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Spirit Airbus A320 Systems > Switches / Functions > Flashcards

Switches / Functions Flashcards

1
Q

ENG Mode Start switch IGN/START does what?

A

Initiates the automatic start or manual start sequences, when END Master lever is set to off, or initiate the ignitors in flight as required

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2
Q

ENG Mode Start switch CRANK position?

A

Initiates dry crank process of associated engine, When ENG MASTER lever and ENG MAN START is off. ON of the ENG Master lever and ENG MAN Start is a Maintenance function.

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3
Q

ENG Master lever does what?

A
  • ON initiates the automatic start sequence or manual start sequence
  • OFF The FADEC shuts down the associated engine or aborts start sequence
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4
Q

ENG 1(2) FIRE light does?

A

Fire detected in corresponding engine (see chapter 26 Fire protection)

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5
Q

ENG 1(2) FAULT light does?

A

Amber light comes on and caution appears on ECAM
- Reasons:
Position of the HP fuel shutoff valve is abnormal
Automatic start sequence associated engine aborts
There is a malfunction of the thrust control

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6
Q

Landing GEAR Lever does?

A
  • Locks out lever on the ground
  • Locks landing gear up in the air over 260 Knots, Under 260kt HYD remains cut off as long as Lever is up.
  • Operaties of the GREEN Hyd system
  • Controlled by LGCIU 1 or 2, switches automatically each time lever actuated
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7
Q

LGCIU Receives position information from?

A

Landing gear, cargo doors, and landing flaps system

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8
Q

LGCIU receives gear position from proximity detectors when?

A
  • Landing gears are locked down or up
  • Shock absorbers are compressed or extended
  • Landing gear doors are open or closed
  • The Bogie are aligned or not
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9
Q

Sensors send to the LGCIU position for the following?

A
  • Manual selector valves
  • Locking shaft
  • Locking handle
  • Safety shaft
  • Door sills (if installed)
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10
Q

LGCIU detect electrical failures only in certain proximity switches in cargo system which are?

A
  • Locking shaft
  • Locking handle
  • Safety shaft

When detected indicates the NON LOCKED condition

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11
Q

RED ARROW next to landing gear lever indicates?

A
  • Landing gear is not locked down when aircraft is in the landing configuration and ECAM “GEAR NOT DOWN”
  • RA altitude less than 750ft and both engines N1 below 75%
  • RA altitude less than 750ft and FLAPS 3 or FULL
  • FLAPS 3 or FULL selected with both radio altimeters failed
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12
Q

Wipers speed?

A
  • 230 knots

- Make sure off on preliminary flow before power established

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13
Q

Batteries 1(2) Voltage needs to show?

A
  • At least 25.5 before turning on. If on or below charge with ground power for 20 minutes.
  • APU start after 30 minutes
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14
Q

Battery pb does what?

A

Controls the operation of the corresponding battery charging limiter. (BCL)

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15
Q

Battery charging limiter (BCL) controls?

A

Controls automatic connection and disconnection of the corresponding battery to the DC BAT BUS (3PP) by closing battery line contactor

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16
Q

When are the Batteries connected to the DC BAT BUS?

A
  • APU starting MASTER pb switch ON and N 95%
    NOTE: connection limited to 3 min when EMERG GEN on
  • Battery voltage below 26.5 volts charging, charging ends when current goes below 4 amperes, On ground immediately, Inflight after a time delay of 30 min
  • Loss of AC BUS 1 and 2 when below 100 knots EMGER GEN not supplying
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17
Q

If AC BUS 1 & 2 are not energized and no emergency gen what do the batteries supply power to?

A
  • Batt 1 supplies the AC STAT INV BUS and if speed greater than 50knots the AC ESS BUS
  • Batt 2 supplies the DC ESS BUS
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18
Q

What is the battery logic?

A

Automatic cut off logic prevents the batteries from discharging.

  • On the Ground
  • BAT pb switches are AUTO
  • Main power EXT PWR + GEN is off
  • Battery voltage is low
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19
Q

How can the flight crew rest contractors?

A

By switching the BATT pb switch to OFF then AUTO

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20
Q

When Bat 1 (2) pb is off?

A

Battery charge limiter is not operating, battery line contractor is open

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21
Q

Bat 1 (2) FAULT light indicates?

A

Comes on amber with a ECAM caution when the charging current for the corresponding battery is outside limits, battery contractor opens.

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22
Q

APU Fire test pb does what?

