Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SWE MST > SWE Study Master > Flashcards

SWE Study Master Flashcards

0
Q

What does SOLAS Chapter III cover?

A

SOLAS Chapters

I - General
II - Construction/Fire Protection
III - Life Saving
IV - Radiocommuncations
V - Safety of Navigation
VI - Carriage of Cargoes
VII - Carriage of Dangerous Goods
VIII - Nuclear Ships
IX - Safe operations of Ships
XI - Enhanced Maritime Safety/Security
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

How many parachute flares per Lifeboat?

A

LSA 4.4.8.13

Four rocket parachute flares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How many bouyant smoke signals per Lifeboat?

A

LSA 4.4.8.15

two bouyant smoke signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Winter North Atlantic and Fresh Water load lines are only required on?

A

ICLL Annex I Reg 6/7

On sailing ships only Fresh Water Load Line and Winter North Atlantic Load Line need be marked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the NLS categories described in MARPOL?

A

MARPOL Annex II/CH 2/Reg 6.1

X - presents a major hazard

Y - Presents a hazard

Z - Presents a minor hazard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Only 1 life boat is required for how many crew plus passengers?

A

SOLAS 60 III/8 (a)

Provided that in passenger ships in which the total number of persons which the ship is certified to carry, together with the crew, does not exceed 30, only one such motor lifeboat shall be carried.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Radiotelegraphy units are required for all lifeboats on passenger ships carrying _________ or more passengers?

A

SOLAS 60 III/14

1,500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In screening an arrival, how many points constitutes a PI?

A

PI - >17 pts

PII - 7-16pts

NPV- 17pts

ISPSII - 7-16pts

ISPSIII -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is required of navigational publications?

A

SOLAS 09 V/27
shall be adequate and up to date.

33 CFR 164.33

must be current and corrected

my also be published by a foreign government

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How often is a vessel that is enrolled in Qualship 21 program examined?

A

cargo ships require a ISPS annually and a Safety exam once every 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where are the Regulations for Certificate of Financial Responsibility(COFR) found?

A

33 CFR 138

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What size vessels and above (foreign) are required to have a Waste Management Plan?

A

33 CFR 151.57

> 40ft U.S. Documented

MARPOL >400GT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the degree of visibility required from the Bridge of a vessel?

A

SOLAS V/22.5

From the main steering position, the horizontal field of vision shall not extend over an arc from right ahead to at least 60deg on each side of the ship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the approved sources for navigational publications?

A

33 CFR 164.33 (b)

As an alternative to the requirements for paragraph (a) of this section, a marine chart or publication, or applicable extract, published by a foreign government may be substituted for a U.S. chart and publication required by this section. The chart must be of large enough scale and have enough detail to make safe navigation of the area possible, and must be currently corrected. The publication, or applicable extract, must singly or in combination contain similar information to the U.S. Government publication to make safe navigation of the area possible. The publication, or applicable extract must be currently corrected, with the exceptions of tide and tidal current tables, which must be the current editions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the approve sources for chart updates?

A

33 CFR 164.33 (c)

As used in this section, “currently corrected” means corrected with changes contained in all Notices to Mariners published by the National Imagery and Mapping Agency, or an equivalent foreign government publication, reasonably available to the vessel, and that is applicable to the vessel’s transit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Attainment of raise in MARSEC level can be counted as a drill if approved by?

A

33 CFR 105. 220 (a)(2)

A drill or exercise required by this section may be satisfied with the implementation of security measures required by the FSP as the result of an increase in the MARSEC Level, provided the facility reports attainment to the cognizant COTP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Number of seconds required for shut downs to stop flow before Nov 1980?

A

33 CFR 154.550

60 Seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Number of seconds required for shutdowns to stop flow of oil after Nov 1980?

A

33 CFR 154.550

30 Seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Security drills test ____________ parts of the security plan.

A

33 CFR 105.220 (b)(2)

individual elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Security drills are required to be conducted how often?

A

33CFR105.220(b)(1)

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Security exercise is a _______ test of the security plan?

A

33 CFR 105.220(c)(5)

Full Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Security exercises are required to be conducted how often?

A

33CFR105.220(c)(1)

(1) Exercises must be conducted at least once each calendar year, with no more than 18 months between exercises.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Are vessels docked at facilities during drill/exercise required to be part of the drill/exercise?

A

33CFR105.220(b)(3)

cannot be required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the minimum required distance from a bulk liquid transfer area for hotwork to be conducted?

A

33CFR126.30(f)
Welding or hotwork is prohibited during gas freeing operations within 30.5 meters (100 feet) of bulk cargo operations involving flammable or combustible materials, within 30.5 meters (100 feet) of fueling operations, within 30.5 meters (100 feet) of explosives, or within 15.25 meters (50 feet) of other hazardous materials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When can an LOW be issued?

