Sympathetic neurotransmission and adrenoceptor agonists and antagonists Flashcards

1
Q

Despite its ability to stimulate receptors in the sympathetic nervous system, norepinephrine has relatively little capacity to increase bronchial airflow because the receptors in bronchial smooth muscle are largely of the

A
β2 subtype.

B
α1 subtype.

C
D2 subtype.

D
5-HT4 subtype.

E
M3 subtype.

A

A
β2 subtype.

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2
Q

A 38-year-old man is taking tranylcypromine, an MAO inhibitor, for depression. After a celebratory dinner, he develops a severe headache and chest pain. At hospital his blood pressure is 190/135 mm Hg. His hypertensive crisis is likely due to the ingestion of

A
green salad.

B
chocolate cake.

C
red wine.

D
broiled salmon.

E
wheat bread.

A

C
red wine.

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3
Q

A 53-year-old woman with COPD is using an albuterol inhaler for symptomatic relief of bronchospasm. She does not like using her inhaler because it causes

A
her lips to turn black.

B
her heart to beat faster.

C
numbness in her fingers and toes.

D
transient blindness.

E
transient diminished hearing.

A

B
her heart to beat faster.

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4
Q

A 23-year-old male college student is taking amphetamine on a regular basis to stay alert while studying. The mechanism of action of amphetamine that causes this effect is

A
due to the release of epinephrine (E) from the adrenal medulla.

B
due to the release of histamine from mast cells.

C
due to the stimulation of β receptors in the frontal cortex of the brain.

D
due to the release of norepinephrine (NE) from central adrenergic neurons.

E
the result of inhibition of monoamine oxidase (MAO).

A

D
due to the release of norepinephrine (NE) from central adrenergic neurons.

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5
Q

A 34-year-old woman has been frequently using a nasal spray containing the α adrenergic receptor agonist oxymetazoline for nasal decongestion. She has recently noticed that it is less effective and her symptoms are worse. This loss of efficacy is most likely due to

A
the fact that her spray container is empty.

B
degradation of the oxymetazoline.

C
a manufacturing defect in the nasal spray container.

D
a loss of innervation to her nasal mucosa.

E
rebound hyperemia of her nasal mucosa.

A

E
rebound hyperemia of her nasal mucosa.

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6
Q

A 32-year-old woman with the diagnosis of a pheochromocytoma is scheduled for surgery to remove her adrenal tumor. The best drug to control her episodes of severe hypertension prior to surgery would be

A
a nonselective α adrenergic antagonist such as phenoxybenzamine.

B
a selective α2 adrenergic receptor agonist such as clonidine.

C
a selective β2 adrenergic receptor agonist such as terbutaline.

D
a nonselective β adrenergic receptor antagonist such as propranolol.

E
a selective α1 adrenergic receptor antagonist such as terazosin.

A

A
a nonselective α adrenergic antagonist such as phenoxybenzamine.

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7
Q

The typical dose of oral propranolol for the treatment of hypertension is 320 mg/day. The typical dose of IV propranolol to treat a life-threatening arrhythmia is 1 to 3 mg administered slowly. The reason for the discrepancy in these doses is

A
β adrenergic receptors are more sensitive to IV than oral propranolol.

B
the IV dose avoids the “first pass” metabolism of oral propranolol.

C
treatment of hypertension requires a higher dose of propranolol than does treatment of a cardiac arrhythmia.

D
the density of β2 receptors in the heart is greater than the density of β2 receptors on blood vessels.

E
oral propranolol is excreted by the kidney at a faster rate than IV propranolol.

A

B
the IV dose avoids the “first pass” metabolism of oral propranolol.

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8
Q

A 32-year-old woman is taking sertraline for mild depression. This drug increases the availability of serotonin (5-HT) at the postsynaptic membrane because it

A
stimulates 5-HT4 receptors.

B
enhances the release of 5-HT from presynaptic nerve endings.

C
inhibits the presynaptic uptake of 5-HT.

D
blocks MAO which degrades 5-HT.

E
enhances the synthesis of 5-HT.

A

C
inhibits the presynaptic uptake of 5-HT.

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9
Q

A 35-year-old man is taking buspirone for anxiety. This drug acts as a(n)

A
partial agonist at 5-HT1A receptors.

B
inhibitor of 5-HT reuptake into presynaptic nerve terminals.

C
agonist at dopamine receptors.

D
agonist at α2 adrenergic receptors.

E
antagonist at M3 receptors.

A

A
partial agonist at 5-HT1A receptors.

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10
Q

A major mechanism for the termination of dopamine’s (DA) postsynaptic effect is

A
downregulation of DA postsynaptic receptors.

B
degradation of DA in postsynaptic nerve terminals.

C
decreased synthesis of DA.

D
blockage of postsynaptic β adrenergic receptors.

E
reuptake of DA into presynaptic nerve terminals.

A

E
reuptake of DA into presynaptic nerve terminals.

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11
Q

A 42-year-old man has just been prescribed a new drug. After several doses he notices dry mouth, dry eyes, and a rapid heart rate. This is most likely due to an inhibition of which of the following neurotransmitter:

A
Norepinephrine

B
Serotonin

C
Glutamate

D
Acetylcholine

E
Epinephrine

A

D
Acetylcholine

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12
Q

A 23-year-old man is accosted by 3 men late at night. Immediately his heart rate increases due to an increase in epinephrine in his circulation. This release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla is the result of the action of acetylcholine on

A
muscarinic receptors.

B
α adrenergic receptors.

C
nicotinic receptors.

D
β adrenergic receptors.

E
glutamate receptors.

A

C
nicotinic receptors.

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13
Q

56-year-old woman goes to an ophthalmologist for an eye examination. The ophthalmologist administers an eye drop to dilate her pupils prior to the eye examination. The medication in the eye drop is most likely acting on

A
serotonin receptors.

B
α1 adrenergic receptors.

C
β2 adrenergic receptors.

