the thrust modes?

A

E-T/O RSV (XR only)
E-T/O (XR only)
T/O-1 RSV (XR only)
T/O-1 ALT, T/O-1, CLB, CON, CRZ

164
Q

What input does the FADEC need for takeoff?

A

Takeoff Mode,
Air temp. within 10 *C
Anti-icing On/Off

165
Q

During takeoff, what is the earliest you can select Climb Mode?

A

500 ft. AGL

166
Q

What happens when there is an engine failure and ATTCS is activated?

A

It automatically resets the thrust rating to TO-1 and in some thrust and ambient conditions the FADEC will close the Packs.

167
Q

When is ATTCS armed?

A

When both engines are ATTCS capable (ALT TO-1 mode selected) and the associated thrust lever is =/> 45 degree.

168
Q

When is ATTCS triggered?

A

Thrust lever on opposite engine reduced below 38* TLA.
Either FADEC receives an opposite engine or on-side engine inoperative condition.
Opposite engine does not indicate ATTCS being armed within 2 sec. of the on-side being armed.
Opposite engine disarms ATTCS and the on-side does not disarm within 2 sec.

169
Q

When does the FADEC activate the ignition system?

A

During start above 15% N2

Flameout detected

170
Q

Will the FADEC stop the start process if the ITT exceeds the reference limit?

A

Yes, it automatically commands an engine shutdown for an overtemp on the start.

171
Q

What do you do after an aborted start?

A

QRH: Abnormal Engine Start Checklist

Dry Motor Checklist

172
Q

Will the Start/Stop selector turn off the engine if the thrust level is not in idle?

A

No

173
Q

Describe the lock protection system for the thrust reversers?

A

The system incorporates 3 locking systems. The primary and secondary locks are electrically controlled and hydraulically powered to unlock. The tertiary lock is electronically controlled and powered to unlock.

174
Q

When will the reversers deploy if selected?

A

Ground indication from both main gear and the wheel speed of 25 kts or ground indication from both main gear and nose wheel.

175
Q

What hydraulic system controls the ailerons and rudder?

A

1 and 2

176
Q

What systems are fed off Hydraulic system #1?

A 
Outboard Brakes
Inboard Spoiler
Landing Gear
Left Thrust Reverser
Aileron
Rudder
Main Door
Steering
177
Q

What systems are fed off Hydraulic system #2?

A 
Inboard Brakes
Outboard Spoiler
Right Thrust Reverser
Aileron
Rudder
Emergency Brake
178
Q

At what temperature does the hydraulic fluid trigger the “High Temp” message?

A

90 *C

179
Q

What pressure does the hydraulic pumps supply?

A

3000 psi Engine pumps

2900 psi Electrical pumps

180
Q

When will the electric hydraulic pump turn on in auto mode?

A

Engine pump drops below 1600 psi or N2 <56.4%

181
Q

How and why is the hydraulic reservoir pressurized?

A

It prevents the pump from cavitation, by using fluid drained from the pressure line.

182
Q

What two ways would close the hydraulic shutoff valve?

A

Fire handle

Engine pump shutoff button

183
Q

What does the hydraulic manifold do?

A

Filters (return and pressure lines)
Relieves (over-pressure relief)
Reads (pressure indications on all pumps)

184
Q

What does the priority valve do?

A

If the electric hydraulic pump is powering the system and the gear is selected up, the priority valve will provide minimum flow to the gear in order to keep pressure up for the flight controls. The gear will use accumulator pressure.

185
Q

What do the hydraulic accumulators do?

A

They provide 3000 psi to operate the landing gear, main door, and emergency brakes; and prevent surges of the hydraulic pump.

186
Q

If the engine fails will the hydraulic system work?

A

Yes, provided the associated electric pump switch is set to AUTO or ON position.

187
Q

How many and where are the WOW proximity switches?

A

5

2 on each main and 1 on the nose gear.

188
Q

What systems use the nose proximity signal?

A

Thrust Reverser logic

Steering contol

189
Q

How does the Landing Gear Extension Unit (LGEU) know the plane is on the ground?