A
  • A continuse repetitive chime sounds
  • MASTER WARNING light flashes, APU fire waning appears on ECAM
  • APU FIRE pb lights up red
  • Squib light comes on white
  • Discharge light comes on Amber
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23
Q

What would you not see if ONLY on BAT power when testing APU?

A

You would not get the APU page to check oil quality.

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24
Q

Is testing the APU on BAT power a successful test?

A

Yes, due to the auto shut down feature of the APU on the ground.

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25
Q

What controls the APU?

A

The electronic control box (ECB) Which is a full authority digital electronic controller that performs the bulk of the APU system logic for all modes of engine operation

  • Sequences the start and monitors
  • Monitors bleed air
  • Sequences the shutdown
  • Controls the automatic shutdown
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26
Q

What does the APU fire pb do?

A
  • Shuts down APU
  • Silence the oral warning
  • Arms the squib
  • Closes LP fuel valve
  • Shuts off the APU fuel pump
  • Closes the APU Bleed valve and cross feed valve
  • Deactivates the APU Generator
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27
Q

Where does the APU get its fuel?

A

On older aircraft fuel systems, fuel comes from the left wing tank.
- When engine pumps are not operating APU has its own electric pump. When ENG pumps are turned on electric pump turns off.
New fuel system pumps is attached to the line and not in the tank.

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28
Q

When is power available on APU start.

A

At 95% N and 2 seconds and at 99% N and the AVAIL in green comes on the START switch.

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29
Q

Can the APU run on the ground without crew supervision?

A

Yes, do to the automatic shut down feature of the APU

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30
Q

In case of a APU fire what will happen?

A
  • APU fire warning operate in the cockpit
  • A horn in the nose gear bay sounds
  • The AVAIL light goes out
  • The FAULT light in the MASTER SW lights up
  • The APU shuts down
  • The APU fire extinguisher discharges
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31
Q

APU MASTER SW pb does what?

A

Controls the electric power supply for the operation of the APU and its protective features, controls the starting and shutdown sequences

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32
Q

ON position for the APU Master does what?

A
  • ON blue light comes on
  • Electric power goes to the APU system, The ECB performs a power-up test
  • The APU fuel isolation valve opens
  • If no fuel tank pump is running, the fuel pump operates
  • If the aircraft has ground power or main generator power, the APU page appears on the ECAM display
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33
Q

OFF position of the APU Master does what?

A
  • Manual shutdown sequence
  • The ON light on the MASTER SW pushbutton switch and the AVAIL light on the START pb go out
  • If the aircraft was using APU bleed air, The APU keeps running for a cooling period of 60 to 120 seconds
  • At 7% the air inlet flap closes
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34
Q

FAULT LT on APU MASTER switch means?

A
  • Amber light illuminates along with and ECAM message when automatic APU shutdown occurs. Happens in the event of:
  • Fire (on the ground)
  • Air inlet flap closes
  • Overspeed
  • No acceleration
  • No speed
  • EGT over temp
  • No flame
  • Underspeed
  • Reverse flow
  • Low oil pressure
  • High oil temperature
  • DC power lost
  • ECB failure
  • Loss of overspeed protection
  • Oil system shutdown
  • Inlet oversheat
  • Clogged oil filter
  • Loss of EGT thermocouples
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35
Q

What lights come in EMERG power

A
  • FO dome light, CAPT flood light, Standby Compass
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36
Q

Parking brake works off which HYD system?

A
  • Yellow system
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37
Q

Why do you set the parking brake before walk around?

A
  • To check the wear pins and for the captain to do his CVR test.
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38
Q

How man application of the parking brake on accumulator pressure do you have?

A

approx 7 applications

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39
Q

How long will the parking brake hold pressure for on?

A

12 hours

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40
Q

What setting could the flaps be set at before walk around?

A
  • Hot weather conditions above 40 degrees C flaps could be config 1, for cooling around bleed ducts and wing
  • Cold weather you may leave them down until engine shut down to get off contaminates.
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41
Q

Speed brakes controlled by what and which panels are used?

A
  • Controlled by the SECs

- Speedbrakes are actually spoilers 2,3, and 4

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42
Q

When will speed brakes extension is inhibited?

A
  • SEC1 and SEC3 both have faults
  • An elevator (L or R) has fault
  • Angle of Attack protection is active
  • Flaps are in configuration FULL
  • Thrust levers above MCT position
  • Alpha floor activation
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43
Q

The maximum speed brake deflection in manual flights?