A

MSM V/C.2
B.3.a. Marine Safety, Security and Environmental Laws/Regulations
Warnings shall not be issued in lieu of pursuing Civil Penalty action for the following:
• Any violation that represents a significant threat to health, safety, or the environment;
• Any intentional violation;
• A second violation of the exact same offense within a 2-year period;
• Any second violation of different statutes/regulations within a year period; or
• When more than three violations of different statutes/regulations are
discovered during any single detection activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Facility lighting requirements after dark? What needs to be illuminated?

A

33CFR 154.570

transfer connection, and transfer operations work area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Location of alarms for a Facility of Particular hazard?

A

33CFR126.16

The alarm is required to be WATERSIDE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Distance that the alarm of a FOPH must be seen/heard?

A

33CFR126.16

1 mile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the required containment volumes for barge side connections?

A

33CFR155.310 (b)(2)

a fixed or portable container of at least one-half barrel under each loading manifold or connection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the containment requirements for a tank vessel?

A

33CFR155.310(a)(1)
(i) One half barrel if it serves one or more hoses with an inside diameter of 2 inches or less, or one or more loading arms with a nominal pipe size diameter of 2 inches or less;

(ii) One barrel if it serves one or more hoses with an inside diameter of more than 2 inches but less than 4 inches, or one or more loading arms with a nominal pipe size diameter of more than 2 inches but less than 4 inches;
(iii) Two barrels if it serves one or more hoses with an inside diameter of 4 inches or more, but less than 6 inches, or one or more loading arms with a nominal pipe size diameter of 4 inches or more, but less than 6 inches;
(iv) Three barrels if it serves one or more hoses with an inside diameter of 6 inches or more, but less than 12 inches, or one or more loading arms with a nominal pipe size diameter of 6 inches or more, but less than 12 inches; or
(v) Four barrels if it serves one or more hoses with an inside diameter of 12 inches or more, or one or more loading arms with a nominal pipe size diameter of 12 inches or more;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Safety training records are required to be kept for _____ years?

A

3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Security training records are required to be kept for _________ years?

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How long is an Alternative Security Program valid for?

A

33CFR101.120 (e)
Validity of Alternative Security Program. An Alternative Security Program approved under this section is valid for 5 years from the date of its approval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What areas are required to be illuminated on a self propelled vessel during transfer operations?

A

33CFR155.790 transfer operation areas and each connection point & each transfer area and connection point on each barge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When is no containment required on a fuel fill valve?

A

33CFR155.320(b)(3)

If the ship has a fill fitting for which containment is impractical, use an automatic back pressure shut-off nozzle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is put at the top of an NOV issued for security deficiencies?

A

NOV User Guide

Sensitive Security Information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A DOS is valid for ______ days?

A

33 CFR105.245

MARSEC Level I: cruise ships and vessels carrying CDC–90 days

MARSEC Level II: all vessels —30 days

MARSEC Level III: All vessels NO continuing DOS

Records must be maintained for 90 Days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Who is the facility representative responsible for OSHA compliance for private responders?

A

33CFR154.1050(d) Facility Owner or Operator IAW 29CFR1910.120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

40CFR110 covers non-reportable discharges from?

A

40CFR110.5

Properly functioning vessel & bilges of a vessel in compliance with MARPOL 73/78

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What number is used for tracking oil samples or evidence?

A

MISLE Number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What law covers the proper shipping of oil samples?

A

49CFR171.22

International Civil Aviation Organization’s Technical Institutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How much absorbent material must be included in a properly packaged sample box?

A

Enough for the contents of 1 broken sample jar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A warm front is associated with what type of weather?

A

Warm moist air. Precipitation likely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When an NOV is submitted to collections its status is changed to?

A

NOV User Guide

It automatically changes to “Open-Forward to Collections” after 60 days

The unit must change to “Open- Submitted to Collections” and transfer ownership and control to MLCPAC Claims and Litigations (Colletctions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What section of 33CFR lists Area, District, and COTP Zones?

A

33CFR3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

51-90% coverage of a shoreline is considered?

A

Broken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

91-100% coverage of a shoreline is considered ?

A

Continuous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What percentage of a NOV issued to an individual compared to commercial?

A

50% NOV User Guide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the maximum amount of discharged oil than an NOV can be written for?

A

1,000 gallons NOV User Guide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

An FOSCR can take over _______ of a response?

A

All aspects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does the S in S.M.A.R.T. stand for?

A

Specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the purpose of a fitness plan?

A

develop and adhere to regular exercise program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Who coordinates OCS selection panels?

A

ESO The Command will coordinate for reserve or temporary commision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

DHS has ____ authorities/roles?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

CG took over port security authority from this act?

A

Espionage Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When did the Petty Officer Rate become official?