A

The 4 main gear proximity switches are used. 3 must indicate identical status. If one signal is invalid then 2 must indicate identical status. If 2 are invalid then both must agree.

190
Q

How do the Main Gear Doors open?

A

They are mechanically linked to the gear.

191
Q

How do the Nose Gear Doors open?

A

Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated, in sequence with the nose gear.

192
Q

How are the Gear and Doors held up?

A

The nose gear door actuators are kept pressurized. Main and nose gear are held by uplocks (J hooks).

193
Q

Does the Landing Gear Lever open a Hydraulic Valve?

A

No, it is an electrical switch that signals the LGEU.

194
Q

What holds the Gear down and locked?

A

Over center struts.

195
Q

What prevents inadvertent ground retraction by the Landing Gear Lever?

A

A solenoid blocks the lever on the ground.

196
Q

How does the Electric Override Extension work?

A

When selected, the system bypasses the LGEU and directly actuates the electrovalve and the nose gear door solenoid. The 3 step switch drops the nose gear doors, the gear, and then depressurizes the system.

197
Q

How does the Free-Fall Extension work?

A

The free-fall lever unlock the uplocks and depressurizes the system. The gear falls by gravity.

198
Q

How many gear position proximity switches are there?

A

124 on each gear

199
Q

When do you get a Landing Gear Warning when the Gear isn’t down and locked?

A

RA below 1200 ft., or Flaps set to 45* in flight.

200
Q

Describe Anti-Skid Protection?

A

When the BCU determines that on wheel has fallen below the average wheel speed. It then relieves pressure from that side until the wheel speed matches the other side. Then normal braking is restored.

201
Q

When does the Anti-skid deactivate and why?

A

Below 10 kts wheel speed, to allow the pilot to pivot during a sharp turn.

202
Q

Describe Lock Wheel Protection?

A

If one wheel falls below 30% then full brake pressure is relieved to that wheel. Deactivated below 30 kts.

203
Q

When is touchdown protection activated?

A

WOW +3 sec or >50 kts wheel speed.

204
Q

What should you do while releasing or applying the parking brake?

A

Press and hold the brake pedals to prevent fluid transfer.

205
Q

How long does the accumulator hold Parking Brake pressure?

A

24 hours.

206
Q

How many cycles does the Accumulator have pressure for?

A

6 cycles after EMRG BRK LO PRES on EICAS.

207
Q

Who controls the brakes?

A

Whoever is pushing harder.

208
Q

How is nose wheel steering accomplished?

A

Radder pedals, and the steering hand wheel send signals to potentiometers, which command a hydraulic manifold to pressure a steering actuator.

209
Q

How many degrees of steering is available?

A

76 total, 5 rudder pedals, 71 tiller

210
Q

What is the minimum radius turn for the aircraft?

A

69 ft 7 in

211
Q

Why does the whole horizontal stabilizer move?

A

In the high speed ranges a normal trim tab would be ineffective.

212
Q

How are the elevators actuated?

A

Through fully duplicated command circuits (pulleys and rods).

213
Q

Why does one cable go to the elevator via the roof and the other one through the floor?

A

In case of damage to one part of the cabin due to engine failure.

214
Q

What side of the controls is the stick pusher on?

A

Captains

215
Q

What will the elevator disconnect handle do?

A

Separate the elevator panels per side.

216
Q

Can we use the Auto Pilot if the elevators or ailerons are disconnected?

A

No

217
Q

If you are the FO, which elevator will move if disconnected?

A

Right side

218
Q

What is the trim range?

A

4 degree nose down to 10 degree nose up

219
Q

What does the Horizontal Stabilizer Actuator consist of?

A

One elctro-mechanical actuator powered by 2 DC motors. Only one motor is on at a time.

220
Q

Will pitch trim speed vary?

A

Yes, it slows as airspeed increases.

221
Q

Does the stick shaker inhibit the pitch trim?

A

Only the UP command.

222
Q

Who has pitch trim priority?

A

yoke to yoke - captain,

yoke to backup - first activation.