D
nicotinic receptors.

E
acetylcholinesterase.

A

B
α1 adrenergic receptors.

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14
Q

The neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction is

A
acetylcholine.

B
norepinephrine.

C
serotonin.

D
aspartate.

E
epinephrine.

A

A
acetylcholine.

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15
Q

A 33-year-old woman with a brain infection (meningitis) is administered her antibiotic directly into the cerebrospinal fluid because the

A
bacteria causing the brain infection are not sensitive to the antibiotic.

B
blood brain barrier excludes the antibiotic if it is administered systemically.

C
antibiotic binds to brain cells and is not available to the bacteria.

D
antibiotic is activated by the cerebrospinal fluid.

E
bacteria are mostly located in the cerebrospinal fluid.

A

B
blood brain barrier excludes the antibiotic if it is administered systemically.

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16
Q

An 80-year-old woman is administered a CNS depressant drug for anxiety. When she abruptly stops the drug, after taking it for many years, she is likely to experience

A
increased sedation.

B
hyperexcitability.

C
a depressed mood.

D
nausea.

E
blurred vision.

A

B
hyperexcitability.

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17
Q

A 35-year-old man has ingested Amanita muscaria mushrooms. He is experiencing a heart rate of 40 beats per minute. This bradycardia is most likely due to an interaction of the chemical(s) in the mushrooms with which receptors at the sinoatrial node?

A
α1 Adrenergic

B
β1 Adrenergic

C
β2 Adrenergic

D
M2 muscarinic

E
Nicotinic

A

D
M2 muscarinic

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18
Q

A 49-year-old woman is treated with pilocarpine hydrochloride for xerostomia (dry mouth) following head and neck radiation treatments. As a result of taking this drug she may experience which of the following side effects?

A
Sweating

B
Dry eyes

C
Dry skin

D
Confusion

E
Tachycardia

A

A
Sweating

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19
Q

A 54-year-old woman is receiving Botox injections to remove facial wrinkles. Botox (botulinum toxin) acts by

A
stimulating the release of ACh.

B
stimulating the release of norepinephrine.

C
blocking the release of ACh.

D
blocking the release of norepinephrine.

E
blocking muscarinic receptors.

A

C
blocking the release of ACh.

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20
Q

A 23-year-old man has deliberately ingested an organophosphate insecticide. His initial symptoms of salivation, lacrimation, and diarrhea are a consequence of inhibition of

A
butyrylcholinesterase.

B
acetylcholinesterase.

C
Na+, K+-ATPase.

D
tyrosine hydroxylase.

E
monoamine oxidase.

A

B
acetylcholinesterase.

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21
Q

A 23-year-old man has deliberately ingested an organophosphate insecticide. He has initial symptoms of salivation, lacrimation, and diarrhea….This patient should be treated with atropine and which additional drug in the following list?

A
Physostigmine

B
Bethanechol

C
Pralidoxime

D
Morphine

E
Gentamicin

A

C
Pralidoxime

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22
Q

A 65-year-old man with the diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease is being treated with donepezil. This drug acts by

A
stimulating the release of ACh.

B
blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine.

C
inhibiting monamine oxidase.

D
blocking the release of ACh.

E
inhibiting AChE.

A

E
inhibiting AChE

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23
Q

A 53-year-old man is scheduled to receive vecuronium as an adjuvant muscle relaxant during abdominal surgery. The dose of vecuronium may have to be adjusted if this patient is also receiving

A
gentamicin.

B
penicillin.

C
ibuprofen.

D
acetaminophen.

E
prednisone.

A

A
gentamicin

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24
Q

A 72-year-old woman receives succinylcholine as an adjuvant muscle relaxant during knee surgery. This drug acts by

A
blocking ACh at nicotinic receptors of neuromuscular endplate.

B
blocking ACh at nicotinic receptors in the adrenal medulla.

C
increasing Na+ and K+ permeability of the postsynaptic neuromuscular membrane.

D
blocking the transmission of the action potential along the nerve axon.

E
blocking the release of ACh from neuromuscular presynaptic vesicles.

A

C
increasing Na+ and K+ permeability of the postsynaptic neuromuscular membrane.

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25
Q

A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room because he has ingested a large amount of a nicotine-containing product. Serious nicotine toxicity in this child is the result of

A
blockade of transmission at autonomic ganglia and neuromuscular junctions.

B
blockade of muscarinic receptors.

C
stimulation of adrenergic receptors.

D
blockade of adrenergic receptors.

E
stimulation of muscarinic receptors.

A

A
blockade of transmission at autonomic ganglia and neuromuscular junctions.

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26
Q

A 72-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease is being treated with selegiline. Over the past 2 weeks he has noticed an increase in insomnia and anxiety. It is likely these symptoms are due to

A
dopamine.

B
ephedrine.

C
amphetamine.

D
serotonin.

E
caffeine.

A

C
amphetamine.

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27
Q

A 75-year-old woman with Parkinson’s disease is being treated with the combination of levodopa/carbidopa. Entacapone is added. This patient is treated with this combination of drugs to increase the amount of which of the following substance to reach the CNS?

A
Carbidopa

B
Levodopa

C
Entacapone

D
Acetylcholine

E
Dopamine

A

B
Levodopa

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28
Q

A 66-year-old woman with Alzheimer’s disease is being treated with the cholinesterase inhibitor donepezil. The patient’s family learns that donepezil is related to pesticides. When the family expresses concern they are told that donepezil may decrease the rate of cognition decline by increasing the concentration of which substance in the brain?

A
Acetylcholine

B
Serotonin

C
Dopamine

D
Epinephrine

E
Glutamate

A

A
Acetylcholine

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29
Q

A 73-year-old man with Alzheimer’s disease is being treated with donepezil. Because his cognition is deteriorating, memantine is added. Memantine is a noncompetitive antagonist of the

A
dopamine D2 receptor.

