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SWE Flashcards

1
Q

Reserve PGP E9

A

30 years

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2
Q

Reserve PGP E8

A

28 years

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3
Q

Reserve PGP E7

A

26 years

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4
Q

Reserve PGP E6

A

24 years

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5
Q

Reserve PGP E5

A

22 years

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6
Q

Reserve PGP E4

A

14 years

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7
Q

Reserve PGP E3

A

10 years

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8
Q

COFR Requirements

A

33 CFR 138

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9
Q

LNG Lighting

A

5 foot candles at any loading flange

1 foot candle at and loading area

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10
Q

LNG Warning Alarm

A

5000 foot candles

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11
Q

33 CFR 165 Subparts

A 
B: RNA
C: Safety Zones
D: Security Zones
E: Restricted Waterfront Area
F: Special RNAs and Limited Access Areas
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12
Q

Most important sample paperwork

A

Chain of Custoday

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13
Q

When to ship sheen nets:

A

ASAP because they biodegrade

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14
Q

What is not required for a sample shipment?

A

Cardboard Tubes

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15
Q

When can you do a rush sample analysis?

A

Detention, closed port, or extreme public interest or media coverage

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16
Q

Why is hydrogen sulfide bad in a spill?

A

Dulls senses

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17
Q

Max. Size of a portable fire extinguisher:

A

3 gallons

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18
Q

Two types of emergency source of electrical power:

A

Generator and accumulator battery

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19
Q

What do you need to do for good order and discipline?

A

Research and review all relevant policy and guidance

Be prepared to report to the appropriate command cadre in person

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20
Q

__________ concisely and accurately identifies an issue needing to be studied, understood, or brought to the attention of the next higher authority.

A

Problem statement

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21
Q

Implementation of change or new policy could be slowed or stopped if significant barriers to __________ are evident and not halted.

A

Change or resistance

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22
Q

Each new policy has an________

A

Originating authority

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23
Q

To build support for a new or changed policy, stakeholders should understand the impacts of:

A

The new or changed policy:

Mission effectiveness/efficiency

Human and financial resources

Answering “what’s in it for me”

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24
Q

When socializing potential changes, the _________ must sell new policy and changes to current policy.

A

Program manager

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25
Q

The basis for creating new policy is a ________

A

Problem statement

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26
Q

While our instinct is to describe the changes needed in order to make things better, managers need data and other information to _________ the policy changes.

A

Sell

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27
Q

The process of effecting change involves ____ steps.

A

9

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28
Q

In order to make an effective argument for change, managers must ________ with others.

A

Collaborate

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29
Q

When communicating with program managers to effect change it is important to give complete and accurate _________.

A

Data and information

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30
Q

Developing policy requires in depth examination of the problem and establishment of ________.

A

Succinct steps

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31
Q

The ______ states that leaders must manage and champion organizational change.

A

Leadership Development Framework

COMDTINST 5351.3

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32
Q

Category of leadership competency that states “leaders are able to envision a preferred future for their units and functions”

A

Leading Performance and Change

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33
Q

In reviewing current unit policy there are ____ points managers need to do.

A

7

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34
Q

Program manager for CG wide directives and policy.

A

Commandant CG-61

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35
Q

Who can issue directives?

A

Commandant

Area, district, group commanders

Commanders, MLC

COs and OinC

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36
Q

With any new or changed policy, the issue of ______ to accomplish the mission becomes paramount.

A

Resources necessary

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37
Q

The person presenting the argument should also point out the _______ if new or changed policy does not occur.

A

Resources expended

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38
Q

When bringing a problem to a decision maker, you should be prepared to present:

A

Possible solution

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39
Q

Analysis to identify strengths and threats:

A

SWOT

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40
Q

_________ is necessary to reduce extra workload and person hours incurred by policy.

A

Reassessment

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41
Q

Best process to review a new policy or change:

A

Concurrent clearance

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42
Q

Request for resources in future fiscal years:

A

Reflect impact of new/changed policy

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43
Q

Force field analysis

A

Diagrams factors, stakeholders, and risks associated with barriers to change

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44
Q

Which step in the process for effecting cha he includes “market the right audience”?

