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AMTC SWE > SWE gouge > Flashcards

SWE gouge Flashcards

1
Q

firefighting and rescue manual

A

00-80R-14

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2
Q

• Class A Fires

A

wood and wood products, extinguished with water

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3
Q

• Class B Fires

A

gasoline, jet fuels, oil, and other flammable/combustible liquids, extinguished with AFFF, clean agent, and PKP

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4
Q

• Class C Fires

A

energized electrical equipment, extinguish with PKP

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5
Q

• Class D Fires

A

combustible metals, extinguished with water in large quantities

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6
Q

• JP-4

A

NATO F-40, flash point –10 °F to 30 °F

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7
Q

• JP-5 Flash Point

A

NATO F-44 flashpoint of 140 °F

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8
Q

• JP-8/ Flash Point

A

NATO F-34, flash point of 100 °F

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9
Q

• primary flight line extinguishers

A

halogenated clean agent wheeled units

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10
Q

• airfield extinguishers inspections done IAW

A

NFPA Standard 10 inspection

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11
Q

• How often are Nitrogen cylinders hydrostatically tested

A

every 5 years

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12
Q

cleaning and corrosion control manual

A

• 1-1-691

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13
Q

Definition of corrosion

A

• Corrosion is the electrochemical deterioration of a metal because of its chemical reaction with the surrounding environment

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14
Q

What is the most common type of corrosion

A

electrochemical corrosion

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15
Q

What are the four conditions must exist before corrosion can occur

A

Anode, Cathode, Electrolyte, Electrical Contact

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16
Q

Is the anode or cathode the corroding metal

A

the corroding metal is known as the anode

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17
Q

Uniform Surface Corrosion

A

direct chemical attack on a metal surface and involves only the metal surface, first seen as a general dulling or etching of a polished surface

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18
Q

Galvanic Corrosion

A

different metals in contact with each other and an electrolyte

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19
Q

How does Pitting Corrosion appear

A

first noticeable as a white or gray powdery deposit

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20
Q

Exfoliation Corrosion

A

advanced form of intergranular corrosion where the surface grains of a metal are lifted up by the force of expanding corrosion products occurring at the grain boundaries

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21
Q

Stress Corrosion Cracking

A

intergranular or transgranular cracking of a metal caused by the combined effects of constant tensile stress

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22
Q

Does carbon corrode easily

A

• Carbon is cathodic and has low corrosion potential

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23
Q

Fretting Corrosion

A

special form of concentration cell corrosion which occurs in combination with surface wear

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24
Q

What does corrosion on magnesium look like

A

appears as white, powdery mounds or spots

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25
Q

What flaws can you see with penetrant inspection

A

flaw being inspected for is open to the surface

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26
Q

What can eddy current inspection detect

A

can detect and evaluate pitting, intergranular, exfoliation, stress cracking, and corrosion fatigue cracking

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27
Q

What can be seen with ultrasonic inspection

A

may be used to detect exfoliation, intergranular, pitting, corrosion, and stress corrosion and corrosion fatigue cracking

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28
Q

what is the depth of light corrosion

A

.001inch maximum can normally be removed by light hand sanding

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29
Q

what is the depth of moderate corrosion

A

0.010 inch normally removed by extensive hand sanding or light mechanical sanding

30
Q

what is the depth of sever corrosion

A

deeper than 0.010 inch, must be removed by extensive mechanical sanding or grinding and may require a patch type repair or component replacement

31
Q

Corrosion shall always be removed by

A

the mildest effective technique

32
Q

four major types of metallic wools

A

aluminum, copper, stainless steel, and carbon steel

33
Q

How many grades of metallic wools are there

A

available in five grades, ranging from very fine to extra coarse

34
Q

4 types of wire brushes

A

carbon steel, stainless steel, aluminum, and brass bristles

35
Q

What is used primarily for the initial removal of heavy corrosion deposits such as flaking rust and exfoliation

A

Scrapers

36
Q

hardness testers

A

usually a Rockwell, Brinell, or Vickers type

37
Q

• Prior to securing turnbuckles, threaded terminals should be screwed into the turnbuckle barrel until no more than _____ threads of either terminal are outside the barrel

A

three

38
Q

What do you do after the turnbuckle has been adjusted for proper cable tension

A

two pieces of safety wire are inserted one-half the wire length into the hole in the center of the turnbuckle barrel

39
Q

classifications of fuel contamination

A

generally classified as chemical, microbial, or material

40
Q

what is the maximum amount of special duty pay that you can get

A

$450 per month

41
Q

what percent of all Coast Guard units are within 30 miles of a HSWL RP

A

42

42
Q

What year was the Coast Guard Special Needs Program was implemented

A

1984

43
Q

Enrollment in the Special Needs Program does not preclude AD members from:

