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Advanced Networking > Switches > Flashcards

Switches Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three switch classifications?

A

Workgroup, Desktop Switch, and Backbone Switch.

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2
Q

What is CAM?

A

Content Addressable Memory

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3
Q

How large is CAM?

A

4K upgradable to 8K

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4
Q

What does CAM do?

A

Stores MAC addresses

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5
Q

What is the MPM?

A

Management Processor Module

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6
Q

How can MPM be summarized?

A

The brain of the Omnistack

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7
Q

Which files comprise the Omnistack software?

A

mp4.cmd, mp4.img, em4.img, ae4.img, mpm.cnf, mpm.cfg

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8
Q

What is the mp4.cmd file?

A

Startup file

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9
Q

What is the mp4.img file?

A

MPM operating system

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10
Q

What is the em4.img file?

A

8 port Ethernet driver

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11
Q

What is the ae4.img file?

A

ATM driver

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12
Q

What is the mpm.cnf file?

A

configuration file

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13
Q

What is the mpm.cfg file?

A

configuration file

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13
Q

What are the top level menu items?

A

File, Summary, VLAN, Networking, Interface, Security, System, Services, Switch, Help

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14
Q

How is the File UI menu used?

A

Manage system files

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15
Q

How is the Summary UI menu used?

A

Display summary information for VLANs, bridge, interfaces, etc.

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16
Q

How is the VLAN UI menu used?

A

VLAN management

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17
Q

How is the Networking UI menu used?

A

configure/ view network parameters for managing networking protocols

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18
Q

How is the Interface UI menu used?

A

View/configure physical interface parameters to manage ATM and Fast Ethernet uplink modules

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19
Q

How is the Security UI menu used?

A

Configure system security parameters (changing a password, rebooting a system)

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20
Q

How is the System UI menu used?

A

View/set system parameters (switch contents, configuring serial ports, CAM information)

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21
Q

How is the Services UI menu used?

A

View/set ATM service parameters

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22
Q

How is the Switch UI menu used?

A

Provides options to define frame translations

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23
Q

How is the Help UI menu used?

A

Provides textual help on how to use the UI and on each menu/submenu

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24
Q

What does the load command do?

A

Used to download (binary mode) system software using a serial interface.

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25
Q

What does the ftp command do?

A

Used to download from an ftp server or upload to another server.

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26
Q

What does the pwd command do?

A

Displays the name of the current working directory. Default is /flash

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27
Q

What does the ls command do?

A

Lists the files and directories

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28
Q

What does the rm command do?

A

Removes a file

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29
Q

What does the cp command do?

A

Copies a file

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30
Q

What does the view command do?

A

Displays a file on your terminal

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31
Q

What does the edit command do?

A

Enters the submenu of buffer edit commands

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32
Q

What does the imgcl command do?

A

Removes files from the flash of the OmniStack (by default, removes the mp4.img file and all files with the .img suffix)

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33
Q

What does the ss command do?

A

Displays MIB-II system group variables

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34
Q

What does the sc command do?

A

Displays chassis summary information

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35
Q

What does the si command do?

A

Displays current interface status information

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36
Q

What does the info command do?

A

Displays basic information on the switch

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37
Q

What does the dt command do?

A

Used to view or set the system time

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38
Q

What does the ser command do?

A

Used to configure the OmniStack serial port parameters

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39
Q

What does the mpm command do?

A

Displays mpm information

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40
Q

What does the slot command do?

A

Used to view slot table information

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41
Q

What does the systat command do?

A

Used to view statistics related to system, power and environment information

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42
Q

What does the memstat command do?

A

Used to view memory statistics

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43
Q

What does the fsck command do?

A

Performs a file system check of the /flash file system

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44
Q

What does the newfs command do?

A

Removes a complete /flash file system and all files within it. It then creates a new /flash file system which is empty

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45
Q

What does the syscfg command do?

A

Used to view or configure OmniStack information (description, location, name)

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46
Q

What does the camstat command do?

A

Allows you to view information andusage of the content addressable memory (CAM)

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47
Q

What does the camcfg command do?

A

Allows you to individually allocate CAM space to switching modules

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48
Q

What does the selgp command do?

A

Selects the group to perform bridge operations on

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49
Q

What does the flc command do?

A

Allows you to set the flood limit on a per Group basis. This limit is a mechanism for controlling broadcast storms on the network

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50
Q

What does the fls command do?

A

View the current flood limits set for Groups

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51
Q

What does the sts command do?

A

Displays Spanning Tree parameters and Spanning Tree port parameters

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52
Q

What does the stc command do?

A

Used to configure parameters for the Spanning Tree

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53
Q

What does the stps command do?