A

40 degrees for spoilers 3 and 4

20 degrees for spoilers 2

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44
Q

The maximum speed brake deflection with the autopilot engaged is?

A

25 degrees for spoilers 3 and 4

12.5 for spoilers 2

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45
Q

On A320 when do you have full speed brakes and half?

A

Full speed brakes when AUTO PILOT is off, only half speed brakes with AUTO PILOT on.

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46
Q

On A321 when do you NOT have full speed brakes?

A

Config 3 or FULL

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47
Q

On A320 when do you NOT have full speed brakes?

A

Config FULL

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48
Q

When are speed brakes armed?

A

For takeoff and Landing

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49
Q

With ground spoilers armed when will they automatically deploy?

A

Speed exceeds 72 knots with bother thrust levers at idle

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50
Q

With ground spoilers NOT armed when will they deploy?

A

Speed exceeds 72 knots and 1 reverser is selected on (other thrust lever remains at idle)

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51
Q

Prob/window heat when is it powered?

A
  • Comes on automatically when at least 1 engine is running, or aircraft is in flight
  • Manual when crew switches it ON by the pb
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52
Q

What setting does the windshield operate on the ground and inflight?

A

It operates at low power in the ground, normal inflight

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53
Q

What does the Probe/window heat pb do in Auto?

A
  • Probe window are heated automatically inflight or on the ground 1 engine running except TAT probes (TAT in the air)
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54
Q

In the ON position Probe/Window heat?

A

Probes and Windows are heat permanently

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55
Q

Probes heated are?

A

Pitot heads
Static ports
Angle of attack probes (AOA)
Total air temperature (TAT) probes

56
Q

Three independent Probe Heat Computer (PHCs) automatically control and monitor?

A
  • Captain probes
  • F/O Probes
  • STBY probes
57
Q

APU Bleed pb ON does what?

A

Opens the APU bleed valve provided N Speed is greater than 95% and there is no leak on APU or the left side bleed.

58
Q

APU Bleed FAULT light indicates what?

A

Illuminates amber to indicate an APU leak is detected

59
Q

What would the x bleed do in the AUTO setting?

A

Crossbleed valve opens when the system is using APU Bleed air and it closes if the system detected a leak expect during engine start.

60
Q

X bleed valve is controlled by what?

61
Q

What does BMCs do?

A

Detect bleed air wing leak
Pylon bleed air leaks
APU bleed air leak

62
Q

IDG FAULT light indicates?

A

Low oil pressure
High oil temperature (185c)
ECAM message
FAULT light extinguishes when IDG disconnected

63
Q

When disconnecting IDG not exceed how long pb press/

A

3 seconds can damage disconnecting mechanism

64
Q

GEN 1(2) FAULT light indicates?

A

Amber when the GCU Generator Control Unit trips, or the line contractor opens without selecting the GEN2 pb to OFF

65
Q

GEN 1(2) pb OFF

A

The generator field is de-energized and the line contractor opens, fault circuit is also reset

66
Q

AC ESS FEED pb FAULT light indicates?

A

Amber when the AC ESS BUS is no powered and the ECAM caution message appears
NOTE: Total loss of the main GEN the AC ESS BUS is automatically supplied by the emergency GEN (or by the static inverter) if the emergency generator is not available.

67
Q

ALTN light on the AC ESS FEED pb indicates?

A

When the AC ESS FEED pb is selected to ALTN, manually sleets position. The AC ESS BUS is supplied by AC BUS 2

68
Q

What does the AC ESS FEED pb do?

A

Allows the AC ESS BUS to be powered from AC BUS 2, instead of AC BUS 1

69
Q

BUS TIE pb does what?

A
  • Open and close automatically to maintain power supply to both AC BUS 1 and AB BUS 2
  • One contactor closed when engine driven gen supplies the associated AC BUS and the APU GEN or external power supplies the other side
  • Both contactors close during single ENG operation or operation of the APU GEN or external power
70
Q

OFF of the BUS TIE pb what happens?

A
  • Each ENG GEN supplies its associated side of the electrical system
  • External power and the APU GEN are prevented from supplying electrical power
71
Q

APU FAULT light indicates?

A

Amber, ECAM caution message appears, trip is initiated by the GCU or line contactor opens without selecting the APU GEN pb to OFF

72
Q

GALLEY pb does what?

A

It is MAIN GALLEY and secondary galley power supply

73
Q

When does Main GALLEY power shed?