B
NMDA-type glutamate receptor.

C
β adrenergic receptor.

D
α adrenergic receptor.

E
5-HT2 serotonergic receptor.

A

B
NMDA-type glutamate receptor.

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30
Q

A 57-year-old man with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is treated with riluzole. The patient’s family is told that the drug may extend survival by

A
2 to 3 days.

B
2 to 3 months.

C
2 to 3 years.

D
an indefinite period of time.

E
none of the above; because it is not thought to extend survival.

A

B
2 to 3 months.

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31
Q

A 65-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease is treated with pramipexole. This drug acts as an agonist at striatal

A
5-HT serotonergic receptors.

B
D1 dopaminergic receptors.

C
norepinephrine adrenergic receptors.

D
D2 dopaminergic receptors.

E
opiate μ receptors.

A

D
D2 dopaminergic receptors.

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32
Q

A woman with facial muscle spasms is treated with an
agent that inhibits the release of acetylcholine. Which
side effect is most likely to occur in this patient?
(A) bradycardia
(B) urinary incontinence
(C) dry mouth
(D) diarrhea
(E) constriction of the pupils

A

(C) dry mouth

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33
Q

A man complains of dry mouth after radiation therapy
for throat cancer, and he is treated with cevimeline.
Which mechanism produces the therapeutic effect of
this drug?
(A) activation of muscarinic M2 receptors
(B) increased formation of IP3
(C) increased cAMP levels
(D) increased cGMP levels
(E) increased potassium efflux

A

(B) increased formation of IP3

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34
Q

A woman in a smoking cessation program receives a
drug that reduces craving and withdrawal effects.
Which effect results from receptor activation by this
drug?
(A) sodium influx
(B) potassium efflux
(C) increased cAMP
(D) increased cGMP
(E) IP3 formation

A

(A) sodium influx

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35
Q

A man receives a drug that increases cGMP levels.
Which adverse effect is most likely to result from this
medication?
(A) constipation
(B) cough
(C) dry mouth
(D) sedation
(E) headache

A

(E) headache

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36
Q

An agricultural worker is brought to the emergency
department after abrupt onset of bowel and bladder
incontinence and muscle weakness while she was
working. She is given oxygen and antidotal drug
treatments. Which drug mechanism would increase
muscle strength in this patient?
(A) blockade of muscarinic receptors
(B) activation of nicotinic receptors
(C) increased neurotransmitter degradation
(D) induction of drug-metabolizing enzymes
(E) increased urinary excretion of weak acids

A

(C) increased neurotransmitter degradation

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37
Q

Which drug produces transient muscle fasciculations
followed by muscle paralysis that is not reversed by
neostigmine?
(A) rocuronium
(B) hyoscyamine
(C) cisatracurium
(D) succinylcholine
(E) pancuronium

A

(D) succinylcholine

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38
Q

Toxic doses of scopolamine would be expected to cause
all of the following effects EXCEPT
(A) hallucinations.
(B) bronchospasm.
(C) hyperthermia.
(D) urinary retention.
(E) blurred vision.

A

(B) bronchospasm.

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39
Q

Topical ocular administration of tropicamide will cause
(A) contraction of the ciliary muscle.
(B) vasoconstriction.
(C) miosis.
(D) relaxation of the iris sphincter muscle.
(E) lacrimation.

A

(D) relaxation of the iris sphincter muscle.

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40
Q

The therapeutic use of darifenacin is based on its
ability to
(A) relax bronchial smooth muscle.
(B) relax urinary bladder smooth muscle.
(C) relax uterine smooth muscle.
(D) inhibit salivary secretions.
(E) relax gastrointestinal muscle.

A

(B) relax urinary bladder smooth muscle.

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41
Q

Sugammadex, used to reverse an overdose with
neuromuscular blockers, has a unique mechanism of
action best described as which one of the following?
(A) agonist at cholinergic acetylcholine receptors
(B) antagonist at cholinergic acetylcholine receptors
(C) antagonist at muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
(D) forms an inactive drug complex
(E) inhibits acetylcholinesterase

A

(D) forms an inactive drug complex

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42
Q

Which property is characteristic of the sympathetic
nervous system?
(A) discrete activation of specific organs
(B) long preganglionic neurons
(C) action terminated by cholinesterase
(D) inhibits the enteric nervous system
(E) activated by increased arterial blood pressure

A

(D) inhibits the enteric nervous system

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43
Q

A man is given a drug that inhibits the synthesis of
norepinephrine. Which response would result from this
treatment?
(A) diarrhea
(B) bronchodilation
(C) renin secretion
(D) decreased heart rate
(E) salivation

A

(D) decreased heart rate

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44
Q

A man with diabetic autonomic neuropathy complains
of dizziness and fainting when arising from bed in the
morning. Which drug would be most beneficial to this
patient?
(A) dobutamine
(B) albuterol
(C) midodrine
(D) clonidine
(E) isoproterenol

A

(C) midodrine

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45
Q

A woman is given topical ocular apraclonidine after
cataract surgery. Which mechanism is responsible for
the desired effect?
(A) inhibition of adenylyl cyclase
(B) activation of adenylyl cyclase
(C) activation of phospholipase C
(D) inhibition of phospholipase C
(E) release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

(A) inhibition of adenylyl cyclase

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46
Q

A child with asthma is being treated with albuterol to
prevent bronchospasm. Which side effect is typically
associated with this drug?
(A) sedation
(B) rapid heart rate
(C) muscle weakness
(D) low blood pressure
(E) blurred vision

A

(B) rapid heart rate

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47
Q

After being stung by a bee, a child is given an
intramuscular injection of epinephrine. Which action
would lead to bronchodilation?
(A) increased cAMP levels
(B) increased cyclic guanosine monophosphate
(cGMP) levels
(C) increased IP3 levels
(D) calcium influx
(E) sequestration of calcium

