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CPZ SV questions > SV questions > Flashcards

SV questions Flashcards

1
Q

How long into the future does the altitude trend vector predict?

A

6 seconds

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2
Q

How long does the IESS take to initialize?

A

90 seconds

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3
Q

How long into the future does the airspeed trend vector indicate?

A

10 seconds

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4
Q

What is “green dot?”

A

Minimum speed for any configuration. Essentially L/D Max

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5
Q

What things are magenta on the displays?

A

FMS data, FD cue, active route

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6
Q

What things are cyan on the displays?

A

Advisory data, FMS calculated data on MCDU, advisory CAS messages, crew selected data (bugs).

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7
Q

What things are green on the displays?

A

NAVAID data, “on” for systems, engaged modes that are non FMS, current speed/alt/etc.

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8
Q

What do amber dashes mean?

A

Invalid Data

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9
Q

What things are white on the displays?

A

Armed/stdby modes, status boxes, CAS status messages, “off” systems.

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10
Q

What does AFCS mean?

A

Automatic Flight Control System

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11
Q

What are the main components of the AFCS?

A

Flight Director, autopilot, yaw damper.

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12
Q

What is an FCM?

A

Flight Control Module.

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13
Q

What does an FCM do?

A

Provides software based assistance to the P-ACE and is required for normal-mode. (Provides high level functions).

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14
Q

What are the high level functions of the FCM?

A
  • elevator control laws scheduling with airspeed
  • auto-thrust compensation with elevator
  • AOA limiting with elevator
  • rudder airspeed gain scheduling
  • yaw damper and turn coordinator
  • rudder flight authority
  • roll spoiler scheduling with airspeed and speedbrake deployment.
  • configuration change with horizontal stab due to speed brakes.
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15
Q

What happens when in direct-mode?

A

FCM is removed from the control loop and high level functions are lost.

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16
Q

How many FCMs does the E-175 have?

A

4

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17
Q

Where are the FCMs located?

A

FCM 1 and 2 are in MAU 1

FCM 3 and 4 are in MAU 3

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18
Q

What is an “ACE” and what does it do?

A

“Actuator control Electronics”. These connect the control column directly to the control surfaces.

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19
Q

How many ACEs does the E-175 have?

A

9

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20
Q

What is a P-ACE and how many do we have? What do they control?

A

Primary actuator control electronics. We have 3 P-ACEs. The p-ACEs control rudder and elevators

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21
Q

What is a SF-ACE and how many do we have? What do they control?

A

Slat/Flap actuator control electronics. We have 2, they control slats/flaps.

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22
Q

What is an HS-ACE and how many do we have? What do they control?

A

Horizontal stabilizer actuator control electronics. (There is only ONE HS-ACE.) it controls the horizontal stabilizer.

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23
Q

What is an S-ACE and how many do we have? What do they control?

A

Spoiler Actuator control electronics. We have ONE. It controls the spoilers.

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24
Q

When is INCREASE DESCENT command inhibited on TCAS?

A
  • below 1450 AGL during descent

- below 1650 AGL during climb

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25
Q

The TCAS DESCENT command is inhibited at altitudes____

A
  • below 1,000AGL during descent

- below 1200AGL during climb

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26
Q

The TCAS automatically reverts to TA only mode and inhibits RA when____?

A
  • altitudes below 900AGL during descent

- below 1,100 AGL during climb

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27
Q

TAs are completely inhibited for all planes below____ AGL

A

380

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28
Q

All TCAS aural advisories are inhibited when____

A
  • below 400AGL during descent

- below 600AGL during climb

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29
Q

NO CLIMB or INCREASE CLIMB from TCAS are inhibited at what altitude?

A

At or above 34,000MSL

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30
Q

When is a K1 code inhibited?

A

Parked

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31
Q

When is a K2a code inhibited?

A

Taxiing

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32
Q

When is a K2b code inhibited?

A

Takeoff roll

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33
Q

When is a K3 code inhibited?

A

Takeoff

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34
Q

When is a K4 code inhibited?

A

Climb, cruise, approach

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35
Q

When is a K5 code inhibited?

A

Landing

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36
Q

What components make up TCAS?

A

ADSP, RA, XPDRs, MRC1 and MRC2, MCDU, CCD.

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37
Q

What is a MRC?

A

Modular Radio Cabinet

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38
Q

What conditions would set off a takeoff configuration warning upon attempted takeoff?

A
  • flaps not set in agreement with FMS planned flaps
  • flaps are not in a takeoff position
  • parking brake on
  • pitch trim not in green range
  • any spoiler panel deployed
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39
Q

What are the levels of aural warnings?

A

Level 1- (advisory)
Level 2- (master caution)
Level 3- (master warning I.E. EGPWS, TCAS)

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40
Q

What is the priority logic for level 3 warnings?