A
  • In flight when only one GEN is operating

- On the ground when only one engine GEN is operating

74
Q

GALLEY FAULT light indicates?

A

Amber with associated ECAM caution appears, when GEN load is above 100% of its rated output

75
Q

What is what is the power priority?

A 
ENG GEN
External power
APU
RAT 
Batteries
76
Q

What does each GEN produce for power?

A

90 KVA
400 HZ
3 Phase
115/200V

77
Q

How man TRUs, max amps?

A

2Q

200 AMPS

78
Q

RAT produces how much power

79
Q

Normal capacity of the batteries is?

A

23 ampere-hour

80
Q

How man types of circuit brakers?

A

3 types

  • Black not monitored
  • Green monitored
  • Green/Red not touch
81
Q

What does the RAT power?

A

AC ESS
AC ESS SHED
DC ESS
DC ESS SHED

82
Q

APU starting when on EMERG GEN powering is limited to?

83
Q

EXT PWR Avail light indicates?

A

External power is plugged in and external power parameters are normal

84
Q

Does the APU GEN have priority over external power?

A

No, external power overrides APU GEN, but ENG GEN over rides EXT Power

85
Q

Commercial pb does what in the ON position?

A

Commercial electrical loads are supplied to:
Cabin and cargo light
Water and toilet system
Drain mast ice protection
Galley
Passengers entertainment
Semi-automatic cargo loading (if installed)

86
Q

EMER ELEC PWR GEN 1 line pb does what?

A

GEN 1 line contactor opens and AC BUS 1 channel is supplied from GEN 2 through bus tie contactors This is used for the smoked drill.

87
Q

GEN 1 LINE Smoke would power?

A

Would only have a fuel pump in each fuel tank.

88
Q

Crew Supply 02 pb does what?

A

Controls valve open or closed to supply 02 to crew masks.

89
Q

02 pack system to auto does what?

A

Drops the masks in the back when cabin reaches 14,000 or hight

90
Q

How long is do packs have 02 for?

91
Q

Engine oil quantity for CEO?

A

min 11 quarts 0.3 pr hr consumption

92
Q

Engine oil Quantity for NEO?

A

min 14 quarts / OAT -30 16.5 quarts

93
Q

To do a CVR test you must?

A

Have the parking brake on and the GND CTL on position

94
Q

When will the CVR work automatically?

A

Turns on when aircraft AC power is established and after first ENG is stated and shuts off 5 minutes after engine shut down.

95
Q

TERR pb does what?

A

It gives oral warnings when approaching terrain.

It uses the data base in order to predict

96
Q

What does Mode 1 of the GPWS do?

A
  • Gives excessive rate of decent
97
Q

What does Mode 2 of the GPWS do?

A
  • Excessive terrain closure rate
98
Q

What does Mode 3 of the GPWS do?

A
  • Altitude loss after takeoff
99
Q

What does Mode 4 of the GPWS do?

A
  • Unsafe terrain clearance when not in landing configuration
100
Q

What does Mode 5 of the GPWS do?

A
  • Decent below G/S
101
Q

When do you do a FULL alignment of the ADIRSs?

A
  • When sectors are off
  • First flight of the day
  • Change of flight crew
  • If the GPS is not available
  • If flight crew expects long segments and poor coverage
  • If the deviation of the IRS position from the FMGC is greater than 5 miles
102
Q

When do you do a quick alignment of the ADIRSs?

A
  • When a through flight
103
Q

Why do you wait 5 second for the BAT light on ADIRSs?

A

Make sure they it will revert to BAT power

104
Q

What does the IR postion of the ADIRS do?

A
  • Ground speed
  • Aircraft position
  • Flight path vector
  • Heading
  • Attitude
  • Acceleration
  • Track
105
Q

What does the ADR portion of the ADIRS do?

A
  • Baro
  • Overspeed warning
  • Angle of attack
  • Temperature
  • Speed/Mach
106
Q

Steady FAULT light on IR mean?

A

The respect IR is lost

107
Q

Flashing FAULT light on IR mean?

A

You could recover only Altitude and Heading with ATT switch position.

108
Q

ADR FAULT amber light indicates?

A

Fault in the air data reference

109
Q

Off position of the ADR pb is?

A

Air Data is disconnected

110
Q

When will ALIGN light flash on the ground?