A

Display the Spanning Tree Port parameters

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54
Q

What does the stpc command do?

A

Used to configure port parameters for the Spanning Tree

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55
Q

What does the fwt command do?

A

Used to display the MAC addresses and their forwarding and filtering information of a given group. The information in the table is used by the transparent bridging function in determining how to propagate a received frame

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56
Q

What does the fs command do?

A

View static bridge address information

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57
Q

What does the fc command do?

A

Used to configure static bridge address information

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58
Q

What does the bps command do?

A

Displays statistics on the bridge port

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59
Q

What does the macinfo command do?

A

Displays MAC information

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60
Q

What does the rts command do?

A

Displays a table of the remote trunking stations learned by the switch

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61
Q

What does the gp command do?

A

Views the lists of Groups currently defined

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62
Q

What does the crgp command do?

A

Used to create a group

63
Q

What does the modvl command do?

A

Used to modify a VLAN

64
Q

What does the rmgp command do?

A

Used to remove a Group

65
Q

What does the via command do?

A

Used to view ports assigned to a selected Group

66
Q

What does the vi command do?

A

Used to view information on a specific virtual port

67
Q

What does the vs command do?

A

Used to view statistics on a virtual port attachment

68
Q

What does the ve command do?

A

Used to view errors on a virtual port attachment

69
Q

What does the addvp command do?

A

Used to add ports to a Group

70
Q

What does the modvp command do?

A

Used to modify existing VPORT configuration information

71
Q

What does the rmvp command do?

A

Used to remove ports from a Group

72
Q

What does the br command do?

A

Used to enter the Bridge Configuration/Parameter submenu

73
Q

What does the at command do?

A

Used to enter the AutoTracker submenu

74
Q

What does the cratvl command do?

A

Creates AutoTracker VLANs

75
Q

What does the modatvl command do?

A

Modify the definition of a VLAN

76
Q

What does the rmatvl command do?

A

Deletes an AutoTracker VLAN

77
Q

What does the atvl command do?

A

View the current status of all AutoTracker VLANs in the switch

78
Q

What does the viatrl command do?

A

Brings up the Policy Configuration Table, which shows the policies defined for a specified VLAN

79
Q

What does the vivl command do?

A

View the VLAN membership of each virtual port in the switch.

80
Q

What does the fwtvl command do?

A

Displays a table of learned MAC addresses and the VLAN membership of those MAC addresses. You can view information for a specific slot and port, or for all ports in a switch

81
Q

What does the defvl command do?

A

Configure/view membership of devices in the Default VLAN

82
Q

What does the crmcvl command do?

A

Create Multicast VLANs

83
Q

What does the mcvl command do?

A

View current status of all Multicast VLANs in the switch

84
Q

What does the vimcrl command do?

A

View current multicast VLAN policies and their status

85
Q

What does the rmmcvl command do?

A

Delete a multicast VLAN

86
Q

What does the modmcvl command do?

A

Modify a multicast VLAN definition

87
Q

What does the vimcvl command do?

A

View the multicast VLAN membership of each virtual interface in the switch

88
Q

What does the vlap command do?

A

Turn VLAN advertisement protocol ON or OFF

89
Q

What does the gmstat command do?

A

Turn Group mobility status ON or OFF

90
Q

What does the vpl command do?

A

View Virtual Ports in a Mobile Group

91
Q

What does the vigl command do?

A

View Mobile Group list for a Virtual Port

92
Q

What does the cats command do?

A

Create Auto-Activated Services

93
Q

What does the data command do?

A

Delete Auto-Activated Services

94
Q

What does the vats command do?

A

View Auto-Activated Services

95
Q

What does the vag command do?

A

View Authenticated Groups

96
Q

What protocols are supported by the OmniStack?

A

RIP, ICMP, UDP, TCP, TELNET, SNMP, and SLIP

97
Q

What does the snmps command do?

A

Displays the SNMP statistics

98
Q

What does the snmpc command do?

A

Configures SNMP parameters

99
Q

What does the names command do?

A

Takes you to the Names submenu. The one command in this submenu, res, is used to view and configure the Domain Name Server (DNS) resolver

100
Q

What does the probes/events command do?

A

Used to monitor, activate, and inactivate probes and events for Remote Network Monitoring (RMON)

101
Q

What does the ip command do?

A

Used to switch to the IP submenu

102
Q

What does the xlat command do?

A

Used to display the address translation (ARP) table

103
Q

What does the ips command do?

A

Used to monitor datagram traffic and errors in the switch. The command displays cumulative IP statistics and errors

104
Q

What does the ipr command do?

A

Displays the IP routing table. The information shows the routes entered by a routing protocol and all the static routes that you may have entered

105
Q

What does the aisr command do?

