SV Prep Flashcards
1
Q
Prior to takeoff, the first officer performs the Before Takeoff flow and presses the Takeoff Configuration Button. Which conditions are being checked?
A
Slat/Flap position agrees with position selected in the MCDU.
Spoilers not deployed.
Pitch Trim in the green range.
Parking Brake not set
2
Q
Looking at the EICAS, What is the memory item for this warning message? (BATT 1 OVERTEMP)
A
Associated Battery - OFF
3
Q
Where will the escape guidance be displayed during a wind-shear Warning?
A
PFD
4
Q
(T/F) The Terrain Awareness Display on the MFD is a great tool for situational awareness, but should NOT be used as the primary source of navigation.
A
True
5
Q
The Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System (EGPWS) provides _____ warnings to help avoid terrain and detected wind-shear guidance.
A
Aural and Visual
6
Q
What color are WARNING messages displayed as on the EICAS?
A
Red
7
Q
When landing at an airport that is not in the aircraft’s database, pressing the GND PROX TERR INHIB….
A
Inhibits EGPWS and thus avoids unwanted terrain alerts in airports not covered by EGPWS database
8
Q
(T/F) If too many EICAS messages are being displayed at any given time, the pilot can scroll through the EICAS to see any hidden messages (except for warning messages)
A
True
9
Q
Which of the following is associated with a triple chime aural alert?
A
Master Warning
10
Q
When deciding which EICAS message to work through first, what is the likely result if you chose a root message first?
A
If dealt with first, it will likely solve other related messages.
11
Q
On the EICAS, what is the meaning of a Cyan Advisory Message?
A
Indicates operational or airplane conditions that require crew awareness. Subsequent or future crew action may be required.
12
Q
While complying with a Resolution Advisory (RA), the crew simultaneously receives a “TERRAIN, TERRAIN” aural alert. What should the crew do?
A
Abandon the RA maneuver and execute the appropriate CFIT escape maneuver.
13
Q
(T/F) When shown simultaneously on the EICAS, messages with higher priority display above other messages.
A
True
14
Q
(T/F) The primary purpose of the EGPWS is to give aural visual alerts and warnings in the avoidance of controlled flight into terrain and to give the flight crew detected wind-shear warnings.
A
True
15
Q
On the airspeed indicator, what does Green Dot represent?
A
1.3G above shaker with 40° bank protection.
Flap extension speed
Green Dot +10 knots is used to retract the flaps if the “F-bug” disappears.
16
Q
If ADS1 fails, what is the system automatic reversionary logic?
A
Reversion to ADS 3
17
Q
Looking at the PFD, the “F-BUG” for flap retraction has disappeared. What speed can be referenced for flap retraction?
A
Green Dot +10
18
Q
(T/F) The ADS provides the data for the altimeter and airspeed indicator
A
True
19
Q
While flying at cruise altitude, one engine flames out and FADEC is unable to relight the engine. What would be the most appropriate speed for drift-down?
A
Green Dot
20
Q
Following the systems reversionary logic, where will the EICAS information be displayed if DU 3 has failed?
A
DU 2 and 4
21
Q
Looking at the HSI, there is an amber X in the center of the display. What does this mean?
A
There is no course to be displayed, might be expecting a Radar Vector departure
22
Q
(T/F) In the event of an engine failure, the use of FMS speeds is prohibited.
A
False
23
Q
During the safety and power up checklist, you turn BATT 1 and BATT 2 to ON and AUTO. Which screens should turn on?
A
DU 2 and 3
24
Q
If IDG 1 is running and the APU is ON, what is powering AC BUS 2?
A
The APU generator only
25
You encounter an ELEC EMERGENCY in flight. Which EICAS message will be extinguished once the RAT has successfully deployed?
BATT DISCHARGING
26
With the APU ON, what will happen if both IDGs fail while flying?
Nothing because the APU will still be providing AC power
27
(T/F) BATT 1(2) Overtemp is a memory item
True
28
What is the cause sfo the ELEC EMERGENCY EICAS message?