A
  • PPOS not entered within 10 min of alignment or 3 minutes of fast alignment
  • Large difference in LAT/Long between shutdown position and entered position
  • Aircraft movement
  • 1 min left in alignment process
111
Q

What does IR display your VSI as?

A

True read VSI

112
Q

If ADR provides backup VSI what would happen?

A

VSI would revert to traditional VSI

113
Q

How does the FMS determine aircraft position (4 sources)

A
  • ADIRS calculates hybrid of the GPS and IRS psoition
  • IRS
  • Radio Navigation
  • Internal NAV database
114
Q

FMS determine radio position using which two methods?

A

DME/DME preferred

VOR/DME

115
Q

When does Mixed IRS position match actual aircraft position?

A

Runway threshold FMS calculates position when thrust levers are moved to TOGA or FLEX

116
Q

What are ELCS and how many installed?

A

Elevator Aileron Computers, 2 installed

117
Q

What are SEC and how many installed?

A

Spoiler Elevator Computers, 3 installed

118
Q

What are FACs and how many installed?

A

Flight Augmentation computers 2 installed

119
Q

ELACs functions are?

A
  • Normal elevator
  • Normal aileron
  • Normal pitch and roll
  • Alternate pitch
  • Direct pitch and roll
  • Abnormal attitude
  • Aileron droop
  • Autopilot orders
120
Q

SECs functions are?

A
  • Normal roll
  • Speed brakes
  • Alternate pitch
  • Direct pitch
  • Direct roll
  • Abnormal attitude
    SEC 3
    Spoilers control 1 for flight and 1 for ground
121
Q

FACs functions are?

A
  • Rudder trim
  • Rudder travel limiting
  • Yaw control (damping, turn coordination)
  • Flight envelope protection vertical
  • Windshear protection
  • Low Energy warning protection
  • ALPHA floor protection
  • PFD speed scale (airspeed protection computation)
122
Q

ELACs control?

A

Elevator, Aileron, Trimmable THS

123
Q

SECs control?

A

Spoilers, Backup elevator, backup THS

SEC 1+2 provide backup elevator + THS

124
Q

FACs control?

A

Rudder, Provide characteristic speed, Aircraft weight calculations, Winshear warnings, Several other functions

125
Q

Normal Law protections are?

A
  • High Speed
  • High angle of attack (ALPHA protection AOA)
  • Load factor 2.5/-1.0, 2.0/0.0
  • Pitch Attitude 30up/15down
  • Bank angle 67
126
Q

Alternate Law protections are?

A
  • Load factor
  • Hight speed stability
  • Low speed stability
127
Q

Direct Law protections are?

128
Q

Mechanical Law has?

A

Only rudder and manual trim, thrust for direction

129
Q

Abnormal Attitude Law is what?

A
  • Bank angle above 125 degrees
  • Pitch attitude 50 degrees nose up and down 30 degrees nose down
  • Speed below 60-90 knots
130
Q

What law do you go into when leaving Abnormal Attitude Law?

A
  • When the aircraft returns within the normal flight envelop.
  • Pitch Alternate law is active
  • Roll Direct Law is active
  • Yaw Alternate Law is active
131
Q

What happens at ALPHA prot?

A
  • AOA is commanded instead load factor
  • Speed brake retracted
  • Autopilot disengages
  • Pitch trim up is inhibited
132
Q

When do wing tip brakes engage to lock the slats/flaps (4 red collared circuit brakers)?

A
  • Runaway
  • Overspeed
  • Asymmetry
  • Movement un-commanded
133
Q

When are spoilers inhibited?

A
  • SEC 1 and SEC 3 failure
  • ALPHA prot or ALPHA floor
  • Flaps in configuration FULL (configuration 3 for A321)
  • Failure of one Elevator
  • TOGA on thrust levers
134
Q

What happens at ALPHA Prot?

A
  • Nose up trim is inhibited
  • The autopilot if engaged disengaged
  • Pitch command change from load factor to angle of attack
    (can be override by pilot)
135
Q

ALPHA Max speed is generated by what?

A

By the FACs

136
Q

What is actual angles of attack Alpha Prot and Alpha Max?

A

Computed by the ELACs based of AOA not airspeed.

137
Q

What is Alpha floor A.FLOOR?

A

Is a function of the autothrust system and only available in normal. Provides TOGA thrust automatically regardless of thrust lever position. Alpha Floor is available from lift off to 100ft RA with the aircraft in landing configuration.

Spirit Airbus A320 Systems (47 decks)

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