A

1808

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What year did rate insignia begin?

A

1841

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which cutter grounded on Long Island and continued to fight the british by pulling their cannons up a hill?

A

Eagle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The Navy was founded in?

A

1798

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

On May 28, 1798, Congress authorized the capture of armed French vessels hovering off the U.S. coast, initiating an undeclared war with the France?

A

Quasi-War 1798-1799

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  1. The cutter Pickering captured 10 prizes, one of which carried 44 guns and 200 men, three times her own force in this War?
A

Quasi-War

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

the Eagle, recaptured the American vessels Nancy and Mehitable in a memorable fight in 1799 with the French privateer, Revenge in this war?

A

Quasi-War

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The Coast Guard’s role of augmenting the Navy with shallow-draft craft began in which war?

A

The War of 1812

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The Cutter Jefferson captured the first prize of this war?

A

War of 1812

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
  1. One of the most hotly contested battles was between the cutter Surveyor and the British frigate Narcissis. The Surveyor was eventually captured, but the British captain praised the gallantry of the American crew in this war?
A

War of 1812

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Steamboats were first used to augment the Navy in this war?

A

Mexican-American War, May 13, 1846

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The Harriet Lane is credited with firing the first naval shots of the_______?

A

Civil War 1861-1865

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Spain declared war on the U.S. on April 24, 1898, a consequence of our intervention in the Spain/Cuba crisis. This war is known as the ___________

A

Spanish-American War

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The Coast Guard was transferred to the Navy during this war?

A

World War I 1914-1918 U.S. Entered in 1917

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

_______ was torpedoed by a German submarine and all of the crew killed in World War I.

A

CGC Tampa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The cutter Northland took the Norwegian trawler Boskoe into “protective custody” and captured three German radiomen ashore in this war?

A

World War II 1939-1945 : U.S. entered in 1941

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The Coast Guard was given responsibility for cold-weather operations in Greenland during which war?

A

World War II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q
  1. One of our first successful attacks involved the 165-foot cutter Icarus. Using depth charges, the Icarus forced the surfacing of a German submarine. With just a 3-inch deck gun, the submarine was forced to surrender in this war?
A

World War II

73
Q

The CGC Campbell sank an enemy submarine by ramming it, causing severe damage to the Campbell in this war?

A

World War II

74
Q

Who earned the Medal of Honor for his actions at Guadalcanal on September 27, 1942, during World War II?

A

Douglas Munro

75
Q

The Coast Guards role was primarily one of support during which war?

A

Korean War 1950-1953

76
Q

The Coast Guard was also an effective force in the Vietnam Conflict (1965–1970), performing duties uniquely suited to its specialized skills.

A

.

77
Q

When did Desert Shield/Desert Storm take place?

A

1990-1991

78
Q

In 1918, Twin sisters _______ __________ of the Naval Coastal Defense Reserve become the first uniformed women to serve in the Coast Guard. (SPAR)

A

Genevieve and Lucille Baker

79
Q

In 1945, The first five African-American females enter the SPARs (Semper Paratus Always Ready Women’s Reserve). What were their names?

A
  • Olivia Hooker
  • D. Winifred Byrd
  • Julia Mosley
  • Yvonne Cumberbatch
  • Aileen Cooke
80
Q

On November 1, 1958, _________________ becomes the first Coast Guard E-9.

A

Master Chief Yeoman Jack Kerwin

81
Q

Who is the author of Roots and The Autobiography of Malcolm X, and is a recipient of the Pulitzer Prize and the National Book Award. He continued to be an active supporter of the Coast Guard until his death in 1992.

A

Alex P. Haley, Chief Journalist

82
Q

Master Chief Yeoman ______ becomes the first SPAR E9

A

Pearl Faurie

83
Q

On August 1st, 1969, ___________ was instated as the First Master Chief Petty Officer of the Coast Guard (E-10)

A

BMCM Charles L. Calhoun

84
Q

1972 The first women’s Reserve Enlisted Basic Indoctrination classes are established. Which four ratings are available to women?

A
  • Yeoman
  • Storekeeper
  • Radioman
  • Hospital Corpsman
85
Q

In what year did:
- Legislation ends Women’s Reserve

  • Women are integrated into active duty and Coast Guard Reserve.
  • Women are admitted to Officer Candidate School for the first time.
  • Combat exclusion for women ends.
  • The first SPAR to be sworn into the regular Coast Guard is Alice Jefferson.
A

1973

86
Q

All officer career fields and enlisted ratings were opened to women in this year?

A

1978

87
Q

In January, 1987, ______________ retires from the USCG. He served on active duty for 44 years, four months, and 27 days. His career spans three wars, and sees service on board 34 vessels.

A

BMCM Donald H. Horsley

88
Q

The first enlisted woman to be assigned to Officer-in-Charge afloat billet was?