223
Q

How long can the pitch trim be activated before it is automatically turned off?

A

3 seconds

224
Q

When does the pitch trim deactivate?

A

8 to 16 seconds of continuous activation.

225
Q

What moves the Servo Tabs?

A

Elevator, it is mechanically linked and deflects in the opposite direction to reduce control pressure.

226
Q

What moves the Spring Tab?

A

At high speeds the elevator torsion bar will not be able to move the elevator; so the torsion tube will turn the torque tube and actuate the spring tab causing the elevator and servo tab to move.

227
Q

Which is the Spring Tab?

A

The inner tab and it moves opposite to the elevtor.

228
Q

Which side is the Autopilot Servo located on?

A

Captains

229
Q

Which side is the Artificial Feel Unit on?

A

First Officer

230
Q

If both hydraulic systems have been lost can the ailerons be moved?

A

Yes, mechanically through the control wheel.

231
Q

How is Roll Trim performed?

A

Relocating the aileron’s neutral position.

232
Q

How is Aileron Roll Trim actuated?

A

Electro-mechanically through the artificial feel unit.

233
Q

At what speed is the Rudder System 1 shutoff?

A

> 135 KIAS

234
Q

When does Rudder Hard Over protection kick in?

A

Force on pedal >130lbs and rudder pedal deflection 5 degree +/-1 degree opposite direction of rudder deflection and both engines running

235
Q

What does rudder Hard Over protection do?

A

Cut off hydraulic pressure to the rudder system, allowing mechanical rudder input only.

236
Q

How is Yaw Trim activated?

A

Electro-mechanically

237
Q

How does the elector-mechanical gust lock secure the elevator?

A

Locking pins driven into the elevator panels, and is de-energized during flight.

238
Q

What types of Flaps on the EMB145?

A

Double slotted fowler flaps

239
Q

How do the flaps work?

A

The flap lever sends an electrical signal to the FECU which signals 2 electric motors to turn the flex shaft. The flex shaft. The flex shaft powers the ball/screw actuators, which lower or raise the flaps. When the flaps reach the desired angle, the velocity sensors signal the FECU, which signals the flap transmission brake to stop the movement.

240
Q

What prevents an Asymmetrical Flap condition?

A

2 velocity sensors signal the FECU that an asymmetrical condition exist. The FECU then signals the flap transmission brake to stop the movement.

241
Q

How will you know if one flap motor has failed?

A

a FLAP LOW SPEED message on the EICAS and the flap position gauge will show each degree of movement.

242
Q

How do the Spoilers actuated?

A

A signal from the spoiler control unit is sent to either or both the ground spoiler and speed brake valves, which hydraulically actuate the spoiler/speed brakes.

243
Q

Which panels are the Speed Brakes?

A

Outboard

244
Q

When are the Ground Spoilers enabled?

A

On Ground, main gear wheel speed above 25 kts, both thrust levers below 30 degree.

245
Q

When are the speed brakes enabled?

A

Thrust lever angle below 50 degree, Flaps 0 or 9 degree

246
Q

What provides pitch trim command when the speed brakes are actuated?

A

Autopilot or spoiler control unit.

247
Q

Where does the pneumatic system receive hot compressed air?

A

Engine compressor stage, APU, Ground pneumatic source.

248
Q

When does the 14th stage bleed open?

A

Anti-ice operation, cross bleed start, Low engine thrust

249
Q

When is the 9th stage bleed open?

A

Any time the 14th stage is closed.

250
Q

When will the leak detectors close the Bleed Valves?

A

When mass leaks are detected.

251
Q

If the APU bleed valve is open can ENG 1 bleed be open?

A

No

252
Q

When will the crossbleed valve open when set to Auto?

A

ENG 2 starting, Crossbleed start from ENG 2, Ground cart start, Horizontal stab anti-icing open

253
Q

How many time does bleed air pass through the heat exchanger?

A

Twice, once through the primary, once through the secondary heat exchanger.

254
Q

Where does water from the water separator go and why?

A

To the heat exchanger, to improve heat exchanger efficiency.

255
Q

When does RAM air enter the cabin?