A

(A) increased cAMP levels

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48
Q

A woman experiences pain and ischemia in her finger
after accidentally injecting it with epinephrine that she
carries for emergency treatment of severe allergic
reactions.
(A) alfuzosin
(B) carvedilol
(C) betaxolol
(D) phenoxybenzamine
(E) phentolamine

A

(E) phentolamine

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49
Q

A man complains of urinary urgency, frequency, and
nocturia and is found to have enlargement of the
prostate gland.
(A) alfuzosin
(B) carvedilol
(C) betaxolol
(D) phenoxybenzamine
(E) phentolamine

A

(A) alfuzosin

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50
Q

A patient with essential hypertension requires a drug
that reduces both cardiac output and peripheral
resistance.
(A) alfuzosin
(B) carvedilol
(C) betaxolol
(D) phenoxybenzamine
(E) phentolamine

A

(B) carvedilol

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51
Q

A man with episodic severe hypertension is found to
have markedly elevated levels of epinephrine and
norepinephrine metabolites in his urine and needs a
long-acting drug to lower blood pressure before surgery.
(A) alfuzosin
(B) carvedilol
(C) betaxolol
(D) phenoxybenzamine
(E) phentolamine

A

(D) phenoxybenzamine

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52
Q

Which drug is most likely to slow recovery from
hypoglycemia in a diabetic patient who has taken an
excessive dose of insulin?
(A) metoprolol
(B) doxazosin
(C) propranolol
(D) phenoxybenzamine
(E) atenolol

A

(C) propranolol

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53
Q

A 65-year-old man with the diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease is being treated with donepezil. This drug acts by which of the following mechanisms?

A. Stimulating the release of acetylcholine

B. Blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine

C. Inhibiting monoamine oxidase

D. Blocking the release of acetylcholine

E. Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase

A

E. Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase

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54
Q

Norepinephrine is synthesized from which amino acid

A

tyrosine

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55
Q

Norepinephrine activates what?

A

post synaptic alpha and beta adrenoceptors as well as presynaptic auto-receptors

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56
Q

How is Norepinephrine removed

A

neuronal uptake via the catecholamine transporter protein

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57
Q

What enzymes primarily inactivate Norephrinephrine that ahs not been taken up by neurons?

A

Enzymes catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO)

58
Q

What do Adrenoceptor alpha agonists treat?

A

Used to treat cardiovascular emergencies to the common cold

59
Q

Where are Alpha adrenoceptors are located? primarily located in smooth muscle at sympathetic neuroeffector junctions and are also found in exocrine glands and in the CNS

A

primarily located in smooth muscle at sympathetic neuroeffector junctions, exocrine glands and in the CNS

60
Q

What do A1 mediate?

A

contraction of vascular smooth muscle, iris dilator muscle and smooth muscle in the lower urinary tract (Bladder, Urethra, and Prostate)

61
Q

What do A2 Mediate?

A
  • feedback inhibition of norepinephrine release from nerve terminals and reduces aqueous humor production
  • platelet aggregation, inhibit insulin secretion when sympathetic nervous system is activated
62
Q

Where are A2 found?

A

sympathetic postganglionic neurons, blood platelets and in ocular, adipose, intestinal hepatic, renal and endocrine tissue

63
Q

SImple answers only

Alpha1 does..

A

Contract Smooth Muscle

64
Q

Simple Answers Only

Alpha2 does…

A

Presynaptic Nerve Terminals

65
Q

Simple Answers Only

Beta1 does…

A

Hearts and Kidneys

66
Q

Simple answers only

Beta2 does

A

Relaxes smooth muscles, liver, pancreas, eye

67
Q

Simple answers only

Beta3 does

A

adipose tissue, (possibly bladder)

68
Q

Adrenoceptor Beta agonists (B1) does

A
  • Increases secretion of renin increasing blood pressure (Positive chronotrope, Positive inotrope, Positive dromotrope)
  • Increases heart rate, contractility and conduction
69
Q

Adrenoceptor Beta agonists (B2) does

A
  • Causes glycogenolysis
  • Relaxes smooth muscles (Bronchial, Uterine, Smooth Muscle)
  • Increases uptake of potassium in skeletal muscles
70
Q

Adrenoceptor Beta agonists (B3) does

A
  • Causes lipolysis
  • Thermogenesis in skeletal muscle
  • Uterine relaxation
  • First approved drug in this class is Myrabegron (Myrbetriq)
71
Q

Adrenoceptor Agonists Dopamine (D1) does

A

Cause relaxation of vascular smooth muscle

72
Q

Adrenoceptor Agonists Dopamine (D2)

A

Modulation of neurotransmission in the sympathetic and CNS

73
Q

Catecholamines (Naturally Occuring)

A
  • Norepinephrine
  • Epinephrine
  • Dopamine
74
Q

Catecholamines (synthetics)

A
  • Isoproterenol
  • Dobutamine
75
Q

Direct Acting Catecholamine

Dobutamine (Receptor/Effects and Clinical Use)

A

B1 = Cardiac Stimulation
B2 = Vasodialation
Clinical Use = Cardiogenic shock, Heart failure, Cardiac stimulation in surgery

76
Q

Direct Acting Catecholamines

Dopamine (Receptor/Effects and Clinical Use)

A

D1: Renal vasodilation
B1: Cardiac stimulation
B1 and A1: Increase blood pressure
Clinical Use: Cardiogenic shock, Septic shock, Heart failure, Hypotension, Hypovolemic shock

77
Q

Direct Acting Catecholamines

Epinephrine (Receptor/Effects and Clinical Use)

A

A1 Vasoconstriction
B1 Cardiac Stimulation, Increase BP
B2 Bronchodilation
Clinical Use: Anaphylaxis, Cardiac arrest, V. Fib, Reduction in bleeding for surgery, Prolongs anesthetics

78
Q

Direct Acting Catecholamines

Isoproterenol (Receptor/Effects and Clinical Use)