A

Dianne Bucci, 1988

89
Q

She was the first African-American female and first female engineer to advance to E-7?

A

Pamela Autry, 1988

90
Q

She was the first Asian-American female to be appointed a Warrant Officer?

A

Grace Parmalee, 1988

91
Q

The first 10 cutters of the Cutter Revenue Service were?

A

Vigilant, Active, General Green, Massachusetts, Scammel, Argus, Virginia, Diligence, South Carolina, and Eagle

92
Q

The revenue Cutter Service and the U.S. Life Saving Service merged on

A

January 28, 1915

93
Q

___________ is the only individual to have won both the Medal of Honor and the Gold Lifesaving Medal.

A

Marcus Hanna

94
Q

__________ was a two-time winner of the Gold Lifesaving Medal

A

Surfman Frederick Hatch

95
Q

Credited with saving more than 600 lives, he earned two gold medals, three silver, and other awards during his long and distinguished career.

A

Joshua James

96
Q

Official keeper of the Lime Rock Light Station?

A

Ida Lewis

97
Q

This man single-handedly rescued ten people from the grounded ship, Priscilla, on August 18, 1899.

A

Rasmus S. Midgett

98
Q

Petty Officer (later Commander) ____________ received the Navy Cross for his actions at the Matanikau River on Guadalcanal, on September 27, 1942. Along with Douglas Munro, he provided covering fire for and evacuated elements of the 1st Battalion, 7th Marines.

A

Raymond J. Evans

99
Q

This man was awarded the Bronze Star for his heroic actions as a crew member aboard the CGC Point Welcome?

A

BMC Richard Patterson

100
Q

A response plan must be in compliance with the ACP (Area Contingency Plan) for how long prior to being submitted to the CG for review?

A

6 months, 33CFR154.1065

101
Q

A case status is changed to _______ when submitted to the hearing office?

A

“Open - In Progress” - (Civil Penalty User Guide)

102
Q

Who certifies the VCS (Vapor Control System)?

A

Certifying Entity, 33CFR154.804

103
Q

What part of a cargo transfer pump is allowed to leak?

A

33CFR156.120
(p) All connections in the transfer system are leak free except that a component in the transfer system, such as the packing glands of a pump, may leak at a rate that does not exceed the capacity of the discharge containment provided during the transfer operation;

104
Q

A TSI is reported to ________.

A

The COTP

105
Q

A Breach of Security is reported to _______.

A

The NRC

106
Q

What must be submitted along with the Water Sustainability Assessment (WSA)?

A

Letter of Intent 33CFR127.007

Must be submitted either 1 year prior to construction of a new facility or 1 year prior to conducting transfer operations.

107
Q

Pressure gauges must be within what percentage?

A

33CFR127.1407
(c) The operator shall conduct a test of each pressure gauge, to ensure that the displayed pressure is within 10 percent of the actual pressure, at least once each calendar year, with intervals between tests not exceeding 15 months.

108
Q

Facility owned response equipment must be deployed how often?

A

33CFR154.1055

Semi-Annually

109
Q

What vacuum pressure must a vapor hose withstand without collapsing?

A

33CFR154.810

2psi

Color Scheme Red Yellow Red

110
Q

What is the penalty multiplied by when at MARSEC level 2 and 3?

A

NOV User Guide
MARSEC 2 x 1.5
MARSEC 3 x 2

111
Q

What is the preferred method of delivery for LOW?

A

MSM

hand delivered

112
Q

Substantial and Significant and Substantial harm facilities must have what type of plan?

A

Response Plan

113
Q

What does a NOFA stand for?

A

Notice of Federal Assumption

114
Q

What is the Max NOV amount?

A

NOV User Guide

$11,000

115
Q

What type of shoreline do turtles and birds nest in?

A

Fine Grain Sand - NOAA Characteristics of Coastal Habitats

116
Q

What shoreline has >30deg incline and may include an intertidal zone?

A

Exposed Rocky Shores - NOAA Characteristics of Coastal Habitats

117
Q

Two tugs are pulling the end of a boom upstream. What configuration is this?

A

U tow

118
Q

What is the size limits for tarballs?

A

10 cm is a Tar Patty

119
Q

Back hoes, dozers, and scrapers are what type of response equipment?

A

Mechanical

120
Q

An oil sample custodian must be?

A

Trained and designated

121
Q

What size vessel requires an IOPP?

A

Tank-ships 150 GT and above, All other vessels 400 GT and above.

122
Q

What size vessel requires 2 radars?

A

3,000GT and upwards

SOLAS 09 V/19.2.7

125
Q

What is the diameter of the Plimsoll and width of the marking?

A

12 inches in diameter

1 inch width

126
Q

What is the maximum height for the coaming of offshore tank barges?