A

Acronym SETFOL

  • Stall
  • EGPWS
  • TCAS
  • Fire
  • Overspeed
  • Landing gear
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41
Q

Level 3 aural earnings take priority over all other aural warnings. True or False

A

True

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42
Q

What are the warning colors on CAS?

A

Red-Warning, immediate response/awareness.
Yellow-Caution, immediate awareness, subsequent action
Cyan-advisory, awareness
White-status

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43
Q

How long is APU cool down?

A

1 minute

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44
Q

What components are in the accessory gear box?

A

Engine driven fuel pump, IDG, PMA, oil pump, air starter, hydraulic pump.

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45
Q

What is a PMA? What does it do?

A

Permanent Magnetic Alternator. It’s in the accessory gear box. It provides power to the FADEC above 50% N2. If it fails airplane electrical handles FADEC

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46
Q

What are the engine oil minimum levels?

A

Engine off for 15min-2 hours: >4.5Q

Engine off more than 2 hours: >5.5Q

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47
Q

When will the APU automatically shut down on the ground?

A

Overspeed, underspeed, FADEC critical fault, APU Fire, EGT overtemp, high oil temp, low oil pressure, sensor failure.

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48
Q

When does the APU automatically shut down in flight?

A

underspeed, FADEC critical fault, Overspeed (UFO)

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49
Q

Where does the APU bleed come into the bleed system?

A

Left side of the bleed air manifold.

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50
Q

In an APU start, what are the actions of battery 1 and battery 2?

A

Battery 1 drives the DC fuel pump

Battery 2 drives the starter motor.

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51
Q

What is an MAU?

A

Modular Avionics Unit. It’s just a big card cage that contains modules assigned to many different functions. Has nothing to do with power distribution.

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52
Q

How many MAUs are in the E175?

A

3

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53
Q

Where is MAU 1 located?

A

Forward EBay

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54
Q

Where is MAU3 located?

A

Center eBay

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55
Q

Where is MAU 2 located?

A

Forward EBay

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56
Q

What is an ICC and what does it do?

A

Integrated Control Center. The ICCs are where all the electrical busses live.

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57
Q

How many ICCs are there on the E-175? Name them

A 
There are 4.
LICC (left)
RICC (right)
EICC (emergency)
AICC (Auxiliary)
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58
Q

In addition to the physical home of the busses, the ICCs contain___

A

Thermal CBs
Line replaceable units (LRUs)
Line replaceable modules
(LRMs)

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59
Q

What is in the LICC?

A

AC bus 1
DC bus 1
AC and DC ground service busses.

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60
Q

What is in the RICC?

A

AC bus 2
DC bus 2
DC ESS bus 2

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61
Q

What is in the EICC?

A

AC ESS bus
STDBY AC bus
DC ESS bus 1 and 3
HOT battery bus 1

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62
Q

What is in the AICC?

A

HOT battery bus 2

APU start bus

63
Q

What is an SPDA? What does it do?

A

Secondary Power Distribution Assembly. An SPDA receives power from separate ICCs and distributes it according to system logic.

64
Q

How many SPDAs do we have?

A

2

65
Q

Where is SPDA 1?

A

Forward EBay.

66
Q

Where is SPDA2?

A

Center EBay.

67
Q

What is BATT 2’s purpose?

A

Serves as a standby for BATT1 and in normal operation, it’s only job is to power the APU starter bus.

68
Q

I’m an electrical emergency, how long will ONLY batteries provide power?

A

About 10 minutes

69
Q

What are the main DC power sources?

A

2 TRUs
DC GPU
Batteries

70
Q

What does the inverter do?

A

Converts 28V DC to 100 V AC (single phase)

71
Q

When you turn only the batteries on, what displays light up in the cockpit?

A

CAPT MFD, IESS, EICAS, clock, FO MCDU.

72
Q

When starting the APU, when does electricity become available?

A

95% RPM and 3 seconds

73
Q

Where is the IDG? What is an IDG?

A

Integrated Drive Generator. Provides AC power from engines. Spun by the constant speed drive that is turned in the accessory gear box. The IDG itself is on the accessory gear box.

74
Q

What RPM does the IDGs constant speed drive run at?

A

12,000

75
Q

What are the power specifications of the AC power coming from the IDGs and APU?

A

40kVa
115V
400HZ
3 phase

76
Q

What are the power specifications for the AC power coming from a RAT when deployed?

A

15kVa
115V
400HZ

77
Q

Does the RAT have any ice protection?

A

Not the blades, but the prop hub is protected.

78
Q

How can the SPDA be explained in layman’s terms?

A

An SPDA is a robot flight engineer. (In terms of power distribution). The AMS controller is the same but for the pneumatics.

79
Q

Where is BATT1?

A

Forward EBay.

80
Q

Where is BATT2?