A

B1 Cardiac Stimulation, Increase BP
B2 Bronchodilation
Clinical Use: AV block and Bradycardia

79
Q

Direct Acting Catecholamines

Norepinephrine (Receptor/Effects and Clinical Use)

A

A1 Vasoconstriction and increased BP
Clinical Uses: Hypotension and Shock

80
Q

Direct Acting Non-Catecholamines

Albuterol (Receptor/Effects and Clinical Use)

A

B1 Bronchodilation
Clinical Use: Asthma/COPD

81
Q

Direct Acting Non-Catecholamines

Brimonidine (Receptor/Effects and Clinical Use)

A

A2 Decrease aqueous humor
Clinical Use: Open angle glaucoma, Ocular hypertension

82
Q

Direct Acting Non-Catecholamines

Clonidine (Receptor/Effects and Clinical Use)

A

A2/Imidazoline receptors
Decreased Sympathetic outflow reduces blood pressure
Clinical Use: Hypertension, Opioid dependence, DTs, Tremors

83
Q

Direct Acting Non-Catecholamines

Midodrine (Receptor/Effects and Clinical Use)

A

A1 Vasoconstriction
Clinical Use: Orthostatic hypotension

84
Q

Direct Acting Non-Catecholamines

Oxymetazoline
(Receptor/Effects and Clinical Use)

A

A1 Vasoconstriction
Clinical Uses: Nasal and ocular decongestant

85
Q

Direct Acting Non-Catecholamines

Terbutaline
(Receptor/Effects and Clinical Use)

A

B2 Bronchodilation
Clinical Use: Asthma, Premature labor

86
Q

Direct Acting Non-Catecholamines

Phenylephrine
(Receptor/Effects and Clinical Use)

A

A1 Vasoconstriction, Increased blood pressure
A1 mydriasis
Clinical Use: Nasal and ocular decongestant, mydriasis, shock, maintain blood pressure

87
Q

Indirect Acting Adrenoceptor Agonists

Amphetamine (Receptor/Effects and Clinical Use)

A

Increase in NE release,
CNS Stimulation
Clinical Use: Narcolepsy, ADHD

88
Q

Indirect Acting Adrenoceptor Agonists

Cocaine (Receptor/Effects and Clinical Use)

A

Inhibition of NE uptake
Clinical Use: Local Anesthesia

89
Q

Mixed Acting Adrenoceptor Agonists

Ephedrine
(Receptor/Effects and Clinical Use)

A

A1 Vasoconstriction
Clinical Use: Nasal Decongestant, Bronchodilation, Hypotension

90
Q

Mixed Acting Adrenoceptor Agonists

Pseudoephedrine (Receptor/Effects and Clinical Use)

A

A1 Vasoconstriction
Clinical Use: Nasal Decongestant

91
Q

Mirabegron (Myrbetriq)

A
  • Selective agonist of the B3 adrenoceptor
  • Relaxes the detrusor smooth muscle which increases urinary bladder capacity
  • Used in treatment of overactive bladder
  • Can increase blood pressure in some patients
  • Inhibits hepatic enzyme Cyp2D6
92
Q

Metyrosine (Demser)

A
  • used in pheochromocytoma (Adrenal tumor) patients
  • MOA: competitively inhibit tyrosine hydroxylase which inhibits synthesis of norepinephrine and epinephrine.
  • assists in reducing hypertension
93
Q

What do Sympatholytic drugs treat?

A
  • Drugs used to reduce sympathetic stimulation
  • Cardiovascular Diseases
  • Glaucoma
  • Migraine
  • Urinary Obstruction
94
Q

Sympatholytic drugs (MOA)

A
  • Blockade of a1 adrenoceptors: Relaxes vascular and other smooth muscles in tissues innervated by the Sympathetic Nervous System
  • Blockade of B adrenoceptors: Reduces sympathetic stimulation of the heart
95
Q

Non-Selective A blocker

Phentolamine

A
  • IV administered onset is immediate with delay of onset in IM and SQ administration
  • Used in the treatment of acute hypertensive episodes caused by a adrenoceptor agonists
  • Used to counteract localized ischemia caused by extravasation of epinephrine or other vasopressor amines
  • Not used in management of chronic hypertension as it evokes reflex tachycardia and may cause dizziness, headache, nasal congestion
96
Q

Non-Selective A blocker

Phenoxybenzamine

A
  • Decreases vascular resistance and lowers both supine and standing blood pressure
  • Used to treat hypertensive episodes in patients with pheochromocytoma
  • Used to control blood pressure until surgery can be performed
97
Q

Selective alpha 1a blockers (OSIN)

Alfuzosin, Doxazosin, Prazosin, Silodosin, Tamsulosin, and Terazosin

A
  • Administered orally
  • Selectively bind to alpha receptors and relax vascular and smooth muscle of the bladder, urethra, and prostate
  • They produce vasodilation and decrease blood pressure and are also used to treat hypertension
  • Do not cause as much reflex tachycardia because blockade on sympathetic neurons prevents feedback inhibition of NE release and leads to increased activation of cardiac b1 adrenoceptors and tachycardia
  • Helpful in treating lower urinary tract symptoms associated with BPH and other conditions
  • Relaxes smooth muscle in the urinary tract and relieves symptoms of outflow obstruction
  • Can be used in combination with Finasteride (Proscar) and Dutasteride (Avodart)
  • Can also be used in combination with 5 Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors Sildenafil (Viagra) and others
  • The more selective agent Silodosin (Rapaflo) has less risk of hypotension dizziness, and sedation and is not as potent at reducing blood pressure and is not approved to use for treatment of hypertension
98
Q

Silodosin (Rapaflo) benefit vs other Selective Alpha Blockers

A
  • has less risk of hypotension dizziness, and sedation and is not as potent at reducing blood pressure
  • is not approved to use for treatment of hypertension
99
Q

Carvedilol (Coreg)