A

8 inches

127
Q

What are the minimum number of windows on the bridge that must have a clear view in all weather conditions?

A

2

128
Q

What type of air mass covers a large area and forms over land?

A

Continental

129
Q

When a cold front comes through, the precipitation comes through before or after?

A

After

130
Q

When did DOT become part of DHS?

A

March 1, 2003

131
Q

When is single hearing protection required?

A

Noise >85 decibels.

132
Q

When is double hearing protection required?

A

Noise >105 decibels

133
Q

What rank is an O-9?

A

Lieutenant General

B-M-L-G

134
Q

eNOA are filed with?

A

NVMC

135
Q

Steering gear tests must be performed how long prior to entering port?

A

12 hours

33CFR164.25

136
Q

What is the most important document when submitting oil samples?

A

Chain of Custody

The Letter of Request (LOR) is also submitted.

137
Q

QI notifications are conducted ?

A

Quarterly

138
Q

Who approves alternate security programs?

A

Commandant

139
Q

NTV response plans are required for vessels of what size?

A

400GT and upwards

140
Q

Response plans are valid for?

A

5 years and must be reviewed every 5 years

141
Q

Maritime masses are formed over?

A

Water

142
Q

Winds for a Tropical Depression?

A

23-38mph

143
Q

Winds for a tropical storm?

A

39-73mph

144
Q

Winds for a hurricane?

A

74mph and up

145
Q

What type of front

———v—v—v—v–v–v—–

A

Cold Front

146
Q

What type of front

—u—u—-u—u

A

Warm Front

147
Q

ORM

A

7 steps

  1. Define Mission/Tasks
  2. Identify the Hazards
  3. Assess the Risk
  4. Identify Options
  5. Evaluate Risk vs. Gain
  6. Execute the Decision
  7. Monitor the Situation
148
Q

Message Precedence

A

– Flash (Z)—As fast as possible with a goal of 10 minutes.

– Immediate (O)—30 minutes

– Priority (P)—3 hours

– Routine (R)—6 hours

149
Q

Approved Characters

A

:

’
,

(

”

/

-

.

150
Q

Reserve approved duty days

A

Coast Guard SELRES members are generally authorized 48 paid Inactive Duty Training (IDT) drills and at least 12 paid Active Duty for Training (ADT) days per fiscal year.

151
Q

A unit is required to have a Human Relations Council when?

A

Establish a Human Relations Council at units of 50 or more full-time personnel

152
Q

Romantic relationships are allowed when how many people are stationed at a unit.

A

60

153
Q

Who has the authority to frock?

A

Section 632, Title 14, U.S. Code, gives the Commandant authority to frock Coast Guard enlisted personnel.

154
Q

What is the maximum size for brands?

A

4 inches x4 inches

154
Q

Steps for Awards?

A
  1. Gather performance data on the Coast Guard member
  2. Develop a performance bullet
  3. Decide on the level of award
  4. Draft the citation
  5. Edit the citation
  6. Complete CG1650.pdf
  7. Submit the award package.
155
Q

Oil tankers and offshore oil barges of 400’ or more need supplies for the containment and removal of at least __ barrels for spills?

A

33 CFR 155.205(A)

12 BARRELS

155
Q

What is DPRI

A

Directives, Publications, and Reports Index (DPRI),

is a listing of publications in use by the Coast Guard.

156
Q

Oil tankers and offshore oil barges of less than 400’ feet in length must have containment and removal supplies for atleast __ barrels for spills?

A

33 CFR 155.210(A)

7 BARRELS

157
Q

What type of discharge is used for recruits in boot camp?

A

Uncharacterized discharge is used for members with less than 180 days of service.

158
Q

Pooled Oil

A

> 1 cm thick

159
Q

“Cover” oil thickness

A

> 0.1 cm to

160
Q

Stain oil thickness

A

Cant be scrapped of with a fingernail.

161
Q

Oil coverages

A

Continuous 91-100%

Broken 51-90%

Patchy 11-50%

Sporadic 1-10%

(CBPS)

162
Q

Exposed Rocky Shores

A

Description
• The intertidal zone is steep (>30° slope) and narrow with very little width.
• Sediment accumulations are uncommon because waves remove debris that has slumped from the eroding cliffs.
• There is strong vertical zonation of intertidal biological communities.
• Species density and diversity vary greatly, but barnacles, snails, mussels, polychaetes, and macroalgae can be abundant.
Predicted Oil Behavior
• Oil is held offshore by waves reflecting off the steep, hard surfaces.
• Any oil that is deposited is rapidly removed from exposed faces.
• The most resistant oil would remain as a patchy band at or above the high-tide line.
• Impacts to intertidal communities are expected to be short-term. An exception would be where heavy concentrations of a light refined product came ashore very quickly.
Response Considerations
• Cleanup is usually not required.
• Access can be difficult and dangerous.