A

Draft recommendations

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45
Q

COMDTINST M5215.6

A

CG Directives System Manual

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46
Q

Each command’s tool to establish procedures and processes to be followed to carry out command and CG policy.

A

SOP

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47
Q

Where can you refer members about CG Support programs using an app?

A

HSWL Mobile App

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48
Q

What mobile app has the Ombudsman locator?

A

HSWL Mobile App

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49
Q

which work-life program ensures the availability of financial information and resources?

A

Personal Financial Management Program

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50
Q

What program improves communications between the command and CG families?

A

Ombudsman

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51
Q

Where can you refer members for information about childcare?

A

Child Development Services

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52
Q

Where can you access recovery assistance resources for sexual assault survivors?

A

CG Support

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53
Q

What work-life program assists with quitting smoking?

A

Tobacco Cessation

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54
Q

Minimum number of VAs assigned to a unit with 250 members:

A

3
50 or more people = 2 VAs
Add 1 for every 100 more members

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55
Q

Work-life resources for spouses:

A

EAP

CG Support

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56
Q

When would a reserve member be eligible for substance abuse screening?

A

Any time

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57
Q

Which work-life program offers the CG Nutrition Video Series?

A

Personal wellness

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58
Q

Which work-life program is for members trying to provide in-home childcare?

A

Critical Incident Stress Response Program

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59
Q

Where can you find a list of Employee Assistance Program Coordinators (EAPC)?

A

Work-life: Critical Incident Stress Response Program

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60
Q

Work-life staff with the overall objective to support the well-being of active, reserve, and civilian employees and families.

A

Office of Work-Life

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61
Q

Directive for physical fitness responsibilities for active and SELRES:

A

CG Health Promotion Manual

COMDTINST M 6200.1E

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62
Q

Work-life information for psychological first aid:

A

Critical Incident Stress Response Program

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63
Q

Work-life program for ACE:

A

Suicide Prevention

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64
Q

Work-life program for legal and financial concerns:

A

EAP

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65
Q

Work-life program for parental leave:

A

Parent Resources

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66
Q

What is the purpose of Sea Legs?

A

Guide to the CG for family members

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67
Q

Purpose of the Critical Incident Stress Response Program:

A

Help individuals exposed to critical incidents identify and cope with their responses

68
Q

National Suicide Prevention Lifeline #:

A

800-273-TALK (8255)

69
Q

SAPS Duty #:

A

757-628-4329

70
Q

Information on the SAPRR website:

A

Resources

71
Q

Suicide Acronym

A

Ask
Care
Escort

72
Q

Who can offer unit-wide tobacco cessation training?

A

Health Promotion Manager

73
Q

What are members of the Substance Abuse Prevention Team called?

A

Substance Abuse Prevention Specialists (SAPS)

74
Q

The objective of the work-life subsistence program:

A

Provide policy and support to CS’

75
Q

Scholarships and school liaison programs are located under which drop down?

A

Family Support

76
Q

Facts about quitting smoking:

A

24 hours: lungs start clearing mucus
48 hours: improved taste and smell
72 hours: breath easier with more energy
12 weeks: coughing, wheezing, and breathing will improve
1 year: risk of heart disease reduced 50%
10 - 15 years: cancer risk similar to non-smoker

77
Q

Where is the CG nicotine use policy?

A

Chapter 3 of the CG Health Promotion Manual

78
Q

It is the CG policy to _____ tobacco products.

A

discourage the use of

79
Q

Discussions of individual personal management with the PFMP are:

A

Confidential

80
Q

The citation for the Meritorious Service Medal and below will be:

A

Typed and error-free

81
Q

Where can you find examples of writing award citations?