A

Only when the environmental control units’ air supply has been cut-off in flight.

256
Q

When does the pneumatic system’s logic automatically shut off Pack 1?

A

In icing below 24,600 ft.

257
Q

What controls the temperature in auto mode?

A

The digital temperature controllers that receive information from the temperature sensors, maintaining the temperature set on the temperature knob.

258
Q

When should the recirculation fan be off?

A

smoke in cabin.

259
Q

What does the gasper fan do?

A

Provides air to the eyeball outlets; cools the rear electronics compartment; O2 cylinder compartment and relay box.

260
Q

Can you turn the gasper fan off on the ground?

A

No

261
Q

When in Auto pressurization mode which outflow valve is controlling?

A

The electro-pneumatic valve and the pneumatic valve is slaved to it.

262
Q

What altitude does the cabin pressurize the aircraft for landing?

A

300 ft below selected field elevation.

263
Q

When in Manual pressurization mode, which outflow valve is used?

A

Pneumatic valve out. The electro pneumatic valve is kept closed.

264
Q

Will the dump mode work in manual mode?

A

No

265
Q

How do you dump the cabin manual mode?

A

Turn the manual control knob to the full up position.

266
Q

Why does the cabin pressurize to 0.2 psi below the T/O altitude?

A

To prevent cabin bump and to keep a controlled cabin altitude.

267
Q

If the dump button is pressed in auto mode, what will the cabin altitude rise to?

A

14,000 or ambient pressure if below 14,500.

268
Q

Will the PACK be turned off automatically for T/O-1 takeoff?

A

Yes, the FADEC sends a discret signal to the ECU to shut the PACKs off.

269
Q

What is the FWD electronics bay cooling comprised of?

A

2 NACA vents for intake. 2 water separators to prevent moisture. 2 check valve-electrically controlled to cut off outside air. 2 recirculation fans for moving air. 2 exhaust fans to allow air to escape. 4 control thermostats. 2 over-temperature thermostats to maintain constant compartment temperature. 4 inverter modules to power fans. 2 shutoff valves.

270
Q

What is the baggage compartment ventilation system comprised of?

A

2 check valve

1 fan

271
Q

What are the hot air heated areas?

A

wing leading edge,
horizontal stabilizer,
leading edge,
engine inlet lip

272
Q

What are the electrically heated areas?

A 
windshields,
pitot tubes,
pitot-static,
AOA sensors,
TAT probes,
ADC's,
pressurization static ports,
lavatory water drain
water service nipples
273
Q

Where does anti-icing bleed air exit the wing?

A

Through dedicated slots under the wing.

274
Q

Can APU bleed air be used for anti-icing operations?

A

No

275
Q

When will the wing and stabilizer anti-icing valves open?

A

Ice detection system test knob is set to 1 or 2 on the ground, or in flight during icing conditions, or in flight with override set to ALL, or wheel speed greater than 25 kts and ice detected.

276
Q

When will the engine anti-icing valves open?

A

On the ground in ENG or ALL,
In flight in ENG or ALL,
Auto if ice is detected.

277
Q

Where does anti-icing bleed air exit the stabilizer and why?

A

At the stabilizer wing tip to deice the horns.

278
Q

How many temperature sensors are on the windshield and what are they for?

A

3 temperature control,

overheat protection, A spare for MX should the other two fail.

279
Q

When is TAT 1 or TAT 2 heated?

A

Whenever engine anti-icing is functioning or the plane is in the air.

280
Q

When are pitot/static 3 and pressurization system static port 2 heated?

A

In any flight condition.

281
Q

When are pitot 1 and 2, pitot/static 3, AOA 1 and 2 ADS static ports, and pressurization/static ports 1 and 2 heated?

A

When at least one engine is running.

282
Q

In auto mode, how much ice does it take to activate the icing detection system?

A

.5 mm

283
Q

How do the ice detectors work?

A

The probe vibrates at a preset frequency. When ice reduces the vibration by a preset amount the sensor sends out an icing signal. Simultaneously, the probes internal heaters are energized and melt the accumulated ice. Once deiced, the probe cools in a few seconds. The ice signal remains activate for 60 seconds, when another sensing cycle is initiated.