163
Q

Exposed Rocky Platforms

A

Description
• These shores consist of a bedrock shelf or platform of variable width and very gentle slope.
• The surface of the platform is irregular; tide pools are common.
• Along headlands, they have only small accumulation of sediments, mostly at the high-tide line.
• They often co-occur with gravel beaches; the gravel beach can be either at the upper or the lower half of the intertidal zone, depending on the nature of the bedrock outcrop.
• Species density and diversity vary greatly, but barnacles, snails, mussels, and macroalgae are often abundant.
Predicted Oil Behavior
• Oil will not adhere to the wet rock surface, but could penetrate crevices or sediment veneers.
• Oil persistence is usually short-term, except in wave shadows or where the oil was deposited high above normal wave activity.
Response Considerations
• Cleanup is usually not required.
• Where the high-tide area is accessible, it may be feasible to manually remove heavy oil accumulations and oiled debris.

164
Q

Fine Grain Beaches

A

Description
• These beaches are flat to moderately sloping and relatively hard-packed.
• There can be heavy accumulations of wrack.
• They can be important areas for nesting by birds and turtles.
• Upper beach fauna include ghost crabs and amphipods; lower beach fauna can be moderate, but highly variable.
Predicted Oil Behavior
• Light oil accumulations will be deposited as oily swashes or bands along the upper intertidal zone.
• Heavy oil accumulations will cover the entire beach surface; oil will be lifted off the lower beach with the rising tide.
• Maximum penetration of oil into fine- to medium-grained sand is about 10-15 cm, up to 25 cm in coarse-grained sand.
• Burial of oiled layers by clean sand can be rapid (within one day), and burial to depths as much as one meter is possible if the oil comes ashore at the beginning of a depositional period.
• Organisms living in the beach sediment may be killed by smothering or lethal oil concentrations in the interstitial water.
• Biological impacts include temporary declines in infauna, which can affect important shorebird foraging areas.
Response Considerations
• These beaches are among the easiest shoreline types to clean.
• Cleanup should concentrate on removing oil and oily debris from the upper swash zone once most of the oil has come ashore.
• Manual cleanup, rather than road graders and front-end loaders, is advised to minimize volume of sand removed from the shore and requiring disposal.
• All efforts should focus on preventing vehicular and foot traffic from mixing oil deeper into the sediments.
• Mechanical reworking of lightly oiled sediments from the high-tide line to the middle intertidal zone can be effective along exposed beaches.

165
Q

Sand and Gravel Beaches

A

Description
• Because of the mixed sediment sizes on these moderately sloping beaches, there may be zones of pure sand, pebbles, or cobbles.
• There can be large-scale changes in the sediment distribution patterns depending upon season, because of the transport of the sand
fraction offshore during storms.
• Desiccation and sediment mobility on exposed beaches cause low densities of attached animals and plants.
• The presence of attached algae, mussels, and barnacles indicates beaches that are relatively sheltered, with the more stable substrate sup- porting a richer biota.
Predicted Oil Behavior
• During small spills, oil will be deposited along and above the high-tide swash.
• Large spills will spread across the entire intertidal area.
• Oil penetration into the beach sediments may be up to 50 cm; however, the sand fraction can be quite mobile, and oil behavior is much like on a sand beach if the sand fraction exceeds about 40 percent.
• Burial of oil may be deep at and above the high-tide line, where oil tends to persist, particularly where beaches are only intermittently exposed to waves.
• In sheltered pockets on the beach, pavements of asphalted sediments can form if oil accumulations are not removed, because most of the oil remains on the surface.
Response Considerations
• Remove heavy accumulations of pooled oil from the upper beachface.
• All oiled debris should be removed; sediment removal should be limited as much as possible.
• Low-pressure flushing can be used to float oil away from the sediments for recovery by skimmers or sorbents. High-pressure spraying should be avoided because of potential for transporting contaminated finer sediments (sand) to the lower intertidal or subtidal zones.
• Mechanical reworking of oiled sediments from the high-tide zone to the middle intertidal zone can be effective in areas regularly exposed to wave activity. However, oiled sediments should not be relocated below the mid-tide zone.
• In-place tilling may be used to reach deeply buried oil layers in the mid-tide zone on exposed beaches.