A

** Blocks A1, B1 and B2 receptors
* Possesses antioxidant activity
* Contribute to cardioprotective effects in patients with CV disorders
* Inhibits lipid peroxidation in myocardial membranes
* Scavenging of free radicals
* Inhibition of neutrophil release of oxygen
* Antiapoptotic properties that prevent myocyte death and reduces infarct size in persons with myocardial ischemia
* Third generation beta blocker
* Decreases cardia afterload
* Reduces mortality in patients with heart failure

100
Q

Labetalol (Trandate)

A

** Blocks A1, B1 and B2 receptors

  • Used to treat hypertension
  • More potent effect on beta receptors than alpha receptors
  • Decreases heart rate and cardiac output
  • Decreases peripheral vascular resistance as a result of alpha blockade
101
Q

A 65 y/o African American malle patient presents with BPH and is on treatment for hypertension. You have provided doxazosin (cardura). What side effect may occur with its use?

A

Orthostasis

102
Q

Varenicline (Chantix) is a partial agonist at the nicotinic receptor subtype found int he brain and is used in smoking cessation. What is a common side effect with its use?

A

Dry Mouth

103
Q

Black widow spider venom (a-latrotoxin)

A
  • “Think Opposite of No See, No Pee, No Spit, No S#%!”
  • Stimulates vesicular release of acetylcholine
  • Produces excessive activation of acetylcholine receptors
  • Abdominal muscle contractions and pain
  • Salivation, Lacrimation, Sweating
  • Tachycardia and Blood pressure changes
  • Death is rare
104
Q

Botulinum Toxin

A
  • Produced by Clostridium botulinum
  • Blocks exo-cytototic release of acetylcholine and inhibits neuromuscular transmission
  • Used for number of conditions
  • Localized muscle spasms of the eyes, face, hands, and upper limbs, tremor,
  • Dystonia
  • Excessive salivation and Parkinsonism
  • Muscle relaxation, Strabismus, Dysphonia, Bruxism, Blepharospasm
  • Bladder spasm and Urinary incontinence
  • Most common side effects include dry mouth and dysphagia
105
Q

Prescription of a muscarinic cholinoceptor antagonist with a quaternary amine group is most appropriate for the patient with which of the following conditions?
A. A 50-year-old woman with angle-closure glaucoma
B. A 34-year-old man with gastrointestinal infectious enteritis
C. A 66-year-old man with mild dementia
D. A 56-year-old diabetic woman with urinary tract obstruction

A

C. A 66-year-old man with mild dementia

106
Q

A 16-year-old teenager is going on his first deep sea fishing trip and is using a scopolamine patch to ward off sea sickness. Which of the following is the most likely adverse effect he will experience?
A. Bradycardia
B. Drowsiness
C. Miosis
D. Urinary urgency

A

B. Drowsiness

107
Q

scopolamine (Class, MOA, Side Effect, Contraindications)

A
  • Class: muscarinic Receptor Antagonist (Belladonna Alkaloids)
  • MOA: acetylcholine for its receptor at the parasympathetic neuroeffector junction to inhibit the effects of the PNS. It relaxes smooth muscle, increases heart rate, increases cardiac conduction, and inhibits exocrine gland secretion.
  • Side Effect: difficulty speaking, dry and itchy eyes, headache, burning sensation when urinating, increased heart rate, blurred vision, coma, delirium, decreased sweating, increased thirst, urinary retention, palpitations, Drowsiness
  • Contraindications: closed or wide angle glaucoma, severe liver disease, decreased kidney function, psychotic disorders, and those who have systemic mastocytosis.
108
Q

oxybutynin (Class, MOA, Side Effect, Contraindications)

A
  • Class:Synthetic Muscarinic Receptor Antagonist. I
  • MOA: competes with acetylcholine food its receptor at the parasympathetic neuroeffector junction. It inhibits the effects of the PNS and relaxes smooth muscle in the bladder.
  • Side Effects:
  • Contraindications:
109
Q

The most frequent adverse effect seen with anticholinergic drugs used to treat urge incontinence is
A. Anxiety
B. Dry mouth
C. Sweating
D. Elevated blood pressure

A

B. Dry mouth

110
Q

Acetylcholine Receptors: Muscarinic Receptors

A
  • Found in smooth muscle, cardiac tissue and glands
  • Also found in the CNS on presynaptic sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves and at autonomic ganglia
  • M1-M5
  • M1, M2, M3 receptor stimulation leads to activation of guanine nucleotide binding proteins (G proteins) increasing or decreasing second messengers
  • M2 and M4 receptors are coupled with Ga proteins and decreases CAMP by inhibiting adenylate cyclase and increases potassium efflux
  • M1, M3, M5 receptors are coupled with G proteins and stimulates phospholipase C leading to formation of inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG)
  • IP3 increases release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and promotes muscle contraction and glandular secretion as well as nitric oxide synthesis leading to vascular smooth muscle relaxation
111
Q

Nicotinic Receptors

A
  • Found at all autonomic ganglia
  • Somatic neuromuscular junctions
  • Central Nervous System
  • Receptors are ligand gated sodium channels leading to sodium influx and membrane depolarization
  • Leads to the depolarization of the motor neuron end plate and leads to the release of calcium and to the contraction of muscles
  • Pentamers formed by five transmembrane polypeptide subunits A-E
  • In the brain nicotinic receptors cause excitation of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons
111
Q

Nicotinic Receptors

A
  • Found at all autonomic ganglia
  • Somatic neuromuscular junctions
  • Central Nervous System
  • Receptors are ligand gated sodium channels leading to sodium influx and membrane depolarization
  • Leads to the depolarization of the motor neuron end plate and leads to the release of calcium and to the contraction of muscles
  • Pentamers formed by five transmembrane polypeptide subunits A-E
  • In the brain nicotinic receptors cause excitation of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons
112
Q