Loss of normal AC power to AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2
29
When an AC power source is not available, the ____ will power the STBY AC BUS, providing power to the ____?
Inverter, Engine Igniters
30
What do the TRUs convert?
AC power to DC power
31
There are multiple sources of AC power available for the aircraft. Which is not an AC source?
Battery 1 and 2
32
What is a true statement regarding total loss of AC power in flight?
The RAT should automatically deploy and provide limited AC power
33
(T/F) An engine can be started without an AC power source
True
34
With the aircraft powered down, which items are provided power through the HOT BATT BUS?
Pressure refueling, Engine Fire extinguishing
35
In order to disconnect the IDG, the selector knob must be in what position?
DISC
36
The ERJ-175 has what type(s) of circuit breakers?
Thermal and Electronic
37
The pilot must reference the battery recharging table in the SOPM when the batteries is at which voltage?
21.0 - 22.5 Volts
38
Once the RAT has fully deployed, what is the minimum speed that the aircraft must fly to allow the RAT to supply power to the AC ESS BUS?
130 knots
39
While performing the Leaving the Airplane Checklist, you shut down the APU. According to SOPM, what indications are you looking for prior to switching BATT 1 and BATT 2 to OFF?
APU FUEL SOV CLOSED EICAS message has populated.
| Wait until the APU indicates OFF
40
What is the purpose of the inverter?
Converts DC to AC power
41
The batteries in the emergency lights power units (ELPU) are charged to supply all emergency lights with power for approximately….
10 minutes
42
When must a fire detection system test be performed?
The crews first flight of the day in a particular airplane
43
What areas of the aircraft have built-in fire protection?
APU, Engines, Cargo Compartments
44
If the fire detection system detects a fire in the AFT cargo compartment, what does the system automatically do?
High and low rate fire extinguishing bottle arm and the associated cargo fire button illuminates.
45
Which valves will close when the fire extinguisher handle is pulled?
Fuel SOV, Hydraulic SOV, Bleed SOV
46
Prior to selecting the TEST button on the FIREX panel, what should the pilot verify?
No fire protection fail messages displayed on the EICAS
47
The engines and APU use fire detector loops for fire detection. The LAV and cargo use what type of detectors?
Smoke detectors
48
While in flight, you suspect a non-annunciated AFT cargo fire. You proceed to the appropriate QRH procedure and are directed to push the AFT CARGO EXT button on the fire panel. The first time you push this button, what happens?
Neither bottle is used, but the high rate extinguishing bottle is armed.
49
You are conducting the external inspection. During the inspection, the APU shuts down unexpectedly and you notice smoke exiting the tail cone. You return to the flight deck more than 60 seconds later. What indications will you see?
The APU fire extinguisher push button is illuminated.
50
If the APU FADEC detects a fire in flight, how much time will pass before it automatically shuts down the APU?
The APU will not automatically shut down for an in-flight fire.
51
You have arrived early to the airplane and have not established any power. A ramper gets your attention and signals that the right engine is on fire. Without applying power to the airplane, can you discharge the engine fire bottles and try to attempt to control the fire?
Yes.
52
You experience a NON-ANNUNCIATED AFT cargo fire on the ground. While following the guidance of the QRH, how many times do you need to press the AFT cargo button to get the low rate fire bottle to discharge?
Three
53
(T/F) A total of two fire extinguisher bottles named A and B are installed in the airplane to serve either or both engines.
True
54
in flight you receive a “CARGO FWD SMOKE” EICAS message. After pressing the FWD CARGO SMOKE push button, how long will the low rate bottle discharge for?
75 minutes
55
(T/F) The ERJ-175 can be refueled without power being established to it
True
56
If AC ground power is not available and both engine are OFF, which fuel pump will provide fuel pressure to the APU during an APU start?
The DC fuel pump
57
When the cross feed selector is set to LOW1 or LOW2, what is the best way to describe how the system balances fuel?
Both engines are burning fuel from the same tank to balance fuel
58
(T/F) In the event of an engine fire or other severe engine damage, the only way to close the engine fuel SOV is by turning off the AC and DC fuel pumps.