284
Q

What type O2 mask are in the cockpit?

A

Dilutor/ demand continuous flow available for smoke in cabin.

285
Q

How many PBE’s are in the aircraft.

A

3 total, 1 in the cockpit, 2 in the cabin

286
Q

What does dilutor/demand mean?

A

It does not supply a continuous flow of O2. It only supplies O2 when you breath in, and dilutes the O2 up to FL330 then goes to 100%

287
Q

What type of O2 mask do the passengers have?

A

Continuous flow

288
Q

When will the passenger masks deploy in Auto Mode?

A

Above 14,000 ft +/- 500 ft cabin altitude.

289
Q

What visual signs occur when the latches for the PAX O2 dispensing units are energized?

A

O2 ON light on the PCU, “Fasten Seat Belts” and “No Smoking” signs will be illuminated.

290
Q

When does the O2 flow to the pax masks?

A

When the mask in the unit is pulled down.

291
Q

How long will the O2 flow to the pax mask?

A

12 minutes.

292
Q

If the pax masks fail to fall, what can the flight attendant do?

A

Use the oxygen deploy tool.

293
Q

How many continuous-flow portable O2 cylinders are on board?

A

2, FWD and AFT in cabin.

294
Q

Where are the PBE’s located?

A

Behind the captain seat and FWD and AFT cabin. required to be within 3 ft of a fire extinguisher.

295
Q

How many masks are attached to each O2 cylinder?

A

two

296
Q

How long will the PBE’s provide O2 once activated?

A

15 minutes

297
Q

What is the minimum crew O2 for dispatch?

A

1100 psi for two crew

1500 psi for three crew

298
Q

When does the FDR start recording?

A

When the BCN is on or in flight.

299
Q

How long does the CVR record before is starts to overwrite the data?

A

two hours

300
Q

What else is contained in CVR?

A

The underwater locator beacon.

301
Q

Can the CVR be erased?

A

Yes, if the plane is on the ground and the parking brake set, except for the last 30 miniutes.

302
Q

What are the differences between the AHRS and IRS units?

A

AHRS 800 has DG/SLVD switch panel and magnetic flux detectors. AHRS 900 has no control panel or flux detector. IRS has ALIGN/NAV/ATT switch panel.

303
Q

Explain the MEL deferral categories?

A

A- time specific, B- 3 calendar days, C- 10 calendar days, D-120 calendar days

304
Q

What buses power the fuel pumps?

A

A-on side essential
B-cross side essential
C-on side DC

305
Q

What powers the thrust mode buttons?

A

PMA

306
Q

What are the ice test EICAS messages?

A 
Caution:
ENG REF A/I DISAGREE (parking brake not net)
E1(2) A/I FAIL BLD 1 (2)
LOW TEMP
CLR ICE 1-2 (XR on test 1)
CLR/I 1-2 INOP (XR on test1)
Advisory:
ICE CONDITION
CROSS BLD OPEN (pre-mod)
307
Q

When is the “parking brake on” light illuminated?

A

At least 150 lbs of hydraulic pressure.

308
Q

When would the electric hydraulic pump turn on in auto mode?

A

The associated engine driven hydraulic pump drops below 1600 psi or <56.4% N2.

309
Q

When does the cabin start to pressurize?

A

15 min or when the theoretical altitude becomes greater than the actual cabin altitude.

310
Q

How many static wicks on the aircraft?

A

22 (26 XR) 5 each wing (XR:2 additional on winglet) 4 each elevator 2 rudder 1 tail cone 1 nose wheel

311
Q

Explain the passenger oxygen system.

A

When cabin depressurization occurs above 14,000’ cabin altitude the oxygen mask drop. Enough oxygen for 12 min. The fasten seatbelt and no smoking signs illuminate.

312
Q

How much usable fuel in the ventral tank?

A

1863 lbs, 21 lbs unusable.

313
Q

How many fuel pumps in the ventral tank?