166
Q

Gravel Beaches

A

Description
• Gravel beaches can be very steep, with multiple wave-built berms forming the upper beach.
• The degree of exposure to wave energy can be highly variable among gravel beaches.
• Density of animals and plants in the upper intertidal zone is low on exposed beaches, but can be high on sheltered gravel beaches and on the lower intertidal zone of all beaches.
Predicted Oil Behavior
• Stranded oil is likely to penetrate deeply into gravel beaches because of their high permeability.
• Rapid burial can occur at the high-tide and storm berms.
• Long-term persistence will be controlled by the depth of routine reworking by the waves.
• On exposed beaches, oil can be pushed over the high-tide berms, pooling and persisting above the normal influence of wave washing.
• Along sheltered portions of the shorelines, chronic sheening and the formation of asphalt pavements is likely where accumulations are heavy.
Response Considerations
• Heavy accumulations of pooled oil should be removed quickly from the upper beach.
• All oiled debris should be removed.
• Sediment removal should be limited as much as possible.
• Low- to high-pressure flushing can be effective if all released oil is recovered with skimmers or sorbents.
• Mechanical reworking of oiled sediments from the high-tide line to the mid beachface can be effective in areas regularly exposed to wave activity; the presence of multiple storm berms is evidence of wave activity. However, oiled sediments should not be relocated below the mid-tide zone.
• In-place tilling may be used to reach deeply buried oil layers along the mid-tide zone on exposed beaches.

167
Q

Riprap

A

Description
• Riprap structures are composed of cobble- to boulder-sized blocks of granite, limestone, concrete, or other materials.
• Riprap structures are used as revetments and groins for shoreline protection, and as breakwaters and jetties around inlets and marinas.
• Attached biota are generally sparse at the upper intertidal zone, but more common in the lower intertidal zone.
• They are common in highly developed waterfront areas.
Predicted Oil Behavior
• Deep penetration of oil between the blocks is likely, with oiling of associated debris.
• Oil adheres readily to the rough surfaces of the blocks.
• Uncleaned oil and debris can cause chronic leaching until the oil hardens.
Response Considerations
• When the oil is fresh and liquid, high pressure spraying and/or water flooding may be effective if all liberated oil is recovered.
• Heavy and weathered oils are more difficult to remove, requiring manual scraping and/or high-pressure, hot-water flushing.
• Removal of oiled debris deep in the crevices will be difficult.

168
Q

Exposed Tidal Flats

A

Description
• Exposed tidal flats are broad intertidal areas composed primarily of sand and minor amounts of gravel or mud.
• The presence of sand indicates that tidal currents and waves are strong enough to mobilize the sediments.
• They are usually associated with another shoreline type on the landward side of the flat, though they can occur as separate shoals; they are commonly associated with tidal inlets.
• The sediments are water saturated, with only the topographically higher ridges drying out during low tide.
• Biological use can be very high, with large numbers of infauna, heavy use by birds for roosting and foraging, and use by foraging fish.
Predicted Oil Behavior
• Oil does not usually adhere to the surface of exposed tidal flats, but rather moves across the flat and accumulates at the high-tide line.
• Deposition of oil on the flat may occur on a falling tide if concentrations are heavy.
• Oil does not penetrate water-saturated sediments, but may penetrate coarse-grained sand and coat gravel.
• Biological damage may be severe, primarily to infauna, thereby reducing food sources for birds and other predators.
Response Considerations
• Currents and waves can be very effective in natural removal of the oil.
• Cleanup can be done only during low tide, thus there is a narrow window of opportunity.
• The use of heavy machinery should be restricted to prevent oil mixing into the sediments.
• Manual removal methods are preferred.

169
Q

Sheltered Rocky Shores

A

Description
• Sheltered rocky shores are characterized by a rocky substrate that can vary widely in permeability. Of particular concern are rocky shores that have a semi-permeable veneer of angular rubble overlying the bedrock.
• Sheltered clay scarps are characterized by a steep, usually vertical scarp in hard-packed and stiff clay. Vegetation usually occurs landward of the scarp.
Predicted oil behavior
• Oil will adhere readily to dry, rough, rocky surfaces, particularly at the high-tide line, forming a distinct oil band.
• The lower intertidal zone of rocky shores is usually algae-covered and stays wet, preventing oil from adhering.
• Oil will not adhere to the wet clay sediment surface, but could penetrate dry sediment.
• Stranded oil will persist because of the low-energy setting.
Response Considerations
• Low-pressure flushing of rocky shores at ambient temperatures is most effective when the oil is fresh and still liquid.
• Extreme care must be taken during flushing operations in the upper intertidal zone to prevent oily effluents from impacting biologically rich lower tidal levels.
• Do not cut oiled, attached algae; use sorbents to recover oil as it is remobilized by tidal action.
• Where the high-water area of scarps is accessible, it might be feasible to manually remove heavy oil accumulations and oiled debris.
• The muddy substrate of scarps cannot support heavy equipment, and even foot traffic could disrupt the sediments and mix oil deeper.