A

Aft EBay

81
Q

What kind of batteries does the E-175 have?

A

NiCad 22.8V D/C @27amps

82
Q

What is the name of the E-175 engines?

A

General Electric CF34-8E

83
Q

What TLR is TOGA?

A

75 degrees TLR.

84
Q

What TLR is idle?

A

22 degrees TLR

85
Q

What is normal takeoff thrust? (T/O 1)

A

13,000lbs

86
Q

What is max reserve takeoff thrust? (T/O 1)

A

14,200lbs

87
Q

What is normal takeoff thrust (T/O 2)?

A

11,800lbs

88
Q

What is max reserve thrust (T/O 2)?

A

13,000 lbs

89
Q

Are there any start protections in flight for the engines?

A

No

90
Q

What is max go around thrust?

A

14,200lbs

91
Q

What is max CLB-1 thrust?

A

12,400lbs

92
Q

What is max CLB-2 thrust?

A

11,100

93
Q

What is max CRZ thrust?

A

10,400lbs

94
Q

Wing anti ice doesn’t come on until ____knots of selected on.

A

40

95
Q

What factors decide when the AMS controller will turn off the ECS packs?

A

Takeoff dataset, pressure altitude, flight phase, engine failure. It disregards when above 1500ft.

96
Q

Setting ECS off in the takeoff dataset does what?

A

Simply tells the aircraft to not use engine bleeds for the ECS packs. May use APU or have no ECS packs during takeoff.

97
Q

Regardless of takeoff dataset configuration, when will the ECS packs be automatically switched over to the engine bleed air?

A

Out of 500 AGL

98
Q

What would a bleed leak look like from the cockpit?

A

EICAS message and overhead label would show an amber bar illuminated on the leaking bleed system.

99
Q

The bleed valves closes automatically when___

A

Overpressure, leak, or failure is detected.

100
Q

Cross bleed valve opened automatically for____

A

Engine start
Single bleed source
APU bleed operations
Ground operations

101
Q

Pack 1 conditioned air goes to____

A

The cockpit

102
Q

Pack 2 conditioned air goes to____

A

The cabin

103
Q

When does the gas per shutoff valve automatically begin porting air overboard?

A

35 degrees C (95F)

104
Q

What is the emergency ram air valve for?

A

To supply the cockpit fresh air in an ECS pack failure, up to 25,000 ft.

105
Q

What is the ECS safety check valve for?

A

To provide pressurization equalization for the cabin.

106
Q

When are recirculating fans commanded off?

A 
Both packs off
On the ground during warmup while APU bleed on
During cabin pressure DUMP
Cargo fire signal 
Smoke in recirculation bay
107
Q

How long does the backup flight control battery last? Where is it?

A

15 minutes, in aft EBay

108
Q

How many PCUs are for the elevator? What configuration?

A

4; active/active

109
Q

How many PCUs control the rudder? What configuration?

A

2; active/standby (FO lower PCU, CA upper PCU)

110
Q

Regarding the spoilers, what features are removed in direct mode?

A

You lost ground spoilers and speed brakes. Only roll spoilers remain

111
Q

Aileron PCUs operate in a _________ configuration

A

Active/active

112
Q

What is a PCU? What does it do?

A

Power Control Unit. These are hydraulic actuators what control flight control surfaces.

113
Q

What is a PTU and what is it for?

A

Power Transfer Unit. Transfers hydraulic pressure (but not fluid), from system 1 to system 2 for operation of the landing gear ONLY in the event of system 2 failure.

114
Q

What are the components of hydraulic system 1?

A

1 reservoir, 1 engine driven pump (EDP 1), one AC pump, 1 accumulator.

115
Q

What systems are supplied by hydraulic system 1?

A
  • left outboard elevator
  • upper rudder
  • engine 1 thrust reverser
  • MF spoilers left and right panels 3 and 4
  • ground spoilers left and right panel 2
  • outboard brakes
  • emergency/parking brake
116
Q

Where are the engine driven hydraulic pumps?

A

On the accessory gear box

117
Q

What hydraulic temperature will cause an EICAS message “HYD 1 (2, or 3) HI TEMP”?

A

100 degrees C

118
Q

What hydraulic temperature will force a SOV (shut off valve) closed for any given system?

A

125 degrees C

119
Q

Will the SOV be closed for an overheat for system 3?

A

Yes, unless there is an electrical emergency. Since system 3 is primary flight controls backup.

120
Q

What bus is AC hydraulic pump powered by?

A

AC bus 2

121
Q

In flight, when do the AC hydraulic pumps 1 and 2 automatically activate?

A

EDP failure or engine failure, flaps selected to anything more than 0.

122
Q

On the ground, when does AC hydraulic pump 1 activate automatically?

A

Flaps selected anything more than 0, thrust levers set to takeoff, of ground speed more than 50 kt.

123
Q

What is an accumulator for?

A

Designed to maintain pressure in periods of transient flow demands and keeps pressure to prevent cavitation.

124
Q

What are the components of hydraulic system 2?

A

1 reservoir, 1 EDP, 1 AC pump, 1 accumulator, one PTU.

125
Q

What systems does hydraulic system 2 provide?

A
  • left and right inboard elevator
  • right and left onboard ailerons
  • thrust reverser engine 2
  • MF spoilers left and right panel 1
  • inboard brakes
  • landing gear
  • emergency/parking brake
126
Q

When does the PTU automatically start running?

A

Takeoff and landing. (System logic is flaps not to zero or gear not up and locked, EDP 1 not failed, hyd reservoir #2 above 12%). Basically takeoff and landing, EDP 1 ok, and you have hydraulic fluid above 12% in system 2

127
Q

What are the components of hydraulic system 3?

A

One reservoir, 2 AC pumps, and one accumulator.

128
Q

What systems are pressurized by hydraulic system 3?

A

Right outboard elevator
Lower rudder
Outboard ailerons

129
Q

What bus powers hydraulic system 3A pump?

A

AC ESS bus.

130
Q

What bus powers hydraulic system 3B pump?

A

AC BUS 2

131
Q

When does hydraulic pump 3B automatically power on?

A

Simply whenever hydraulic system 3A pump fails. It’s only role is a standby.

132
Q

What does the pump unloader valve do?

A

It’s in hydraulic system 3 and reduced hydraulic pressure demand during startup to prevent stalling the RAT on deployment.

133
Q

What is an ACE?

A

Actuator Control Electronics. Connect flight controls to control surfaces.

134
Q

What controls are controlled by the P-ACE?

A

Rudder and elevator.

135
Q

If the P-ACE is the primary flight controls, why aren’t there aileron P-ACEs?!

A

Because ailerons aren’t fly by wire, they do have PCUs, but those PCUs are activated by direct link cables from the control column

136
Q

Are the slats/flaps hydraulic or electronic?

A

Electronic

137
Q

Name the ACEs

A

P-ACE (3 of them)
SF-ACE (2 of them)
HS-ACE (one)
S-ACE (3 of them)

138
Q

What’s an FCM?

A

Flight control module. Provides higher level flight controls to the ACEs in normal mode.

139
Q

What causes automatic switching from normal to direct mode?

A

Loss of data to the FCM or multiple ACE failures.

140
Q

What is a PBIT?

A

Power up built in test. It’s for the flight control system to expose any faults upon power up. OR another PBIT is for hydraulic faults. There are 2 PBITs.

141
Q

How long does the electric PBIT take?

A

3-4 minutes. Don’t mess with the flight controls.

142
Q

How long does the hydraulic PBIT last?

A

1-1.5 minutes. Don’t mess with the flight controls.

143
Q

Is there any backup for the fly by wire system in case of TOTAL electrical emergency like no RAT and also no battery life left?

A

Yes. There is a dedicated fly by wire back up battery which is about 15 minutes of flying, screens totally dark and cockpit dark. But flight controls will work for 15 minutes. It’s charged by DC ESS BUS 3.

144
Q

Regarding PCUs, which are active/active and which are active/standby?

A

All are active/standby except for ailerons which are active/active.

145
Q

What does pushing the “flight control mode” buttons for elevators, rudder, or spoilers do?

A

Switches that control from normal to direct mode, and if pushed again back into normal mode. It also switches the active channel to standby and the standby to active.

146
Q

The air management system (AMS) consists of what 2 main systems?

A

Pneumatic system

Environmental control system

147
Q

If you press “DUMP” on the pressurization panel, what happens?

A

The outflow valve opens and dumps the pressure inside the cabin at 2,000FPM down to a max of 12,400. It stops ECS packs, and stops recirculation fans.

148
Q

If you press “DUMP” on the pressurization panel, and the mode is set to MAN (manual) what happens.

A

The outflow valve does NOT open. So it needs to be in AUTO for a pressurization dump.

149
Q

What does the LFE CTRL selection do on the pressurization panel?

A

It allows manual selection of the landing field elevation without leaving automatic pressurization mode.

150
Q

When does an engine bleed valve automatically open?

A

When switch is in AUTO
Bleed available
No fire
No leak

151
Q

When does an engine bleed valve automatically close?

A

Leak
Overpressure
Fail condition

152
Q

When does the APU bleed valve automatically open?

A 
APU switch AUTO
APU bleed available
No leak
Left engine bleed unavailable 
No anti ice request
153
Q

When does the cross bleed valve automatically open?

A
  • If one side provides manifold pressure and the other side has no bleed source.
  • Engine 2 start in air
  • APU bleed OFF and engine 1 start in air

CPZ SV questions (1 decks)

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