A

Used to add static routes to the switch

106
Q

What does the risr command do?

A

Used to remove static routes from the switch

107
Q

What does the icmps command do?

A

Used to monitor ICMP activity

108
Q

What does the ping command do?

A

Used to test the reachability of network destinations by sending an ICMP echo request to the destinations, then waiting for a reply to the request to arrive

109
Q

What does the udps command do?

A

Used to display UDP statistics and errors

110
Q

What does the udpl command do?

A

Used to display the UDP Listener Table

111
Q

What does the rips command do?

A

Used to display RIP statistics and errors

112
Q

What does the tcps command do?

A

Used to monitor TCP traffic activity and check TCP configuration parameters

113
Q

What does the tcpc command do?

A

Used to check the current TCP connections available in the TCP Connection Table

114
Q

What does the telnet command do?

A

Used to connect to another system

115
Q

What does the traceroute command do?

A

Used to find the IP route from the local switch to a specified destination

116
Q

What does the relay command do?

A

Used to configure the BootP/DHCP relay

117
Q

What does the fwconfig command do?

A

Used to configure the IP firewall (the IP firewall feature is offered as an optional upgrade to Xylan switches)

118
Q

What does the ripflush command do?

A

Used to flush all routes obtained by RIP (all routes, with the exception of static and direct routes)

119
Q

What does the ipfilter command do?

A

Used to add/delete an IP RIP filter

120
Q

What does the ipf command do?

A

Displays IP RIP filters

121
Q

What does the vap command do?

A

View the configuration of the ATM ports

122
Q

What does the map command do?

A

Allows you to modify an ATM port configuration

123
Q

What does the vvc command do?

A

Allows you to view Virtual Channel Connections

124
Q

What does the cvc command do?

A

Used to create new Virtual Channel connections.Use this command only if you create connections that will be assigned to ATM services at a later time.

125
Q

What does the mvc command do?

A

Used to modify a virtual channel connection.

126
Q

What does the dvc command do?

A

Used to delete a virtual channel connection

127
Q

What does the vva command do?

A

Used to view a virtual ATM address

128
Q

What does the cva command do?

A

Used to create a virtual ATM address

129
Q

What does the mva command do?

A

Used to modify a virtual ATM address

130
Q

What does the dva command do?

A

Used to delete a virtual ATM address

131
Q

What does the vls command do?

A

Brings up a view of the ATM Layer Statistics Table

132
Q

What does the vlrs command do?

A

Displays the ATM Layer RX (Receive) Error Statistics Table

133
Q

What does the vlts command do?

A

Displays the ATM Layer TX (Transmit) Error Statistics Table

134
Q

What does the vcs command do?

A

View the ATM Connection Statistics Table. (Only connections in use are displayed.)

135
Q

What does the vcrs command do?

A

View the ATM Connection Rx Error Statistics Table

136
Q

What does the vcts command do?

A

View the ATM Connection Tx Error Statistics Table.

137
Q

What are the five ATM services?

A

LANE, ATM Trunking, Classical IP, PtoP Bridging, and VLAN Clusters

138
Q

What are the two options for encapsulation in PtoP Bridging?

A

RFC 1483 and OmniStack Encapsulation

139
Q

How many Bridging services can an ATM port support

A

16

140
Q

What does the cas command do?

A

Used to create aservice

141
Q

What does the mas command do?

A

Used to modify a service

142
Q

What does the das command do?

A

Used to delete a service

143
Q

What does the vas command do?

A

Used to view a service

144
Q

What does the vlat command do?

A

View the ATM LANE LE-ARP table

145
Q

What does the vss command do?

A

View the ATM service statistics

146
Q

What is ATM trunking?

A

Allows VLANs to be extended across multiple OmniStacks

147
Q

What is PtoP Bridging?

A

Provides a service that allows two groups to communicate across an ATM infrastructure using a single VC

148
Q

PtoP Bridging - SVC or PVC

A

Both

149
Q

What state is the OK1 LED in when file compaction is in progress?

A

Alternating green and amber

150
Q

What does a solid amber OK 2 light indicate?

A

Software was not loaded successfully

151
Q

What is S1?

A

The management module (referred to in the UI and CLI as MPM)

152
Q

What is S2?

A

The uplink module (If I’m not mistaken that’s were the daughter card goes)

153
Q

What are S3, S4, etc…?

A

Device connection modules

154
Q

On the front panel of the OSASM2-155FM/FS-1 ATM submodule, what does it indicate when the RED alarm is on amber

A

When a receive error occurs. A receive error occurs when a port is persistently losing frames or when a cable is not inserted

155
Q

What does VAP stand for?

A

VLAN Advertisement protocol

Advanced Networking (4 decks)

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