170
Q

Sheltered Man-Made Structures

A

Description
• These are structures such as seawalls, groins, revetments, piers, and port facilities, constructed of concrete, wood, or metal.
• Most structures are designed to protect a single lot, thus their composition, design, and condition are highly variable.
• Often there is no exposed beach at low tide, but multiple habitats may be present.
• There can be dense attachments of animal and plant life.
• They are common in developed waterfront areas.
Predicted Oil Behavior
• Oil will adhere readily to the rough surface, particularly along the high-tide line, forming a distinct oil band.
• The lower intertidal zone usually stays wet (particularly if algae-covered), preventing oil from adhering to the surface.
Response Considerations
• Seawalls are usually cleaned for aesthetic reasons or to prevent leaching of oil.
• Low- to high-pressure spraying at ambient water temperatures is most effective when the oil is fresh.

171
Q

Sheltered Tidal Flats

A

Description
• Sheltered tidal flats are composed primarily of mud with minor amounts of sand and shell.
• They are usually present in calm-water habitats, sheltered from major wave activity, and frequently backed by marshes.
• The sediments are very soft and cannot support even light foot traffic in many areas.
• There can be large concentrations of bivalves, worms, and other invertebrates in the sediments.
• They are heavily used by birds for feeding.
Predicted Oil Behavior
• Oil does not usually adhere to the surface of sheltered tidal flats, but rather moves across the flat and accumulates at the high-tide line.
• Deposition of oil on the flat may occur on a falling tide if concentrations are heavy.
• Oil will not penetrate the water-saturated sediments, but could penetrate burrows and desiccation cracks or other crevices in muddy sedi- ments.
• In areas of high suspended sediment concentrations, the oil and sediments could mix, resulting in the deposition of contaminated sedi- ments on the flats.
• Biological impacts may be severe.
Response Considerations
• These are high-priority areas for protection since cleanup options are limited.
• Cleanup of the flat surface is very difficult because of the soft substrate; many methods may be restricted.
• Low-pressure flushing, vacuum, and deployment of sorbents from shallow-draft boats may be attempted.

172
Q

Marshes

A

Description
• Intertidal wetlands contain emergent, herbaceous vegetation, including both tidal and muted tidal marshes. Depending on location and interannual variations in rainfall and runoff, associated vegetation may include species tolerant or adapted to salt, brackish, or even tidal freshwater conditions.
• The marsh width may vary from a narrow fringe to extensive areas.
• Sediments are composed of organic muds except where sand is abundant on the margins of exposed areas.
• Exposed areas are located along bays with wide fetches and along heavily trafficked waterways.
• Sheltered areas are not exposed to significant wave or boat wake activity.
• Abundant resident flora and fauna with numerous species and high use by birds, fish, and shellfish.
Predicted Oil Behavior
• Oil adheres readily to intertidal vegetation.
• The band of coating will vary widely, depending upon the water level at the time of oiling.
• Large slicks will persist through multiple tidal cycles and will coat the entire stem from the high-tide line to the base.
• Heavy oil coating will be restricted to the outer fringe of thick vegetation, although lighter oils can penetrate deeper, to the limit of tidal influence.
• Medium to heavy oils do not readily adhere to or penetrate the fine sediments, but can pool on the surface or in animal burrows and root cavities.
• Light oils can penetrate the top few centimeters of sediment; under some circumstances oil can penetrate burrows and cracks up to one meter.
Response Considerations
• Under light oiling, the best practice is to let the area recover naturally.
• Natural removal processes and rates should be evaluated before conducting cleanup.
• Heavily pooled oil can be removed by vacuum, sorbents, or low-pressure flushing. During flushing, care must be taken to prevent transporting oil to sensitive areas down slope or along shore.
• Cleanup activities should be carefully supervised to avoid damaging vegetation.
• Any cleanup activity must not mix the oil deeper into the sediments. Trampling of the plants and disturbance of soft sediments must be minimized.
• Aggressive cleanup methods should only be considered when other resources (migratory birds, endangered species) are at greater risk from oiled vegetation left in place.

173
Q

Spring Tide

A

The very highest and very lowest

174
Q

Neap Tide

A

Tidal Range is at its smallest

175
Q

Diurnal Tide

A

1 high, 1 low tide

176
Q

Semi-Diurnal Tide

A

2 high, 2 low tides

177
Q

Lifeboat thwarts and side seats shall be fitted ______________.

A

as low in the lifeboat as practicable

SOLAS 60 5/A.i

178
Q

Life boat equipment

A

2 plugs for each plug hole attached by lanyards or chains

sails (colored orange)

Solas 60 3/11

179
Q

Assigned load line positioning

A 
TF
F
T
S - CENTER OF PLIMSOLL
W
WNA
180
Q

No lifeboat may exceed ____ tons when fully laden

A

20 tons

Solas 60 3/5.c

181
Q

Which Rating was created due to Alex Haley?

A

PA - Public Affairs Specialist

SWE MST (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions