Swe study Flashcards
1
Q
Where are deadlines for Personal Data Extract (PDE) verifications and corrections provided?
A
CGMS Message
2
Q
On your Personal Data Extract (PDE), Time in Rating (TIR) and Time in Service (TIS) are computed up to what point?
A
TED, 1 January of the year following the October and May SWEs
3
Q
On your Personal Data Extract (PDE), award points are earned up to what point?
A
The point value of all awards earned between the members Points Start Date up to the SED (1 FEB preceding May SWE)
4
Q
Sea Time points on a Personal Data Extract (PDE) are calculated at what rate?
A
2 points per year or .166 per month (WMSL 2.333)
5
Q
On your Personal Data Extract (PDE) you will receive credit for all sea/surf/award points for your first advancement on or after
what date?
A
January 1st
6
Q
What should you do if you find errors on your Personal Data Extract (PDE)?
A
Note them on the printed copy of this form, sign it, and provide it to your admin personnel
7
Q
What should you do after ranking positions in order of preference on your eResume?
A
Click return to previous page
8
Q
Once you have chosen all desired Job Basket boxes for an eResume, what should be your next step?
A
Save to job basket
9
Q
You have submitted an eResume but immediately notice that the Job Ranking Preferences are incorrect. How should you make
corrections?
A
Only one resume may be submitted per day. Any corrections/updates will have to be made on the following day submission
10
Q
You have submtted an incorrect eResume in Direct Access (DA). What can you do to delete your eResume?
A
Submit a new one the following day
11
Q
What is the form number for the Enlisted Individual Development Plan (IDP)?
A
CG-5357
12
Q
An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is?
A
A tool to facilitate conversation that the supervisor, and mentor if desired, uses to discuss professional and personal goals
13
Q
An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is not?
A
A performance evaluation method, a contract for training, or a means for clarifying or revising a position description
14
Q
A first term enlisted member’s Individual Development Plan (IDP) must be introduced and discussed with their supervisor
within _________ days of reporting to the unit.
A
30 days
15
Q
What does analysis of mishap data reveal as the most common cause of mishaps?
A
A lack of deliberate and systematic risk management during preparation, planning, and execution of operations and activities
16
Q
What does the Risk Management (RM) process rely on to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage potential hazards?
A
Effective teamwork and communication
17
Q
Which of the following is the foundation of the Risk Management (RM) process?
A
Hazard Identification
18
Q
In step 1 of the Risk Management (RM) process, if time is limited and a thorough task analysis cannot be performed, what model
can be used?
A
PEACE model, (Planning, Event Complexity, Asset Selection, Communications, Environmental Conditions)
19
Q
In the first step of the Risk Management Process Cycle, “Why” analysis is used in which action?
A
Action 3: List Causes
20
Q
How is risk defined within the Risk Management (RM)?
A
A process to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity
21
Q
Which of the following is a risk assessment pitfall?
A
Over optimism, misrepresentation, alarmism, indiscrimination, prejudice, inaccuracy, enumeration
22
Q
Develop controls is the first action in which step of the Risk Management (RM) process?
A
Step 3: Develop Controls and Make Decisions
23
Q
Reducing risks by transferring all or some portion of that mission or task to another individual, unit or platform that is better
positioned, more survivable, or more expendable is a control option using the ______ approach.
A
STAAR: Transfer
24
Q
The movement of forces, equipment, or tasks to other areas in order to avoid risk to the entire mission refers to what control
option to elminiate or reduce risk?
A
STAAR: Spreadout
25
What is the control option used for specific risks by "going around" them or doing the mission or task in a different way?
STAAR: Avoid
26
Within the Risk Management (RM) process, which is a type of control that can be applied to hazards to mitigate the risk?
Engineering Controls
27
What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk?
STAAR: Spreadout, Transfer, Avoid, Accept, Reduce
28
What is the first choice in the standard of order of precedence for Risk Management (RM) controls?
To first use design and engineering solutions to achieve minimum risk
29
In which step of the Risk Management Process Cycle does a member establish accountability?
Step 4: develop controls/make decisions
30
Which of the following is an action in step 4 of the Risk Management (RM) process?
Make implementation clear, Establish accountability, Provide support
31
Documentation is critical to the success of which step in the overall RM process?
Step 5: Supervise and Evaluate
32
How many actions are there in the last step of the RM process?
3 actions: Monitor, Evaluate, Feedback
33
In step 5 of the RM process, ensure changes requiring further RM are identified, is part of which action?
Action 1: Monitor
34
In the RM process, what action follows an evaluation?
Feedback
35
What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?
Define the conflict
36
Which of the following is a behavioral clue that a conflict with a peer may exist?
avoid interaction/eye-contact, outgoing interactions have stopped, rumors of tough time, decrease in verbal interaction
decrease in involvement of activities
37
What is the third stafe of conflict?
Stage 3: Escalation
38
What is a characteristic of the escalation stage of conflict?
Conflict can become increasingly aggressive, management of conflict, communication is key to resolving conflict
39
What is the first stage of conflict escalation?
Stage 1: Disagreement
40
Which stage of conflict escalation is the point of contention where a peer-to-peer conflict can become increasingly aggressive?
Stage 3: Escalation
41
Which stage of conflict represents the path for resolving a conflict without first escalating?
Stage 4: De-escalation
42
The CG's preferred style for conflict management is ___________.
Collaborating
43
In this conflict management style, the conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other person's desires.
Competing
44
In this conflict management style, intervention is considered but without a high value placed on your own desires.
Accomodating
45
In this conflict management style, each person makes a sacrifice so that both parties get part of what they want.
Compromising
46
What is the last stage in resolving conflict among peers?
Stage 5: Resolution
47
Where should CG voluntary education service inquiries related to tuition assistance be sent to?
ETQC-SMB-TAG-@uscg.mil
48
Registrar services provided by ETQC include which of the following?
Joint Service Transcript, Degree Reporting, DANTES Exam Reimbursement, Solicitation for Educations Program Awards
49
Which directive provides specific guidance on the CG voluntary credentialing program?
COMDTINST 1540.10
50
Where are tuition assistance waivers submitted for final review?
ETQC
51
Where can a link to the ASVAB AFCT Waiver Request Guide be found?
Course Support and Testing
52
The Harry W. Colmery Veterans Educational Assistance Act is also known as the _________.
Forever GI Bill
53
Under the Post-9/11 GI Bill, a Veteran enrolled at more than one-half time can qualify for a monthly housing allowance based on
DOD's Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) rate for an _________ with dependents.
E-5
54
The Montgomery GI Bill active duty provides up to _______ months of education benefits.
36 months
55
The GI Bill Comparison Tool offers information based on which of the following GI Bill benefits?
Tuition and Housing Benefits
Book Stipend
BASED ON: GI benefit, military status, cumulative post 9/11 active duty service, used before January 1st 2018, Classes in person
56
Veterans in their second 6 months of OJT & Apprenticeship Training programs may use their GI Bill benefts to receive ________
of the applicable Montly Housing Stipend.
0.8
57
In which of the following cases is Tuition Assistance authorized for?
Authorized for AD and SELRES, but SELRES must be drilling.
Authorized for first certificate, Associate, Bachelors, and Masters degree.
58
One purpose of the ___________ program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication and the
capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard.
Advanced Education
59
Which of the following is a responsibility for a student who has been accepted into the Advanced Education program?
Complete necessary prereqs and route forms; Act as CG liaison to the institution w/regard to their attendance; Liaise with
uneducation institution's Military Advocate; Monitor and comply with fiscal requirements; Carry a full credit hour load, year
round; Maintain academic proficiency; Complete program of study's requirements in the allotted time; Maintain military/CG
requirements and standards
60
Who acts as subject matter expert to assist CG members with voluntary education programs?
ESO
61
Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?
Treat all firearms as if they are loaded
62
Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?
Always maintain proper muzzle control
63
Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?
Keep finger off the trigger until on target or ready to shoot
64
Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?
Know your target and what is beyond it
65
Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-3?
6mnths paygrade E-2 or satisfactory completion of Class "A" Course
66
Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-4?
6mnths paygrade E-3
67
The ______ and ASVAB tests are different version of the same battery tests.
AFCT
68
Class "A" course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an "UNSAT" conduct while
attending a Class "A" Course, are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?
6 months
69
Which of the following ratings have no direct path to advancement from E-3 to E-4?
IV rating
70
Which of the following ratings have no direct path to advancement from E-3 to E-4?
DV rating
71
Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?
ALCOAST Msg
72
Where are "A" school rating requirements listed?
PSC-EPM Website
COMDTINST M1500.10C
73
Which stress management term is defined as "Bad" stress?
Distress
74
"Good" stress is related to which stress management term?
Eustress
75
Which term is defined as "the non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you
encounter a stressor"?
Stress
76
What are stressors?
Cause of Stress
77
What term is defined as a stress management tool usd to measure a person's personal stress load?
Stressmap
78
Stress is defined within the Coast Guard Stress Management Program as:
The non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor
79
The services provided by the _______ are available for professional assistance with Stress Management.
Employee Assistance Program Coordinator (EAPC)
80
Which Stress Management awareness and skills training promotes an understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and
provides practical stress navigation tools to help build resilience of sailors, families, and commands?
Operational Stress Control
81
How can you contact the Employee Assistance Program?
855-CGSUPRT (855-247-8778)
82
Who is eligible for the Office of Work-Life Stress Management Program?
Active Duty, Dependents, Reservists, Civilian Employee of the CG
83
Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.
Emotional Response
84
Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.
Cognitive Response
85
Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.
Behavioral Response
86
Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.
Physiological Response
87
Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.
Spiritual Distress Response
88
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
Keep a journal
89
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
Download an app for relaxation, practicing mindfulness
90
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
Exercise, eat healthy/regular meals
91
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
Stick to a sleep routine, get enough sleep
92
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
Avoid excess caffeine
93
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
Identify and challenge your negative and unhelpful thoughts
94
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
Reach out to your friends/family members who help you cope in a positive way
95
Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?
-provide training and education
-Expedite screening and referral for treatment
-provide administrative processing resources in support of Coast Guard’s policy
96
The National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) low-risk guidelines suggest that "zero" drinks is the low risk option
when __________?
driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, on duty, or on certain medications
97
Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?
0, 1, 2, 3 Model
98
Where can you find additional clarification on low-risk drinking guidelines?
rethinkingdrinking.niaaa.nih.gov
99
What is one responsibility of a Command Drug and Alcohol Representative (CDAR)?
Develop unit prevention plans and conduct general alcohol awareness/prevention education. Develop support and aftercare plans.
Contact SAPS w/in 24hrs of CO notification. Collaborate with SAPS to provide administrative support to the command for prevention
strategies/treatment options. Collaborate with SAPS to provide admin support to command. Prepare appropriate administrative
remarks. Schedule and document unit training. Prepare/display prevention materials. Collaborate with SAPS to initiate screenings.
Monitor mandatory pre-treatment. Enact 7 steps.
100
What is a Substance Abuse Prime for Life Training used for?
An evidence based alcohol and drug program for members who show signs of misusing alcohol.
101
What is the definition of substance abuse?
The use of a substance by a member, which causes other problems or places the member's safety at risk
102
What is considered substance abuse?
The use of alcohol, prescription drugs, illicit drugs, over the counter compounds or any substance that is used to change mood or
induce a "high" that causes cognitive, behavioral, or physiological impairment problems.
103
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), as an individual's BAC increases, the risk of _______
increases.
harm
104
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), drinking too much over time can raise your risk for
_________ , cancer, liver disease, and other illnesses.
Heart damage
105
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), more than _____ people die from alcohol-related
causes in the United States each year.
178000
106
Being able to "hold your liquor" or having a high tolerance for alcohol is _______.
A reason for caution
107
What is considered binge drinking for men?
Consuming more than 4 drinks on any day or more than 14 drinks per week
108
What is considered binge drinking for women?
Consuming more than 3 drinks on any day or more than 7 drinks per week
109
Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher?
.08 percent or higher
110
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired?
0.08
111
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being "sloppy" drunk?
0.16
112
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by stupor or blackout?
0.3
113
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by coma and risk of death?
0.4
114
A sign of alcohol poisoning is _________?
Passes out and cannot be awakened, Vomiting while passed out, Has cold, clammy and/or pale skin, breathing is slow & irregular
115
Youth who drink are more likely to experience ___________.
School, social, legal, physical problems. Unwanted, unplanned, unprotected sexual activity. Disruption of normal growth and sexual
development. Physical/sexual violence. Increase risk of suicide/homicide. Memory problems. Misuse of other substances. Alcohol
poisoning.
116
Which of the following is a reson women face higher risks of drinking alcohol?
Weigh less than men, women have less water in their bodies than men
117
What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?
1.5 ounces
118
How many grams of pure alcohol is in a "standard" drink?
14 grams
119
How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?
5 ounces
120
How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?
12 ounces
121
Using the BAC calculator, what would be the BAC percentage for a 150lb male who consumed 3 ounces of 40% alcohol over one hour?
0.05
122
Across the United States, a recorded Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) test of ____ or higher alcohol is proof of DUI without any other
evidence.
0.08
123
A medical professional must perform an analysis and diagnosis for potential ________ upon commission of an alcohol incident or
referall.
Alcohol use disorder (AUD)
124
A member diagnosed within the first __________ days of CG service as drug/alcohol abusive or dependent is considered physically
disqualified for enlistment.
180 days
125
Which of the following is required for self-referral for potential substance abuse?
A request must be made to a chaplain, command, cdar, SAPS, or health care provider. No credible evidence of involvement in an
alcohol/drug incident
126
Which statement reflects CG policy on tobacco use and abuse?
Discourage use
127
Which example would constitute unauthorized use of a prescription drug?
No current prescription (within 6 months) or verified medical use explanation for a drug(s) that would account for the positive
urinalysis result
128
Which of the following is considered prohibited substance abuse?
The inhalation, injection, consumption, or introduction to the body of any mood altering substance or compound, including
controlled or synthetic substance, inhalant, propellants, solvents, household chemicals
129
Which of the following consitutes a drug incident?
Intentional use of drugs for non-medical purposes, wrongful possession of drugs, trafficking, intentional use of other substances
conviction by civil or military court for wrongful use
130
Urinalysis is the procedure employed to obtain urine samples under controlled conditions, maintaining a chain of custody on
each sample, and _________.
Scientifically analyzing the samples to detect the presence of drugs
131
Which of the following would be the consequence of a drug incident?
-Administrative action, (process through separation, admin discharge board),
-disciplinary action (UCMJ)
-Treatment
132
Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?
Suicide
133
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implict or explicit
that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?
Self-harm
134
What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active
for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might
occur in the near future?
Suicide Threat
135
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either
explicit or implicit, of intent to die?
Suicide Attempt
136
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with no injury is reported as ______.
Self-harm Level 1
137
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with injury is reported as ______.
Self-harm Level 2
138
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm resulting in death is reported as ________.
Self-harm Level 3
139
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in injury is reported as ______.
Suicide attempt Level 2
140
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in no injury is reported as _______.
Suicide attempt Level 1
141
What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide-related Communication
142
What would be the cause to report a Self-Harm Level 3 in the Suicide Prevention Program?
Death
143
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown?
Undetermined Suicide-Related behavior
144
Dismissing ________ as "manipulation" is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.
Suicide Ideations
145
In one survey, more than half of the 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _________
at some point in their lives.
Episode of suicide thinking
146
What are interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be
construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as?
Suicide-related Communication
147
What type of suicide-related communication is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in
suicide-related behavior?
Suicide Plan
148
What type of suicide-related communication is a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to
suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide Plan
149
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
ISPATHWARM
150
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
ISPATHWARM
151
What is a mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
IS PATH WARM
152
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
Purposelessness
153
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
Anxiety
154
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
Trapped
155
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
Hopelesness
156
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
Withdrawal
157
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
Anger
158
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
Reckless and Mood Changes
159
______ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention.
Ask
160
What may be helpful to lead into the question "Are you thinking about killing yourself"?
Statement of Observations
161
What mnemonic is used as aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?
ACE (Ask, Care, Escort)
162
During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?
Ask
163
During the ______ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.
Care
164
During which step of suicide prevention should you remove or take posession of any means that could be used for self-injury?
Care
165
During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?
Care
166
In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief?
Care
167
During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?
Care
168
You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which
step of suicide prevention?
Care
169
During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person, and that this will save his
or her life?
Escort
170
During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental healthcare
professional?
Escort
171
If you ask a person"Are you thinking about killing yourself" and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?
Ask the question again
172
If a person tacitly indicates he/she has had thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is?
How? Plan? Situation? Alone? Drinking? History?
173
Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?
Work lIfe
174
Which form of birth control is both reversible and can used as an emergency contraception?
Copper T intrauterine device (IUD)
175
Which form of birth control is included in tier 1 for effectiveness?
Implant, vasectomy, Tubal Occulsion, IUD
176
STDs can be passed from one person to another _______, though this is not very common.
Intimate physcial contact like heavy petting
177
Most people do not have any symptoms when they have which STD?
HPV or Trichomoniasis
178
Which is the most reliable way to avoid STD infection?
abstinence
179
Which personnel are required to develop Personal Fitness Plans?
All AD and SELRES
180
Who do you submit your completed Personal Fitness Plan to?
Supervisor
181
When must your completed Personal Fitness Plan be submitted?
April and October
182
The most current Personal Fitness Plan must be kept on file or electronically saved by _________.
Supervisor and member
183
Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include what amount of moderate-intensity aerobic activity
per week?
2hrs and 30mins (150 mins)
184
Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include muscle-strengthening activities for a minimum of
how many days per week?
2 days per week
185
All active duty members must engage in fitness activity as outlined in their Personal Fitness Plan a minimum of _______ per week.
180 minutes per week
186
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _________ minutes per week of cardiorespiratory activity.
150 minutes
187
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _________ minutes per week of strength training.
30 minutes
188
Because the effects of physical activity are cumulative, exercise sessions may vary in length, with a minimum of _________ minutes
in order to be beneficial.
10 minutes
189
In general, physcial activity sessions should be spread out over at least how many days per week?
3 days per week
190
Physical activity should produce a training effect, as measured by a ____________ level of intensity.
Medium to vigorous
191
According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity?
Moderate-intensity
192
What is the form number for the Personal Fitness Plan?
CG-6049
193
Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature involve _________.
The acceptance of some level of risk
194
What is a critical human factor that will increase the potential for error-induced mishaps in not managed?
Mission analysis, leadership, adaptability and flexibility, situational awareness, decision making, communication, assertiveness
195
Deliberate use of the Risk Management process ______ by reducing member exposure to hazards.
Increases mission success
196
The potential gains of conducting the activity or mission must justify, or warrant, the __________.
The expected risk exposure
197
What provides a framework to identify and assess hazards, evaluate the risk level, and weigh the risk against potential benefits?
The Risk Management process
198
What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk
management requirement, and expedite response actions?
GAR 2.0, STAAR/PEACE
199
When is Risk Management (RM) most effective?
When hazards are identified early & there is ample time to evaluate & implement mitigations & controls to reduce risk exposure
200
Since all Coast Guard missions and operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the Risk Management process is _________.
Continuous and adaptive
201
Where are the steps of Risk Management (RM) described?
Risk Management Fundamentals
202
What are units encouraged to use to conduct "what can go wrong" analyses on an as-needed basis, when new missions/activities
are introduced to the unit?
Risk Assessment Matrix (RAM)
203
What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and
effectively?
Crew Endurance
204
Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 risk to __________.
Address unique operational realities
205
Which is a model used to identify hazards and explore mitigation strategies during risk assessments?
PEACE model, (Planning, Event Complexity, Asset Selection, Communications, Environmental Conditions)
STAAR model, (Spread out, transfer, avoid, accept, reduce).
206
_______ is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard.
Risk
207
_______ is defined as a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity.
Risk Management
208
How many actions are there in the Assess Hazards step in the Risk Management (RM) process?
3 - Assess Hazard Severity, Assess Hazard Probability, Complete Risk Assessment
209
Which is an action taken during the first step in the Risk Management (RM) process?
Mission/task Analysis, What can go wrong analysis, List causes (Why Analysis)
210
What are captured in GAR 2.0 to make warranted risk decisions?
PEACE/STAAR Analysis
211
What model is used to identify those elements considered essential to the safe and effective execution of an operation or activity?
PEACE Model
212
What deliberate risk assessment should units perform at the start of each day or watch?
GAR 2.0
213
At a minimum, units must include all elements of which model in their GAR 2.0?
PEACE Model
214
What model outlines potential strategies to mitigate and/or control risk?
STAAR Model
215
Which models when used in tandem, generate the necessary information to establish a shared mental model up and down the
chain of command, assist in decision making, and encourage robust risk management?
PEACE and STAAR Models
216
Which models can also be applied to activities outside the workplace that are often spontaneous and dynamic?
PEACE and STAAR Models
217
What shall all units use to conduct a real-time risk assessment prior to engaging in operations or activities that expose personnel
to hazards?
GAR 2.0
218
Who determines whether a particular use of a government motor vehicle is for official purposes?
Unit Commander, CO, OINC
219
When are Coast Guard owned motor vehicles authorized to transport spoused and dependents?
Official funnction they are invited to
220
Which of the following would be an authorized use of a CG owned motor vehicle?
Ceremonies
221
Which of the following would be an authorized use of a CG owned motor vehicle?
-Ceremonies
-Non-CG employees in official capacity
-Spouse and dependents with member
-Military Recruits
-Official Travel
222
Transportation of a member's dependents would be authorized in a CG owned motor vehicle in which case?
Official function they are invited to and which the employee is also attending. No additional cost incurred to the Coast Guard, and there must be free space available.
223
Only government employees that possess a ________ state, territorial, or District of Columbia driver license are permitted to
operate a motor vehicle.
Current and Unrestricted
224
To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, commands must identify hazards and reduce risks when
assigning long-distance driving duties to personnel who have been on-duty within the previous ______ hours.
8
225
To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, members must not exceed _______ hours of combined
duty-hours and driving hours.
14
226
Which form is used to report accidents involving a government motor vehicle?
SF-91
227
Personnel convicted of a serious moving violation while operating a GMV, must _________.
Complete a driver improvement course
228
What term is defined as the process (or steps) involved in managing one's personal finances, including income, expenses, and
investments, for an individual or family?
Personal Financial Management
229
The definition of which term includes prudent day-to-day management of personal finances?
Personal Financial Readiness
230
What term is defined as the act of evaluating an individual's or family's income and expenditures and recommending short and
long-term actions to achieve financial goals and ensure individual, family, and mission readiness?
Financial Planning/Counseling
231
The Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) consists of how many elements?
7
232
Which of the following is an element of the Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP)?
Education/training, Counseling, Information/referral, CFS, Outreach, Collaboration/coordination, CG SUPRT
233
Commands with at least ________ personnel assigned, must have a trained Command Financial Specialist.
25
234
What is the early withdraw penalty tax for the Thrift Savings Plan?
0.1
235
The compliance tab in CGBI is broken down into ______ catergories, based on level of compliance.
3 (Action Required, Attention Recommended, Informational)
236
What will you need to do if your preferred email address is not listed as an option when signing up for email notifications
in CGBI?
Update your contact info in DA to include your preferred email address
237
If your personal readiness data in CGBI needs corrections, select the __________ icon in the top-right corner of the "Skills" tab.
blue "get more information"
238
What is the purpose of the EES?
Set standards for performance eval and behavior for enlisted, inform enlisted of performance standards they are measured
against, provide a means for members to receive feedback, capture reliable assessment of member performance, provide CG
tool to support HR decisions, provide members of boards and panels with infor to make selections/decisions
239
Which of the functions is the evaluee's responsibility within the EES?
Become familiar with the instructions, competencies, and standards of EES, understand rating chain expectations
240
Which of the functions is the evaluee's responsibility within the EES?
Obtain feedback or counseling, adjust to meet/exceed standards, Eval input 14 days prior, acknowledge/verify DA EER is correct
241
The _______ comprised of designated members who execute the enlisted evaluation report process for enlisted members.
Rating Chain
242
Which of the following is a factor type of performance within the EES?
Military
243
Which of the following is a factor type of performance within the EES?
Performance
244
Which of the following is a factor type of performance within the EES?
Professional Qualities
245
Which of the following is a factor type of performance within the EES?
Leadership
246
A new period of eligibility for the Good Conduct award begins ________.
The day after the effective date of the EER in which an unsat conduct mark is awarded. If confinement or NJP/CM and member
confined, starts date of release. If not confined, day following conviction or awarding NJP.
247
The recommendation for advancement portion on the evaluation report _________.
May not be appealed
248
Who is normally the appeal authority for an EER?
First flag officer in evaluees chain of command
249
What is the definition given in the Recruit Training Master Pamphlet for effective communication?
Active two-way link with another individual or group
250
What are the types of common barriers to effective communication?
Physical distance, ambient noise, distracting movement, language, past experience, stereotypes, emotional blocking, social
status
251
How can you overcome the common barriers to effective communication?
Active listening, suspend judgment, resist distractions, wait before responding, make non-judgmental comments, observe
body language, avoid assumptions, eliminiate external/internal distractions, avoid push-button issues, avoid daydreaming,
do not prepare a response while someone is talking
252
What is a means to test understanding of a message for effective communication?
Parroting: Repeat back the same words heard
253
What is a means to test understanding of a message for effective communication?
Paraphrasing: The idea in words you understand
254
What is a means to test understanding of a message for effective communication?
Clarify: Ask open-ended questions
255
What is one type of listening for effective communication?
Selective, Active, Reflective
256
What is a reason for feedback in effective communication?
Personal growth, insight, open environment for sharing, helps prepare future by not dwelling in the past
257
For effective communication, what is a basic rule to follow for giving feedback?
Be specific and to the point, focus on behavior or the person, direct feedback toward changeable behavior, feedback
must be solicited, feedback must be timely, check for understanding
258
For effective communication, what is a basic rule to follow for receiving feedback?
Be open-minded and receptive, ask for relevant examples, summarize to ensure understanding, say "Thank you"
259
How do you access and view your payslip?
Log into DA, select view my payslip link from employee pagelet
260
What dependent information in the payslip is important for eligibility to receive benefits?
Date of Birth/s
261
Which block of the payslip contains a member's basic pay?
Earnings
262
What information can be found in the tax data section of the payslip?
Marital status, Allowances, Additional Percent, Additional Amount for Federal and State
263
In which section of your payslip can you validate whether or not you are receiving the correct pay and/or allowances?
Middle Section
264
Which information can be found in the bottom section of the payslip?
All current and year to date wages and taxes are shown that appear on a W2. A summary of leave is shown, and the net pay
distribution shows direct deposit info and the amount that was actually deposited into your account.
265
What information is found in the Net Pay Distribution block of the payslip?
Current and YTD Net Pay
266
Which section fo the payslip will show information unique to each member?
Remarks section
267
Onboard ship salutes shall be dispensed with after the first daily meeting with what exception?
Those rendered to the CO, Officers senior to the CO, Visiting Officers, Officers making inspections, when addressing or being
addressed by an officer
268
You must render salutes to which of the following?
NOAA, PHS, and Foreign Armed Services Officers
269
If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem and conditions permit, the senior person should ___________.
Get out and salute
270
If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem, the driver shall _______.
Stop, put the car in park, sit at attention
271
When are the salutes rendered by persons in motor vehicles?
When they are a passenger
272
When in uniform at a parade, if the flag passes you, you shall _________.
Salute when the flag is within six paces, and until the flag has passed six paces beyond you
273
When in civilian attire at a parade, when the flag passes you shall __________.
Remove your hat, and put your hand over your heart
274
The Code of Conduct is an ethical guide for members of the Armed Forces that has _______ articles.
6
275
All members of the Armed Forces of the United States are expected to measure up to the standards embodied in the Code of Conduct _________.
When in combat or captivity
276
Which of the following would be a prohibited political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?
Participate in partisan political fundraising activities, rallies, conventions, manage campaigns/debates, display a large political
sign, banner or poster
277
Which of the following would be a prohibited political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?
Serve in official capacity with or be listed as a sponsor of a partisan political club, solicit/fundraise in federal offices/military
reservations
278
Which of the following would be a prohibited political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?
Speak before a partisan political gathering, conduct a political opinion survey, allow publishing of partisan political articles
letters, or endorsements
279
Which of the following would be an authorized political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?
Vote, express personal opinion, encourage others to vote, join a partisan/nonpartisan political club
280
Which of the following would be an authorized political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?
Serve as an election official, sign a petition, write a letter to the editor, attend political activities, display a political
bumper sticker, make monetary contributions
281
The National Terrorism Advisory Stystem (NTAS) consists of how many typees of advisories?
2: Bulletins and Alerts
282
Which FPCON applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?
Bravo
283
Which FPCON requires the movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings?
Bravo
284
Which FPCON applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture?
Normal
285
Which FPCON requires that the implemented security measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely?
Alpha
286
Which FPCON requires weapons to be issued to guards?
Charlie
287
Which Type I PFD provides greater mobility when the use of law enforcement or other types of gear are required?
Stearns Model 1600 Type I PFD
288
Boat characteristics include which two types of frames?
Transverse and Longitudinal
289
Members with PFB waiver will trim facial hair as to not to exceed what length?
1/4 inch
290
Which grooming standard applies to moustaches?
Men only, (No Honor Guard, Cadets, OCS, Recruits): Will not extend below top of upper lip or beyond corners of mouth
291
Who can grant a permanent shaving waiver for personnel who are diagnosed with Pseudofolliculitis Barbae (PFB)?
CO or OINC
292
The USCG celebrates its birthday on ________ of each year.
August 4th
293
The Revenue Cutter Service began with _________ cutters at a cost of $1000 each.
10
294
In 1838, Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several
decades into what agency?
Steamboat Inspection Service within the Treasury Department
295
The first time that a federal agency was specifically tasked with looking for people in danger was in _________ when the Revenue
Cutter Gallitan was ordered to patrol the coast.
1831
296
The United States Coast Guard was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and Life-Saving Service were merged on what date?
Jan 28, 1915
297
When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to Department of Transportation?
April 1967.
298
When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to Department of Homeland Security?
2002
299
Alexander Hamilton was appointed to be the first ________.
Secretary of Treasury
300
Who was the Coast Guard's first aviator?
Elmer Stone
301
Who was the first Commandant of the United States Coast Guard?
Bertholf
302
On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the _________.
Revenue Cutter Service
303
Who was awarded the Medal of Honor for evacuating a battalion of Marines trapped by Japanese forces on September 27, 1942?
Douglas Munro
304
Where did SM1 Douglas Munro aid a battalion of Marines during landing and rescue?
Point Cruz, Guadalcanal
305
SM1 Douglas Munro was in charge of 24 Higgins boats during an amphibious invasion at Point Cruz, ________.
Guadalcanal
306
What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War?
Harriet Lane
307
The USCGC Tampa was sunk by ________ during World War I.
a German torpedo
308
An explosion that killed more than 1,600 people in Nova Scotia led Congress to establish __________ duties for the United States
Coast Guard.
Captain of the Port offices
309
Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard during which military conflict?
WW I
310
During World War I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?
6
311
During World War II, which Coast Guard officer led a 16 member unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal in
Cherbourg, France?
Captain Quentin Walsh
312
Which Coast Guard officer was awarded the Navy Cross for heroic actions during the liberation of 50 American paratroopers who had
been prisoners since D-Day?
Captain Quentin Walsh
313
During Vietnam, the United States Coast Guard conducted _______, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow
of war materialsand personnel form going to the Viet Cong.
Operation Market Time
314
During Vietnam, how many Point Class patrol boats from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction
operations?
26
315
Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991?
Persian Gulf
316
The United States Coast Guard were among the first to respond to the attack on the World Trade Center on ______.
9/11.
317
In which year did the United States Coast Guard conduct the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following
Hurrican Katrina?
2005
318
The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II,
following ________.
9/11.
319
In 2010, United States Coast Guard reserves were activated in response to the Deepwater Horizon oil rig explosion that forcefully
pumped oil and gasses into Gulf waters for _________ days.
87
320
DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?
Bronze Star Medal w/Combat V
321
Who served as a boarding officer on the USS Firebolt (PC 10) in Iraq when he was mortally wounded?
Bruckenthal
322
How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?
26 times
323
The Coast Guard Ensign consists of _________ perpendicular stripes, alternating red and white.
16
324
The ____ is displayed as a mark of authority for boardings, examinations, and seizure of vessels for the purpose of enforcing U.S.
Laws.
CG Ensign
325
The _____ provided a symbol of authority on Revenue Cutters, as neither officer nor crew had uniforms.
CG Ensign
326
The ______ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters.
CG Ensign
327
On 1 August 1799, Secretary of the Treasury, Oliver Wolcott, issued an order specifying the design of the ________.
August 1st 1799
328
During parades and ceremonies, the Coast Guard Standard is adorned with __________.
43 Battle Streamers
329
The design of the ________ is obscure, but it may have evolved from an early jack.
CG Standard
330
The __________ is the upper left corner of the Coast Guard Ensign.
CG Standard
331
This flag is used during parades and ceremonies.
CG Standard
332
What is carried in all ceremonies representing heroic actions in all naval encounters from 1798 to the present?
Battle Streamers
333
Battle streamers are attached to the _______, replacing cords and tassels.
CG Standard
334
Individual units may only display those _______ that they have earned.
Battle Streamers
335
Only ______ may display a complete set of battle streamers.
Major Headquarters Commands
336
The United States Coast Guard adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the ______.
US Marine Corps
337
The United States Coast Guard is authorized a total of ______ battle streamers.
43
338
The ______ is flown on the bow of a vessel, only while at anchor or moored in port.
Union Jack
339
The ______ is flown on the jackstaff, which is located on the bow of a vessel.
CG Ensign
340
The ______ is the canton on the United States Flag.
Union Jack
341
The presence of the _______ indicated that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer.
Commissioning Pennant
342
The ______ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings.
CG Seal
343
The ______ is used on official documents and records of the Coast Guard.
CG Seal
344
The first Coast Guard Seal and Emblem were approved by Treasury Secretary Andew W. Mellon in ______.
1927
345
The Coast Guard ______ was ordered to be used on the Coast Guard Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957.
CG Emblem
346
The historical significance of the Coast Guard _______ dates back to the Revenue Cutter Service.
CG Shield
347
The ________ consists of a wide red bar forward of a narrow blue bar both canted at 64 degrees on the bow with the CG emblem
superimposed.
CG Stripe
348
The _______ was developed in the 1960s by the industrial design firm Raymond Lowery/Williams Snaith, Inc.
CG Stripe
349
Semper Paratus is the Latin word meaning _________.
Always Ready//Every Ready
350
When was the Coast Guard Motto adopted?
October 1896 to May 1897
351
The earliest recorded used of the phrase "Semper Paratus" appeared in a newspaper article in the city of ________, praising
the Revenue Cutter Ingham.
New Orleans
352
What language did Semper Paratus originate from?
Latin
353
The music for Semper Paratus was written by ________.
Captain Francis Saltus Van Boskerck
354
What is a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?
Includes info such as properties of each chemical, the physical, health, and evironmental hazards, protective measures
355
What must be readily accessible to all workers while in their work area, when workers are required to use HAZMAT or when
workers are at risk of exposure to HAZMAT?
PPE
356
If the SDS is not available, who must the unit notify to obtain the SDS?
Manufacturer
357
The standard GHS formate for a safety data sheet includes _______ sections, in a specified order.
16
358
Specific hazard information may not be present on a chemical container. As a result, you must consult the _____ to prevent improper
use or handling.
SDS
359
GHS provides a standard for the content, layout, and presentation of _________.
Hazard Information
360
What is the Active and Reserve Gold Badge assignment standard tour length?
2 years
361
Who must provide the Commander/Commanding Officer endorsement for all CSELs except the MCPOCG and MCPO-CGR?
O6 or above
362
What program is intended to assist you in becoming familiar with your new community and the resources available when you are
reassigned?
Relocation Assistance Program
363
Who can provide you with community information, demographics information, relocation packages, and state information when
you are reassigned?
Transition/Relocation Manager (TRM)
364
Transition/Relocation managers may provide ____ with local resouce information.
Welcome Packages
365
How should you contact your Transition/Relocation Manager?
Via your Regional Worklife Staff
366
Your ______ can help you utilize the Office of Work Life Adoption Reimbursement Program.
Family Resouce Specialist (FRS) on your Regional Worklife Staff
367
Who is your point of contact for information relating to the Coast Guard Scholarship Program?
Family Resouce Specialist (FRS) on your Regional Worklife Staff
368
What form is used to enroll my dependent family member with medical special needs into the Special Needs Program (SNP)?
Family member medical summary DD Form 2792
369
What is the title for staff members at Health, Safety, and Work-Life Regional Practices specifically trained to assist individuals
and commands when maltreatment incidents occur?
Family advocacy specialist
370
One purpose of the Family Advocacy Program is to _______.
Address prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of an intimate partner and child maltreatment
371
One purpose of the ____ is prevention, identification, reporting, investigating, and treatment of intimate partner and child
maltreatment.
Family Advocacy Program
372
CGSUPRT is part of HSWL's _______.
Office of Work-life
373
Members can call _______ 24 hrs a day, 365 days a year, to speak with an experienced and highly trained counselor.
855-CGSUPRT (855-247-8778)
374
The ________ has been designed to capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted member's performance, so the Coast Guard can
advance and assign them with a high degree of confidence.
EES
375
The _______ has been designed to inform enlisted members of the performance standards against which they are measured.
EES
376
The _______ has been designed to provide a means by which each enlisted member can receive feedback on how well the member
is measuring up to the standards.
EES
377
The _______ has been designed to provide information about discharges, re-enlistments, good conduct, advancement eligibility
and reductions in pay grade.
EES
378
The ______ has been designed to set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of each enlisted member.
EES
379
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-1 is the last day of which months?
January and July
380
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-2 is the last day of which months?
January and July
381
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-3 is the last day of which months?
February and August
382
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-4 is the last day of which months?
March and September
383
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-5 is the last day of which months?
April and October
384
The evaluee must perform which of the following functions within the EES?
Familiarization, Performance, Evaluation Input, Acknowledgement, Verification
385
When do you need to provide evaluation input for your EER?
14 days prior to the end of the marking period
386
What is done with the completed original EER counseling sheet?
Unit provides the evaluee the orignial counseling sheet
387
Your signature on the member's signature block of the EER counseling sheet indicates acknowledgement of _______.
Counseling/review of eval report, impact of the eval on good conduct eligibility, appeal time-frame, adv
potential/recommendation
388
The marking official should route the completed evaluation report to the approving official no later than ______ days after the
evaluation report period ending date.
9
389
The _______ is responsible for ensuring your evaluation is based on how you performed in each performance dimension consistently
through the period.
Rating Chain
390
What competency within a performance assessment must be adhered to every day of the marking period?
Conduct
391
What are the individual elements located under each factor type on which the Coast Guard evaluates its enlisted members called?
Competencies
392
How many major categories of performance are there in the EES?
4
393
Which factor type in the EER measures the member's ability to bring credit to the Coast Guard through personal demeanor and
professional actions?
Military
394
Which factor type in the EER measures a member's ability direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work?
Leadership
395
Performance Standards are the written criteria that outlines the expected performance to receive a mark of _______ in each
competency.
2, 4, or 6
396
If a member receives an unsatisfactory conduct mark on their EER, it will negatively impact their ____________.
advancment, change in rate, or participation in the SWE
397
Appeals to the approving official's decision on the advancement recommendation ___________.
Cannot be appealed
398
What are the possible choices for advancement recommendations?
Recommended, Not Recommended, Not Ready
399
What must occur when a member does not receive an advancement recommendation?
Approving official submits a return request via email to ARL-SMB-CGPSC-EPM-Evaluations@uscg.mil within 7 days
400
The appeals process is designed to review the marks the evaluee believes were based on which of the following?
Incorrect info, prejudice, discrimination, disproportionately low marks
401
What must be contained in an appeal letter for an EER?
Specific competencies in dispute and supporting information indicating why the marks should be reviewed
402
What responsibility does the member have in the EER appeal process?
Request an audience, written appeal, appeal letter, submisssion deadline, appealing after deadline
403
As a result of an EER appeal, what actions may an approving official take?
Raise or leave marks unchanged
404
What is the deadline for active duty members to submit an appeal for their EER?
15 days
405
What is the deadline for reservists to submit an appeal for their marks?
45 days
406
What are EER forms CG-3788A-G used for?
EER Form
407
The Discipline and Conduct manual stipulates that coercing or encouraging another member to fully or partially disrobe is an
example of __________.
Hazing
408
Hazing can include which of the following?
Playing abusive/mean-spirited tricks w/the intent to ridicule, humiliate, or ostracize, throwing personnel over the side
of a ship/pier tacking on crows, forcing/encouraging consumption of substances not suitable for consumption,
group wrestling, encouragement to drink excessive alcohol, excessive or abusive use of water, forcibly
cutting/shaving hair, taping handcuffing, using LE restraints, touching offensively, threatening bodily harm,
oral/written berating for the purpose of.....
409
Which directive requires a commanding officer to "prohibit unit introductory initiations or hazing of personnel"?
COMDTINST M5000.3
410
Which is true of hazing?
Subjecting an individual military member to harassment or ridicule for the purpose of inclusion is prohibited and will not be
tolderated
411
Subjecting and individual military member to harassment or ridicule for the purposes of "inclusion" is defined as _________.
Hazing
412
Which is true of hazing or bullying?
Erodes mission readiness, prohibited in all circumstances/environments, including off-duty or in unofficial unit
functions/settings
413
If a person knowingly and voluntarily submits to hazing, _________.
May be held accountable as well
414
Which of the following would be an example of an appropriate relationship?
2 crewmembers going to an occasional movie, dinner, members jogging or participating in wellness or recreational activities
415
An interpersonal relationship in a professional work environment would be prohibited in what case?
Same small shore unit 60 members or less, supervisor/suboridnate relationship, same cutter, E7/8/9 and E4 and below,
disrupts the effective conduct of daily business
416
Which of the following is an example of unacceptable conduct?
Sub and sub gambling, giving/receiving gifts not of nominal value, changing duty schedules to benefit members in a relationship
using personal vehicle to transport students/prospective members, providing alcohol to students/prospective members,
lending/borrowing money to student/prospective member, employing student/prospective member
417
Which would be an acceptable romantic relationship?
60+ members at a shore unit, not on a cutter, no senior enlisted and junior enlisted, not officer and enlisted
418
Officer instructors at officer entry level accession programs engaging in a romantic relationship with an indivdiual who has graduated
from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding 365 days _________.
Are prohibited
419
Enlisted instructors at enlisted entry level accession programs engaging in a romantic relationship with an individual who has
graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding ________ is prohibited.
365 days
420
Engaging in sexual intimiate behavior in which of the following situations would be prohibited?
Aboard any CG vessel, in any CG-controlled work place
421
Which of the following would be a prohibited relationship?
Supervisors and subordinates in private business together. Supervisors and subordinates in a romantic relationship.
422
A romatic relationship involved a former recruiter and a prospective member are prohibited until what point?
365 days has elapsed since their last contact with a representative or upon physically reporting to his/her first duty assignment
423
Violating policy on limited personal use of government office equipment and services is punishable under which article of the UCMJ?
Article 92
424
Which of the following is an example of prohibited use of government office equipment?
Anything sex related, anything discriminatory, loading unauthorized software, making unauthorized configurations
introducing viruses, knowingly creating or transfering spam, subscribing to anything non-cg related, improper acquisition
or transmitting of cg software or controlled info, connecting unauthorized devices to network
425
Which of the following is an example of inappropriate use of government office equipment?
Accessing email, using email for subscribing, social media, fundraising, commercial purposes, private or non-profit purposes
unauthorized long-distance calls, website shopping
426
What is the dollar value limit placed on gifts given to an official superior on an occasional basis?
The aggregate value of gifts per occasion must be reasonable, however there is no dollar limit placed on the aggregate value
427
What is the Coast Guards definition of Leadership?
Measures a member's ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and
support others performing work.
428
The Coast Guard Leadership Development Framework consists of _____ categories of leadership competencies.
4
-Leading Self
-Leading Others
-Leading Performance and Change
-Leading the Coast Guard Auxiliary