False
59
With only battery power applied to the airplane, which fuel pumps will operate?
DC Fuel pump
60
Looking at the fuel synoptic page, what fuel pumps are in the LEFT collector tank?
Ejector pump, AC fuel pump
61
(T/F) The maximum fuel capacity of the ERJ-175 is 69,886 lbs.
False
62
While sitting at the gate with the APU running, you receive a “FUEL IMBALANCE” EICAS message. After push back and taxi, your fuel quantities for tanks 1 and 2 read 6,000lbs and 6,790lbs respectively. The EICAS message is still populated. Are you legal for takeoff?
Yes
63
Which fuel pump needs to remain submerged in the collector tank to maintain constant fuel flow to its respective engine during normal operations?
Ejector Pump
64
You are starting Engine 1 with the APU ON. Which fuel pump will be providing fuel to the engine?
AC fuel pump
65
For takeoff and landing, the XFEED selector knob must be set to ___ and the fuel imbalance must be less than ___ lbs.
OFF, 794
66
On the ERJ, the maximum fuel capacity is ___ lbs. and the minimum operating fuel temperature is ____.
20,935, -37°C
67
A FUEL IMBALANCE caution message populated on the EICAS when a fuel imbalance of _____ lbs or more between the two main tanks.
800 lbs.
68
Who is allowed to be on the airplane during refueling with engines running?
Pilots and Flight Attendants (no PAX)
69
With AC fuel pump 1 knob set to AUTO, when will system logic turn the pump ON?
XFEED selected to LOW2, Main ejector pump failure, Starting Engine 1
70
With AC fuel pump 2 knob set to AUTO, when will system logic turn the pump ON?
XFEED set to LOW1, Starting the APU, Main ejector pump failure, Starting engine 2
71
(T/F) Will the DC fuel pump provide pressurized fuel for normal APU start and right engine start when AC power is not available?
True
72
(T/F) Pulling the fire handle on the overhead panel will shutoff the fuel
True
73
For each individual fuel tank, when does the fuel tank quantity indication on the EICAS turn Amber?
1320 lbs
74
If you anticipate landing with less than _____ of fuel, you should declare emergency fuel.
1,500 lbs
75
Why does the pilot still perform the ENGINE ABNORMAL START memory item even if FADEC automatically aborts the failed engine start attempt?
The SCV must be manually closed to ensure that the starter limitation will not be exceeded.
76
Dry motoring duty limit for the 1st cycle is
90 seconds ON, 5 minutes OFF
77
FADEC will automatically abort an engine start for:
HOT start, HUNG start, NO LIGHT OFF
78
The use of Flex thrust takeoff is prohibited for which conditions?
Contaminated runway, Reported or forecasted wind-shear, When a special departure procedure specifies full thrust for takeoff.
79
The CON thrust rating can be automatically set by FADEC or manually selected under the TRS menu on the MCDU
True
80
With the thrust levers set to TO/GA, when will ATTCS command RSV thrust?
Difference between both engines N1 values exceeding 15%, Engine failure during takeoff or go-around, Wind-shear detection
81
On final approach you notice that “GA” mode is displayed between the N1 gauges, what airplane configuration will generate this mode?
Landing gear down and flaps greater than 0
82
Prior to takeoff, how long should the engines be at or near idle before selecting higher thrust settings?
2 minutes
83
On landing, thrust revers should be MIN by ___ kts and stowed by ___ kts.
60, 30
84
According to the SOPM, when should the thrust reversers be used?
Wet, slippery, or contaminated runway
85
What is the proper pilot action after FADEC aborts an engine start attempt?
Perform the “Engine Abnormal Start” memory item
86
When would you select the engine ignition to OVRD?
As directed by the QRH
87
What does decreasing the FLEX temp do to the N1 target on the EICAS?
Increases the N1 target
88
TO-1 and TO-2 are different thrust settings. What is the difference between the two?