A

Enclosures to the Military Medals and Awards Manual

COMDTINST 1650.25E

82
Q

As a general rule, military members are not entitled to:

A

Cash awards
Gratuities
Gift Certificates
Coupons

83
Q

Requests for exceptions to policy for awards will be:

A

Approved only in extraordinary circumstances on a case by case basis

84
Q

How well the supervisor clearly communicates the member’s past performance and methods in which to improve are a priority to:

A

Ensure future success

85
Q

Appeal authority for EES

A

Appeal Authority (Approving Official)

86
Q

Who is responsible for the timely processing of an EER?

A

Rating Chain

87
Q

Each EES competency is defined in terms of ___ performance standards.

A

3

88
Q

How many days does a supervisor have to counsel a reserve evaluee? AD?

A

Reserve: 45 days
AD: 21 days

89
Q

Amount of items for a meeting agenda:

A

10 or 4???

90
Q

Time spent planning your meeting will ensure?

A

A better outcome

91
Q

Which step of meeting facilitation are ground rules established?

A

3

92
Q

Consensus discussions and “round-robin” are part of which step of meeting facilitation?

A

Evaluate

93
Q

When should parking lot items be discussed?

A

At the end of the session

94
Q

Action plans should be broken down into manageable chunks that take less than ____ to complete.

A

80 hours

95
Q

What type of meeting evaluation process includes making a chart?

A

Plus and Delta

96
Q

How many types of meeting evaluation processes are there?

A

4

97
Q

Who is required to stay out of content discussions during meetings?

A

Scribe

98
Q

Who has the responsibility to capture information as accurately as possible during a meeting?

A

Recorder

99
Q

Responsibility of a timekeeper in a meeting:

A

Keep track of time

Notify groups when allocated times are up

100
Q

Responsibility of a participant in a meeting:

A

Give input, ideas, and opinions
Listen to others
Clarify
Use good team process skills

101
Q

Which step in the meeting facilitation describes how the meeting will be run and how discussions will be made?

A

Establish ground rules

102
Q

Common team member roles during a meeting:

A 
Timekeeper
Scribe
Recorder
Co-facilitator
Participant
SME
103
Q

Another form of a parking lot:

A

IDA Record
Issues
Data
Actions

104
Q

Where is the information on routing a Memo found?

A

Chapter 2 of the Corrsepondance Manual

105
Q

Where can the precise title and staff symbol to be used on a memo be found?

A

Standard Distribution List

COMDTNOTE 5605

106
Q

When writing an internal command memo requiring visibility, a _____ may be used.

A

“thru” line

107
Q

Where are SSIC codes found?

A

Information and Lifecycle Management Manual

COMDTINST M5212.12

108
Q

Primary means of formal correspondence:

A

Memo

109
Q

Where is the SSIC placed on a Memo?

A

Each page

110
Q

Every memo must include:

A

A date

111
Q

What is used to comment on a Memo in routing?

A

Endorsement

112
Q

What is placed centered two lines below the last paragraph to indicate the end of the memo?

A

Closing

113
Q

What is the final stage of conflict?

A

Resolution

114
Q

What is the path for resolving conflict without it first escalating?

A

De-escalation

115
Q

When should peers look for assistance when managing conflict?

A

Escalation

116
Q

What stage of conflict is it when members make overt communications in an attempt to convince the other party of another situation?

A

Confrontation

117
Q

How many stages are there in conflict?

A

5

118
Q

Thomas Killman definition of conflict:

A

Any situation in which your concerns or desires differ from those of another person

119
Q

How many blocks are filled in when drafting a CG-3307?

A

6

120
Q

What should you do if a member is unavailable to sign a CG-3307?

A

State it and include the reason

121
Q

What CG-3307 do you use for a member requesting to be removed from the advancement list?

A

Advancement and Reduction

AR-07

122
Q

Where are copies of the CG-3307 sent for electronic imaging in the IPDR?

A

Commander, PSC (psd-mr)

123
Q

Template CG-3307 for inappropriate relationships:

A

PD-12

124
Q

Which template would you use for a general negative CG-3307?