Acetylcholine agonists

A
  • Direct acting agonists bind and activate acetylcholine receptors
  • Indirect acting agonists increase the synaptic concentration of acetylcholine by inhibiting cholinesterase or by augmenting acetylcholine signal transduction
113
Q

Choline esters: Direct acting acetylcholine receptor agonists (PNS)

A
  • Ocular Effects: Increase lacrimal gland secretion, Stimulate contraction of iris and ciliary muscles (miosis)
  • Respiratory Effects: Increases bronchial muscle contractions and increases secretion of mucus (bronchoconstriction)
  • Cardiac Effects: Decrease impulse formation in the SA node reducing HR, Slow the action potential through AV node, Increase the PR interval,
  • Vascular Effects: Vasodilation is mediated by M3 receptors in vascular endothelial cells with activation of Nitric oxide synthetase causing vascular smooth muscle relaxation
  • GI/GU Effects:
  • *Stimulate salivary, gastric, and other secretions, Increase contraction of GI smooth muscle in the gut wall increasing motility
  • *Stimulates the bladder detrusor muscle and relaxes the internal sphincter of the bladder promoting emptying of the bladder (Micturition)
  • *Adverse effects include Excessive Salivation, Diarrhea, Intestinal Cramps, Urinary Incontinence
114
Q

Acetylcholine

A
  • Choline ester of acetic acid
  • Rapidly hydrolyzed by cholinesterase and has an extremely short duration of action
    *
115
Q

Bethanechol

A
  • Choline esters of carbamic acid
  • Resistant to hydrolysis by cholinesterase
  • is used to selective activate muscarinic receptors used to stimulate bladder or GI muscle without affecting heart rate or blood pressure
  • Used in neurogenic urinary retention after receiving anesthetics or drugs during childbirth or surgery (never used IV due to risk of hypotension and bradycardia)
116
Q

Carbachol

A
  • Choline esters of carbamic acid
  • Resistant to hydrolysis by cholinesterase
  • used as a solution instilled intraocularly to produce miosis during surgery
117
Q

Plant Alkaloids: Pilocarpine

A
  • May have Muscarinic and Nicotinic Activity
  • Used in the treatment of Chronic Open Angle Glaucoma by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor
  • Causes miosis and worsens night vision
  • Used in xerostomia to stimulate salivation
118
Q

Cevimeline

A
  • M3 receptor agonist
  • Used to treat dry mouth in patients who have undergone radiation therapy for head and neck cancer and patients with Sjogren’s syndrome an autoimmune disease
  • Use with caution in those with asthma or cardiac arrhythmias
119
Q

Varencicline

A
  • Partial agonist of nicotinic receptors found in the brain that mediates reinforcement effects of nicotine in smokers
120
Q

Cholinesterase Inhibitors

A

Prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine at all cholinergic synapses

121
Q

Reversible Cholinesterase Inhibitors: Edrophonium

A
  • Edrophonium prevents the hydrolysis of acetylcholine by cholinesterase and it rapidly increases acetylcholine concentrations at synapses such as the somatic neuromuscular junction
  • Used for two purposes
  • During anesthesia it is used to reverse the effects of neuromuscular blockade caused by neuromuscular blocking drugs
  • Used in the diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis and in distinguishing myasthenic crisis and cholinergic crisis
122
Q

Neostigmine, Physostigmine, Pyridostigmine

A
  • Used in the long-term treatment of Myasthenia Gravis and improve muscle tone and reduce eyelid and facial ptosis
  • If excessive doses are used muscle weakness can increase as a result of a depolarizing neuromuscular blockade resulting in excessive levels of acetylcholine
  • Used to reverse the effects of curariform neuromuscular blocking drugs when muscle relaxation is no longer required
  • Neostigmine has been used in the treatment of postoperative urinary retention and abdominal distention
  • Physostigmine has been used to treat glaucoma and is used as an antidote to overdose of atropine or other antimuscarinic drugs and other toxic plants like night shade and jimson weed
123
Q

Quasi-reversible cholinesterase inhibitors

A
  • Used as pesticides (Echothiophate, Isoflurophate, Malathion) (Malathion treats head lice)
  • Used as chemical warfare (Soman and Sarin)
  • Responsible for cases of accidental and intentional poisonings
  • Organophosphate toxicity can occur after dermal or ocular exposure or after oral ingestion
  • Augment cholinergic neurotransmission at both central and peripheral synapses producing salivation, lacrimation, miosis, accommodative spasm, bronchoconstriction, intestinal cramps and urinary incontinence
  • May lead to muscle weakness, seizures, respiratory depression, and coma
  • Echothiophate Iodide used to treat Glaucoma, Strabismus, and Accommodative Esotropia
124
Q

Management of organophosphate poisoning

A
  • Use of atropine to block excessive acetylcholine
  • Use of Pralidoxime to regenerate cholinesterase
125
Q

Centrally acting Reversible Cholinesterase inhibitors

A
  • Donepezil (Aricept), Galantamine (Razadyne), Rivastigmine (Exelon)
  • Readily cross the blood brain barrier
  • Increase the centrally acting acetylcholine at synapses in the brain
  • Used to treat Alzheimers dementia
126
Q

Type 5 Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors

A
  • Sildenafil, Tadalafil, Vardenafil
  • Tadalafil is approved to treat Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy BPH in men
  • Adverse effects include hypotension angina, prolonged erection
127
Q

Riociguat (Adempas)

A
  • Used to treat PAH with a dual mode of action
  • It sensitizes soluble cyclic guanylate cyclase (sGC)to endogenous Nitric Oxide by stabilizing the No-sGC binding complex and directly stimulates sGC without NO present via different binding site
  • Shown improvement in exercise and functional class in clinical trials
128
Q

Varenicline (Chantix) is a partial agonist at the nicotinic receptor subtype found in the brain and is used in smoking cessation. What is a common side effect with its use?

A

vivid dreams

129
Q

Muscarinic Receptor Antagonists:
Belladonna Alkaloids

A

Atropine, Hyoscyamine (Levsin), Scopolamine (Transderm Scop)

130
Q

Muscarinic Receptor Antagonists: Synthetic Muscarinic Receptor Antagonists

A

Dicyclomine (Bentyl), Glycopyrrolate (Robinul), Ipratropium (Atrovent), Oxybutynin (Ditropan), Tropicamide (Mydriacyl)

131
Q

Nicotinic Receptor Antagonists

A
  • Ganglionic Blocking Agents: (Mecamylamine)
  • Nondepolarizing Neuromuscular Blocking Agents: (Pancuronium (Pavulon), Rocuronium (Zemuron), Cisatracuronium (Nimbex)
  • Depolarizing Neuromuscular Blocking Agents: Succinylcholine (Anectine)
  • Reversal Agent: (Sugammadex (Bridion))
132
Q

Acetylcholine Antagonists (MOA)

A

Selectively block either muscarinic receptors or nicotinic receptors

133
Q

Nicotine Receptor Antagonists

A
  • Neuromuscular blocking agents
  • Largely used by anesthesia for management of patients in surgery or on ventilation
134
Q

Muscarinic Receptor antagonists (MOA)

A
  • Compete with acetylcholine for its receptors at parasympathetic neuroeffector junctions
  • Inhibit the effects of Parasympathetic Nerve Stimulation (Parasympatholytic Drugs)
  • Include the Belladonna Alkaloids
135
Q

Belladonna alkaloids: Atropine and Scopolamine

A
  • Atropine and Scopolamine are nonionized tertiary amines that are well absorbed from the gut and readily distributed to the CNS
  • Atropine when given topically in the eye has longer effects in the eyes of darker pigmented iris as it binds to pigments in the iris that slowly release the drugs
  • Muscarinic blockers inhibit the effects of PNS and thereby relax smooth muscle, increase heart rate, and cardiac conduction, and inhibit exocrine gland secretion
  • Atropine toxicity are expressed as “Blind as a bat, Mad as a hatter, Dry as a bone, and Red as a Beet”
  • Anti-secretory, Paralysis of accommodation, and Vasodilative effects
136
Q

Hyoscyamine (LEVSIN)

A
  • A levorotatory stereoisomer of racemic atropine is the natural form of the alkaloid that occurs in plants
  • Primarily responsible for the pharmacologic effects of atropine
  • Oral and Sublingual formulations are used to treat intestinal spasms in patients with IBS
  • Dosed as PO/SL 0.125-0.25mg q 4 hour as needed
  • Indications include: GI Tract spasm, Bladder spasms, IBS adjunct tx, PUD adjunct tx, Biliary colic adjunct, Renal colic adjunct, Rhinitis, and as adjunct for anesthesia, surgery, and in cases of cholinesterase inhibitor overdose
137
Q

Semisynthetic and Synthetic Muscarinic Receptor Antagonists

A
  • Ipratropium (Atrovent), Tiotropium (Spiriva) Used in Asthma, COPD, Bronchitis
  • Dicyclomine (Bentyl), Used in IBS for Intestinal Spasms
  • Oxybutyin (Ditropan), Solifenacin (Vesicare), Tolterodine (Detrol), Darifenacin (Enablex), Trospium (Sanctura)
  • Glycopyrrolate (Robinul, Cuvposa) Used preoperative to reduce respiratory secretions
  • Tropicamide (Topical ocular Mydriatic)
  • Pirenzepine Available in CA and Europe for reducing vagal nerve stimulation to reduce gastric acid in patients with PUD
138
Q

Nondepolarizing Neuromuscular blocking agents: Curariform Drugs

A
  • Atracurium, Cisatracurium, Pancuronium, Rocuronium, Vecuronium
  • Cisatracurium is preferred in patients with liver or renal impairment
  • Stimulate the release of histamine from mast cells and blocks autonomic ganglia and muscarinic receptors causing bronchospasm, hypotension, and tachycardia
  • Competitive antagonists of acetylcholine at nicotinic receptors in skeletal muscle
  • First paralyzes the small and rapidly moving muscles of the eyes and face then the larger muscles of limbs and trunk.
  • Finally it paralyzes the intercostal muscles and diaphragm causing respiration to cease
139
Q

Nondepolarizing Neuromuscular blocking agents: REVERSAL AGENTS

A
  • Reversed by administering a cholinesterase inhibitor (Neostigmine) which acts by increasing acetylcholine levels at the neuromuscular junction and counteracting the neuromuscular blockade. Reversal should not be attempted until patients have demonstrated partial recovery of neuromuscular function as measured using a nerve stimulator
  • Sugammadex (Bridion) is now available to rapidly reverse the effects of steroidal neuromuscular blocking agents and produces faster recovery of neuromuscular function than neostigmine and reduces the risk of postoperative respiratory dysfunction
140
Q

Depolarizing Neuromuscular Blocking Agents (Succinylcholine)

A
  • Succinylcholine binds to nicotinic receptors in skeletal muscle and causes persistent depolarization of the motor end plate
  • When first administered it produces transient muscle contractions called fasciculations
  • This is quickly followed by sustained muscle paralysis
  • Has a shorter duration of action owing to hits hydrolysis by plasma cholinesterase
  • No antidote exists to reverse an overdose of succinylcholine
  • Used to produce muscle relaxation before and during surgery and facilitate intubation of the airway.
141
Q

Succinylcholine (Adverse effects)

A
  • Succinylcholine can cause hyperkalemia in patients with unhealed skeletal muscle injury such as following severe burns or trauma
  • May cause postoperative myalgia, of the neck back and abdomen
  • May cause malignant hyperthermia
  • May cause histamine release triggering bronchospasm, hypotension, and excessive salivary and bronchial secretions
  • May also stimulate parasympathetic and sympathetic ganglia causing bradycardia (Vagal) or tachycardia and hypertension
    *