TO-1 provides more thrust than TO-2
89
The FMA provides what information to the pilot?
Automation modes and status
90
Looking at the FMA, certain information is displayed in white. What does this color represent?
The White represents modes that are armed but not active.
91
You are cleared to climb via an RNAV SID which contains multiple altitude and speed restrictions. What is the most appropriate vertical mode and speed more to ensure that you complete with all of the altitudes and speeds on the SID?
Climb in magenta FLCH and FMS speeds.
92
(T/F) while climbing in FLCH mode, you are about to level off at cruise altitude. As you approach your cruise altitude the vertical mode in the FMA should first switch to ASEL, and then ALT once you have captured your altitude.
True
93
If assigned holding, what should the recommended holding speed on the SkyWest ERJ while flying at 5,000 MSL?
200 KIAS while respecting green dot speeds
94
(T/F) the DES NOW option of the MCDU can be selected prior to reaching the TOD, which will result in PTH mode.
True
95
(T/F) According to the SOPM, the use of FMS speeds is allowed during all flight conditions, including single engine flight
True
96
While flying an ILS approach, what is the minimum autopilot use altitude?
50 ft.
97
(T/F) while the TCS button is pressed on the control wheel, the FD is synced to the Flight path angle.
True
98
(T/F) If VNAV mode is ON, the vertical mode on the FMA will be displayed in magenta color.
True
99
When performing a missed approach, you reach down and press TO/GA button on the thrust levers. Which FMA modes become active and armed?
TRACK, GA
| LNAV, VNAV
100
(T/F) a functional (non-deferred) autopilot system is required for operations in RVSM airspace.
True
101
The autopilot will automatically disengage when a wind-shear ____ is detected.
Warning
102
Looking at the FMA, if flying a HDG departure, what mode should be deselected?
LNAV
103
After the third APU start attempt, how long should you wait before another start?
5 minutes
104
What does the APU provide for the aircraft?
Electrical power, Bleed Air, Water pressurization
105
(T/F) The APU can be started without battery 2, provided there is a DC GPU.
True
106
While climbing through FL290, you experience an IDG failure. After completing the appropriate QRH procedure, you elect to start the APU. What is the maximum altitude you should fly to accomplish this?
FL300
107
You are completing the leaving the airplane checklist and have just selected the APU to OFF. Which indications should you see prior to switching battery 1 and 2 to OFF?
Wait until APU indicates “OFF” and “APU FUEL SOV CLOSED” on the EICAS
108
(T/F) you have just landed in Calgary during the winter. The current temperature is -20°C. It is within limitations to start the APU.
True
109
(T/F) In flight, the APU should automatically shut down if an Overspeed condition is encountered.
True
110
While starting the APU, you first rotate the APU master switch to ON. Prior to rotating the APU master switch to START, what should be verified?
The APU indication on the EICAS changes from OFF to APU control parameters.
111
(T/F) With the APU running, if the fire extinguisher test button is pressed for more than 10 seconds, the APU automatically shuts down.
True
112
What is the APU altitude limit for engine start?
21,000 ft.
113
What is the maximum altitude that the APU bleed air should be used to pressurize the aircraft?
15,000 ft.
114
The MEL procedure for a deferred IDG instructs you to run the APU for the entire flight. Dispatch files your cruise altitude at FL320. Are you legal to conduct this flight?
Yes, The maximum altitude I can fly with the APU running is FL330
115
In flight, what will cause the APU FADEC to automatically shut down the APU?
UFO
Under-speed
FADEC critical fault
Over-speed
116
(T/F) The APU FADEC automatically shuts down the APU for a fire on the ground.
True
117
What is the maximum differential pressure?
8.4psi
118
In MANUAL mode, what will happen when the cabin DUMP button is pressed?
The PACKs and the RECIRC fans will turn OFF.
119
For what reason would you be operationally limited to FL310?
Maximum single PACK operations.
120
What is BLEED air used for?
ECS, Engine start, Water pressurization
121
(T/F) The APU can provide BLEED air for engine start
True
122
Which QRC memory item requires the use of the pressurization DUMP button?
Smoke Evacuation
123
Normal cabin pressurization is regulated by the ____
Outflow Valve
124
The ____ will automatically open if the pressure differential between the cabin and surround environment is exceeded.
Positive pressure relief valve
125
(T/F) the ECS provides pressurized and conditioned air for the flight deck and passenger cabin.
True
126
With the pressurization system AUTO, pressing the DUMP will ____
Shut off the PACKs
Shut off the RECIRC Fans
Controls the outflow valve to maintain the cabin altitude rate of climb at 2,000 fpm up to `12,400 ft.
127
If the takeoff data calls for the ECS OFF, the APU is set to ___ until ____
ON, Climb sequence after takeoff checklist
128
Crew Oxygen requirements include:
```
Green = 3
Cyan = 2
Amber = Mx required.
```
129
The pressurization system usually operates _____, but may be _____ operated by the pilot.
Automatically, Manually
130
Live animals can only be placed in the ____
FWD cargo compartment
131
The crew elects to single engine taxi using engine 1. The flaps are extended, parking brake is released. Which hydraulic pumps will be operating?
EDP 1, ACMP 2, ACMP 3A
132
What is the primary purpose of the PTU?
The PTU assists gear extension and retraction should the right engine or right EDP fail.
133
You are flying an approach. When would you expect hydraulic ACMP 1 and 2 to turn on?
When the flaps are selected to any position greater than 0
134
Which hydraulic system controls the outboard brakes?
1
135
Should a right engine or right EDP failure occur, the PTU will automatically be started when:
Flaps not set to 0 or landing gear not up and locked
Weight not on wheels,
EDP 1 not failed and HYD reservoir 2 quantity above 12%
136
When is the minimum hydraulic reservoir temperature required for engine start?
-18°C
137
In hydraulic system 3 ____ is the backup hydraulic pump
ACMP 3B
138
What are the backup hydraulic pumps for system 1 and 2?
AC motor pumps (ACMPs)
139
(T/F) Hydraulic ACMP 2 will automatically turn off if the parking brake has been sets for 6 minutes or more.
True
140
Which of the following systems are hydraulically operated?
Thrust reversers, wheel brakes, nose wheel steering
141
When will hydraulic ACMP 1 turn on in flight when selected to AUTO?
EDP 1 failure, When flaps are selected to any position greater than 0
142
When the crew elects to taxi single engine on engine 2, ACMP 1 selector knob should be in which position?
ON
143
(T/F) The purpose of the PTU is to assist with landing gear extension/retraction in the event of a right engine or right EDP failure.
True
144
The RAT provides power to the AC ESS BUS. Which hydraulic pump can be powered by the AC ESS BUS?
ACMP 3A
145
To manually start the hydraulic PBIT, in which order should you pressurize all three hydraulic systems?
3,1,2
146
What is the purpose of the Electric PBIT
Provides detection of out-of-tolerance conditions and failures in the FCMs, P-ACEs, and SF-ACEs.
147
During the external inspection, you see ice on the ADSPs. What action should you take?
Turn the ADSP heater switch ON
148
After starting Engine 1 with the pushback complete, the captain calls “ Flaps 2, APU off, Flight control check.” What is a true statement regarding the flight control check?
Freedom of movement is verified. Elevators, ailerons, and rudders indicate travel in correct directions. A full green box indication on the synoptic page is not a requirement.
149
Which flight control PBIT will run automatically once all Hydraulic Systems are pressurized?
H-PBIT
150
What is a true statement about the stick shaker?
The autopilot is automatically disconnected at stick shaker activation
151
How can the pilots manually adjust pitch trim?
FO pitch trim switch, CA pitch trim switch, Pedestal pitch trim switch
152
(T/F) When executing a CAT II approach and landing, flaps 5 should be used.
True
153
With all systems operating normal, what is the recommended flap setting for an approach and landing on a contaminated runway?
Flaps FULL
154
Regardless of level position, the speed brakes will automatically close in flight for which three conditions?
Flaps set to 2 or greater. TLA greater than 70°. Speed less than 180 kts.
155
The Electrical PBIT takes 3 minutes to complete. What conditions will interrupt this test?
Interruption of AC power supply. Pressurizing any Hydraulic system, pressing any FCM buttons
156
On the ERJ, which flight controls are considered part of the primary flight control system?
Ailerons, Elevators, Rudder
157
On the ERJ, which flight controls are considered part of the secondary flight control system?
Horizontal stabilizer, flaps and slats, multi-function spoiler, dedicated ground spoilers.
158
Which flight controls are electrically actuated (no PCU)?
Flaps and Slats
159
On the slat/flap selector lever, positions ____ and ____ are used for landing
5, FULL
160
(T/F) pressing the autopilot disconnect switch on the control wheel once will disconnect the autopilot. Pressing the switch again will silence the repetitive “autopilot, autopilot” aural.
True
161
Pulling the ELEVATOR DISCONNECT HANDLE will do what?
Separates the CA and FOs control column. Gives the pilot with the non-jammed side pitch control. Will remain disconnected for the remainder of the flight.
162
(T/F) If the electrical PBIT is interrupted, the “FLT CTRL ON DISPATCH” EICAS could be displayed as a result.
True
163
(T/F) the auto brake system provides automatic braking based on different deceleration rates.
True
164
After takeoff, you are unable to move the gear handle. What scenario would be most appropriate to use the “DN LOCK REL” button?
When necessary to retract the landing gear for obstacle clearance.
165
The ____ bypasses the Proximity Sensor Electronic Module (PSEM) and commands gear extension in the same sequence as the normal operation.
Electrical override switch
166
In order to achieve maximum braking performance while landing on a short runway, which technique should be used?
Use maximum manual braking and maximum reverse thrust.
167
What is the recommended procedure for landing on a contaminated runway?
Flaps FULL
Max reverse thrust
Autobrake MED
168
(T/F) RTO has the same deceleration rate as the other autobrake settings.
False
169
What type of brakes are installed on the ERJ?
Carbon Brakes
170
What is the maximum landing gear extension speed?
250
171
Which of the following brake protections does the ERJ have?
Locked wheel protection, Touchdown Protection, Automatic Wheel Braking
172
Which of the following statements are True regarding landing with the parking brake set?
The parking brake does not provide any type of brake protection.
173
How is the landing gear held in the UP position?
When retraction is completed, the landing gear is held in place by the up lock hooks.
174
During the alternate gear extension procedure, the QRH directs the crew to toggle the electrical override switch from NORMAL to GEAR DOWN position. What does this do?
Allows the system to bypass the PSEM and commands gear extension in the same sequence as the normal operation.
175
What happens if you pull up on the alternate gear extension handle?
Opens all landing gear uplocks, releases residual hydraulic pressure in the landing gear lines, landing gear extends in a free fall with the aid of gravitational and aerodynamic forces.
176
Which hydraulic system is responsible for the normal landing gear extension and retraction?
System 2
177
(T/F) The emergency Parking Brake light indication needs to be verified when determining whether the parking brake is on or off.
True
178
There are 3 ways to effective lower the landing gear. What are they?
Alternate gear extension lever, electrical override switch, landing gear lever.
179
Prior to pushback, you verify the status of the nose gear towing light. The pushback operates informs you the light is RED. Which condition should you check to receive the green light?
Nose wheel steering is off, external steering switch is in the DISENGAGE position, parking brake has been released.
180
If COMM 2 is deferred, how would you calculate landing performance and speeds?
Same as always, ACARS is not affected.
181
How can VHF frequencies be changed?
On the PFD using the CCD. On the MCDU.
182
(T/F) On the MCDU radio page, the top (green) frequencies are standby, and the white frequencies are active.
False
183
How can frequencies be changed on the MCDU radio page?
Typing in a new frequency on scratchpad, then selecting desired frequency to change. Using the tuning knob.
184
Pressing the circle PA button on the audio control panel will:
Allow the pilot to listen to announcements being made on the PA
185
What happens when the Emergency flight attendant call button is pressed?
Flashes red on FA station
| Sounds a triple HI/LO chime
186
What is the maximum windshield wiper speed?
250 Knots.
187
(T/F) the vertical and horizontal stabilizer on the aircraft have anti-ice capabilities
False
188
Ice protection includes.
Wing anti-ice
Engine anti-ice
Windshield and ADSP
189
Based on the following ATIS, how should the pilot configure for ice protection on takeoff? (08004KT 10SM -RA FEW014 07/02 A2980)
TO DATASET MENU must be set to ENG
190
Shortly after takeoff, you observe an AI WING VLV OPEN status message while flying in VMC with no precipitation. What is the most likely cause of this message?
This is a normal test that will occur 10 minutes after takeoff or 10,000 ft. AGL, whichever occurs first.
191
On the ground, when will windshields automatically start heating?
When 2 AC sources are applied.
192
If both ice detectors fail in flight:
Anti-ice protection will not be automatic. You can manually turn on anti-ice protection with the selector knob.
193
The striped bar on the water dump button will extinguish for which conditions?
Landing gear extended, faulty drain mast heater indication of FA panel. Button pressed again.
194
ADS probe heaters turn on automatically ____
When an engine is started
195
Assuming both the windshield heat PBIT is complete, when will heat for both windshields turn ON automatically when on the ground?
When 2 AC power sources are in use
196
By setting anti-ice to ALL, this will cause wing anti-ice valves to open at ____ and ENG anti-ice valves to open at____. Operation of anti-ice systems reverts back to ice detectors sensing at ____ and above.
40 knots, engine start, 1700 AGL
197
A/I must be set to ALL when the OAT is below ____ and visible moisture is expected below 1700 ft.
5°C
198
During an electrical emergency, which components are available for the captain?
NAVCOM 1, IRS 1, CCD 1
199
What does the FMS use to determine airplane position?
IRS
VOR/DME
GPS
200
(T/F) the IRS can align both on the ground and in flight
True
201
At what speed does the air data (TAT, TAS, and SAT) information become valid?
60 knots
202
What approaches can be flown in the ERJ?
VOR, RNP, ILS
203
Someone is attempting to gain access to the flight deck from the cabin using the EMER ENTRY push button located on the door control panel. When the pilot presses the INHIB button before the door unlocks, how much time will the emergency entry button be inhibited?
500 seconds.
204
What does the crew oxygen mask provide if donned during an emergency?
All of the above
205
How do you use the PBE?
Pull mask apart with two hands, which activates oxygen flow for 15 minutes
206
What types of fire can a Halon fire extinguisher be used for?
A, B, C
207
How can the pilots evacuate the aircraft if the cockpit door becomes inaccessible?
Out the Direct View (DV) window using the escape rope
208
(T/F) contents of the EMK may only be used by qualified medical personnel
True
209
Water fire extinguisher be used for what types of fires?
Class A
210
To open the MCD from the inside during normal cabin operations, you should _____
Lift the vent flap hable and the disarm handle, then lift the main handle
211
According to the SOPM, how can you identify if the flashlight is sufficiently charged?
Flashing red LED light
212
What does the crew oxygen mask provide if donned during an emergency?
22 minutes of oxygen set to 100%.
Sufficient oxygen for crew members.
98 minutes of oxygen at 10,000 ft set at Normal
213
(T/F) when cleaning the mask, it is acceptable to use cleaning wipes on the clear lens of the mask
False
214
Why would the humidity indicator on the PBE be blue in color?
This is normal
215
(T/F) the pilots should verify that the database is current even though the FMS automatically sequences to the newest database cycle.
True
216
When verifying route of flight on the MFD Plan Page, the _____ allows the pilot to cycle through the waypoints and adjust the scale if necessary
CCD inner and outer knobs.
217
The navigation sources on the PFD are shown in which colors?
FMS (Magenta), VOR/LOC (Green), Cross-side (Amber)