A

1) Sea duty;
(2) Normal sea/shore rotation;
(3) Unaccompanied assignments;
(4) Standing watches;
(5) Performing normally assigned duties; or
(6) Temporary Duty (TDY) assignments in support of Coast Guard-wide individual augmentation or contingency response operations

44
Q

Risk management manual

A

Comdtinst 3500.3a

45
Q

• risk is defined as:

A

the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard

46
Q

• Risk Management is defined as

A

a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity

47
Q

what is the most common cause of mishaps

A

lack of deliberate and systematic RM during preparation, planning, and execution of operations and activities

48
Q

• Research has identified ____ critical human factors that if not managed will increase the potential for error-induced mishaps

A

7

49
Q

• The Coast Guard has adopted a 5-step Risk Management process that consists of

A

1) Identifying Hazards,
2) Assessing Hazards,
3) Developing Controls and Making Decisions,
4) Implementing Controls, and
5) Supervising and Evaluating Controls

50
Q

Peace model

A 
Planning 
Event Complexity 
Asset 
Communications
Environment
51
Q

Staar model

A 
Spread out 
Transfer 
Avoid 
Accept 
Reduce
52
Q

How do you propose changes to the 3710

A

shall be submitted to Commandant (CG-711) via the requesting unit’s Commanding Officer

53
Q

all Coast Guard aircraft fall under the operational control of the District Commanders except….

A

Atlantic Area HC-130 aircraft which are under the operational control of the Area Commander

54
Q

• Normally, TACON of aircraft and crews will shift to gaining unit when?

A

upon first landing at the new operating location

55
Q

If aviation assets are operating jointly with surface or other assets who is responsible for the aviation portion of the mission

A

• Air Mission Commander (AMC)

56
Q

• When working with surface forces, responsibility for coordinating air and surface mission execution normally rests with….

A

the surface element having the greatest communications capability

57
Q

• no aircraft modifications or changes will be made without specific authorization from …

A

Commandants (CG-41) and (CG-711)

58
Q

Who maintains the Aircraft Configuration Control Board Process Guide, CGTO PG-85-00-70-A

A

Commandant (CG-41).

59
Q

who is the clearance authority for further flights of aircraft with actual or suspected structural damage or major malfunction.

A

• Commandant (CG-711), with technical concurrence from Commandant (CG-41

60
Q

who acts as senior member of the Unit Safety and Health Committee

A

xo

61
Q

who establishes programs for fuel and oil contamination prevention, foreign object damage prevention, and corrosion control

A

EO

62
Q

• Physical Training (PT) is required by the RS to maintain the flexibility, mobility, strength, power, and endurance to function for how long in heavy seas

A

30 minutes

63
Q

what is a warning in a manual

A

AN OPERATING PROCEDURE, TECHNIQUE, OR PRACTICE THAT, IF NOT FOLLOWED, COULD RESULT IN INJURY OR DEATH. Always bold

64
Q

what is a caution on a manual

A

AN OPERATING PROCEDURE, TECHNIQUE, OR PRACTICE THAT, IF NOT CORRECTLY FOLLOWED COULD RESULT IN DAMAGE TO OR DESTRUCTION OF EQUIPMENT. Always bold

65
Q

what is a note in a manual

A

An operating procedure, technique, or condition that requires emphasis. Not bold

66
Q

Safety and environmental health manual

A

m5100.47

67
Q

• Risk Assessment Code (RAC)

A

RAC 1 – Within 24 hours for conditions that pose imminent danger
RAC 2 – Within 3 working days for conditions that pose potentially serious safety and health concerns
RAC 3 – Within 20 working days for conditions that pose less than serious safety and health concerns
RAC 4 – No prescribed timeline for conditions that pose a minimal safety and health concern and may represent best practices

68
Q

• Class A Mishaps

A
  • injury or occupational illness results in a fatality or permanent total disability
  • -military personnel are missing or missing in action
  • Damage to CG property excluding boats $2,000,000 or greater
  • Damage to a Coast Guard or non-Coast Guard boat 300,000 or greater
69
Q

• Class B Mishaps

A
  • injury or occupational illness that results in permanent partial disability
  • Damage (excluding boats) $500,000 or greater, but less than $2,000,000.
  • Damage boat of $200,000 or greater, but less than $300,000
70
Q

• Class C Mishaps

A
  • injury or occupational illness that results in one or more days away from work
  • Damage to CG property $50,000 or greater (excluding boats), but less than $500,000.
71
Q

• Class D Mishaps

A
  • injury or occupational illness that requires treatment by a medical professional but does not result in any days away from work
  • Damage (excluding aviation) of $5,000 or greater, but less than $50,000.
  • damage to aviation property of less than $50,000
72
Q

• All Class A and B mishaps require telephone notification within how long after occurrence

A

5 minutes

AMTC SWE (2 decks)

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