A

2

314
Q

When will fuel enter the ventral tank?

A

For fuel loads above 10,471 lbs.

315
Q

When will fuel be transferred from the ventral tank to the wings?

A

Automatically when both wing tank quantities drop below 4,630 lbs for 30 seconds.

316
Q

When will the ventral fuel pump shut off?

A

Once all the fuel is out of the ventral tank, the low level switch will shut off the fuel pump in auto mode.

317
Q

What would the EICAS message FUEL XFER INOP indicate?

A

Ventral tank pump failure VTRL TK switch OFF with fuel in the ventral tank.

318
Q

When are the clear ice detectors active?

A

On the ground only. Located on top of the wings to detect clear ice, due to wing tank fuel being cold-soaked.

319
Q

What does SPS/ICE SPEEDS advisory EICAS message mean?

A

SPS will activate at reduced angle of attack for flaps 9 & 22.

320
Q

What does SPS ADVANCED caution message mean?

A

The stick shaker and pusher activation is set to higher speeds, due to a failure or disagreement with associated systems.

321
Q

What does solid red mean on the EGPWS?

A

Warning terrain approximately 30 seconds from impact.

322
Q

What does solid yellow mean on the EGPWS?

A

Caution terrain approximately 60 seconds from impact.

323
Q

What are the different altitudes associated with the color on the EGPWS?

A

High density red- terrain >2,000’ above the aircraft.
High density yellow-terrain 2,000’-1,000’ above the aircraft.
Medium density yellow-terrain 1,000’-500’ above the aircraft.
Medium density green-terrain 500’-1,000’ below the aircraft.
Low density green-terrain 1,000’-2,000’ below the aircraft

324
Q

What terrain is not shown on the EGPWS?

A

Terrain that is more than 2,000’ below the airplane, terrain that has an elevation within 400’ of the runway elevation of the nearest airport & terrain not in EGPWS database is magenta.

325
Q

What does the essential power button do & what is its normal position?

A

Overrides the automatic transfer to the electrical emergency circuitry, connecting the batteries directly to the essential buses, regardless of any other command from the EDL. Normally out, dark and guarded.

326
Q

What items are powered by the HOT bus?

A 
#1 ELT, Fuel SOV 1, HYD SOV 1, squib 1/2A, refueling panel.
#2 cabin door HYD valve, courtesy lights, Fuel SOV2, HYD SOV 2 squib 1/2B
327
Q

What items are powered by the Shed bus?

A

Recirculation fans, nose landing light, taxi lights, CD player, pre-recorded announcements, windshield heat 2, PSU’s, galley flashlight chargers, SELCAL

328
Q

What temperature triggers the E1(2) FUEL LO TEMP EICAS message?

A

When fuel temp in the engine drops below 5 C degree.

329
Q

How many landing gear UP/DOWN proximity switches are there?

A

12 total 2 UP and 2 DOWN for each gear.

330
Q

Describe a normal landing gear extension.

A

Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated. Electrical command from the landing gear lever to the LGEU. The LGEU command the electrovalve’s, nose gear doors solenoid valve and the up locks. Using hydraulic system #1.

331
Q

How does the electrical override extension work?

A

Bypasses the LGEU and directly actuates the electrovalve’s and nose gear doors solenoid valve.

332
Q

How does the free fall extension lower the gear?

A

Mechanically releasing the uplocks.

333
Q

When does the CPAM signal the aural warning “CABIN”?

A

9,900’ +/- 100 cabin altitude.

334
Q

What happens if a takeoff is performed with the packs OFF?

A

The outflow valves are closed. When the pack valves are opened, the cabin pressurizes to .2 psi below takeoff elevation.

335
Q

When does the OXYGEN LO PRESS EICAS trigger?

A

<400 psi in the oxygen cylinder. Only 12 minutes of oxygen for three in the cockpit.

336
Q

What does the EMER button on the audio panel do?

A

Connects the CA directly to COM1 & NAV1 and the FO to COM2 & NAV2. The interphone is also lost. The observer loses all radio functions.

EMB 145 (1 decks)

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