A

PD-07

125
Q

For evaluations not completed in DA, what must be placed inside the original CG-3788 and forwarded to PPC?

A

Additional copy of the CG-3307

126
Q

Where is the original CG-3307 distributed to?

A

SPO PDR

127
Q

How many administrative remarks are there?

A

9

128
Q

How do you submit and CG Employee Hazard Report Form?

A

Online?

129
Q

How long must CG-113 assure assessments be retained?

A

Until the deficiencies are rectified and at least 5 yers after the end of the calendar year

130
Q

The minimum frequency for formal occupational safety and environmental health inspections:

A

Annually

131
Q

CG-4903

A

CG Employee Hazard Report Form

132
Q

What training codes direct PDCs to ensure members can complete and EPQ or RPQ correctly, without assistance?

A

Training Code 1: Train to Memory

133
Q

Green in CGBI:

A

Compliant: within standard

134
Q

Orange in CGBI:

A

Non-compliant: not currently correctable

135
Q

Red in CGBI:

A

Non-compliant: corrective action required

136
Q

Yellow in CGBI:

A

Compliant: Approaching limits of standard

137
Q

Reference for awards:

A

CG Military Medals and Awards Manual

138
Q

Award with highest precedence:

A

Medal of Honor

139
Q

Enlisted (E6 and below) Garrison cover insignia:

A

Rate/paygrade insignia or mini version of CG medallion

140
Q

E7 - E9 Garrison cover insignia:

A

1 3/8” anchor

141
Q

What is not authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve?

A

Ribbons

142
Q

Color of service stripe on SDB for E7? E4?

A

E7: Gold
E4: Red

143
Q

The service stripe on SDB is placed at what angle?

A

45*

144
Q

Collar insignia on the light blue shirt is centered between the visible top and bottom edge and the center of the device is ______ from the leading edge.

A

1”

145
Q

Oxfords are not authorized:

A

With the skirt

146
Q

Women’s shirt and slacks align with the belt so that:

A

The tab edge touches the wearer’s right side of the buckle

147
Q

In all cases, the non-tab edge of the belt must align with:

A

The fly

148
Q

Which uniform item is not authorized for wear with the SDB jacket?

A

AF Skirt

149
Q

The only authorized know for the blue standard necktie:

A

Double Windsor

150
Q

When wearing the women’s overblouse with the SDB, the bottom shall not be _____

A

Visible

151
Q

What do the women’s short and long sleeve light blue shirts have?

A

Fly front covering the buttons

152
Q

Only alteration authorized for the light blue shirt:

A

Long sleeve may be shortened

May be altered to provide a better and more athletic fit

153
Q

Wearing of this type of blue crew neck shirt is prohibited in heat/fire-prone spaces:

A

Moisture wicking

154
Q

What is required for wear with all uniforms?

A

Undershirts with quarter length sleeves

155
Q

When wearing the tropical blue uniform, ____will be worn over the wearer’s left pocket.

A

Ribbons and insignia

156
Q

When wearing the TBLS, _____ will be worn over the wearer’s right pocket.

A

Name tag

CO/OinC

157
Q

When wearing the TBSS, men are required to wear:

A

Men’s shirt

158
Q

What footwear is authorized for women wearing slacks in the TBSS?

A

Oxfords, pumps, or flats

159
Q

What headgear is authorized for men in the TBLS?

A

Combo or Garrison Cover

160
Q

You can wear a maximum of ___ring(s) per hand.

A

1

161
Q

Prohibited watch colors include:

A

Diamond colored, neon, white, and bright colors

162
Q

Authorized color for sunglasses:

A

Black or Navy
Gold or Silver Wire
Black or Brown Lenses

163
Q

Engagement/wedding ring sets or ______ ring sets are counted as one ring.

A

class/wedding

164
Q

According to COMDTINST 1020.6K, fitness trackers are:

A

Watches

165
Q

COMDTINST 1020.6K stipulates ____ rings are not authorized.

A

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SWE (3 decks)

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