SV 2023 Flashcards
Test Study
1
Q
With the SEAT BELT Selector in AUTO the signs are turned ON or OFF automatically with reference to aircraft and cabin ______.
A
Aircraft and cabin altitude flap position landing gear configuration and passenger oxygen use.
2
Q
A white sterile cockpit light is located in the hallway on the ceiling panel above the cockpit door. The light automatically illuminates when the altitude is _____ feet MSL and below and the parking brake is not set.
A
10000
3
Q
Emergency Lights that illuminate the cabin escape path and exits are controlled by the guarded EMER LIGHTS switch on the cockpit overhead panel and the guarded EMERG LIGHTS switch on the flight attendant pane at Door1 L. Which switch has priority?
A
When pushed ON the flight attendant switch bypasses the cockpit switch regardless of the cockpit switch position (OFF ARMED or ON).
4
Q
** The cabin FASTEN SEAT BELTS signs illuminate automatically when the SEATBELTS selector is set to AUTO and which of the following conditions exist? **
A
Landing gear not up and locked.
5
Q
PASS OXYGEN switch activation causes ______.
A
Deployment of passenger oxygen masks.
6
Q
Oxygen bottle pressure for the pilot oxygen system is displayed on the _____.
A
MFD STATUS page
7
Q
What does the PASS OXYGEN ON light mean?
A
Verifies the signal has been sent to unlatch the PSUs (passenger service unites).
8
Q
The (200B/C 322) passenger cabin is equipped with supplemental oxygen packs which can supply oxygen _____.
A
To cabin occupants in the event of a decompression.
9
Q
Squeeze and pull the mask release levers to release the oxygen mask from its container and inflate mask harness. Closing the left storage door and pushing down on the PRESS TO TEST AND RESET slide lever _____.
A
Shuts off oxygen flow to the mask and deactivates the mask microphone.
10
Q
The EICAS advisory message CREW OXYGEN LOW alerts the crew that the oxygen pressure _____.
A
Is low.
11
Q
** In this configuration what is the status of the nose gear taxi light? (Image showing 2 main gears in green blocks with DN. The block of the nose gear is black with thin white diagonal stripes). **
A
Off.
12
Q
If the Emergency Lights are ARMED they will automatically illuminate with the _____.
A
Loss of DC power.
13
Q
Which EMER LIGHTS switch position(s) will allow the emergency lights battery packs to charge
A
All three positions.
14
Q
Oxygen masks and chemical generators are located above the seats in passenger service units (PSUs). The masks automatically drop from the PSUs if cabin altitude exceeds approximately ____ feet.
A
13500.
15
Q
The IND LTS switch when held in the TEST position illuminates all annunciator lights to _____ brightness. After the switch has been held for 10 seconds the lights _____.
A
Full dim.
16
Q
What feature does the pilot obtain by selecting EMERGENCY position on the oxygen regulator?
A
100% oxygen under positive pressure is forced into the facepiece at all cabin altitudes preventing the entrance of contaminants.
17
Q
The emergency lighting system is powered by remote batteries that are charged by the airplane electrical system. Fully charged the batteries can provide at least ____ minutes of operation.
A
15
18
Q
Recirculation fans _____ and allow packs to operate at a reduced flow.
A
Improve cabin ventilation.
19
Q
* For ground operations single air conditioning pack operation is not recommended:*
A
Because it does not reduce APU fuel consumption.
20
Q
If both air conditioning packs are in the standby cooling mode pack operation _____.
A
Continues regardless of altitude or outside air temperature to maintain cabin pressurization.
21
Q
** Shoulder and foot heat for pilots is available _____. **
A
In flight only.
22
Q
The pilots can set the master cabin temperature control reference between ______ using the CABIN TEMP control.
A
65 degrees F and 85 degrees F
23
Q
** When pulled ON the LDG ALT selector removes the FMC landing altitude. Rotating left or right manually sets the landing altitude. Pushing the selector in _____. **
A
Restores the FMC landing altitude.
24
Q
** Pneumatic system air can be supplied by the _____. **
A
Engines APU or ground air source.
25
*** The _____ cargo compartments are heated and pressurized. ***
Forward aft and bulk.
26
When the LDG ALT selector knob is pulled out/ON _____.
The landing altitude can be set manually by rotating the knob left or right.
27
The LDG ALT (landing altitude) display shows ____.
When halfway or more than 400 NM from departure airport.
28
The left pack supplies air to the cockpit at a higher pressure than the passenger cabin _____.
To prevent smoke from entering the flight deck from the passenger cabin.
29
*** The ___ cargo compartments have independent bleed air heating systems. ***
Aft and bulk.
30
If the EQUIP COOLING OVRD light is illuminated and AUTO is visible the ____.
Smoke override mode has been automatically selected.
31
If an automatic shutdown of the cargo heat system occurs cargo heat ____.
To the related compartment cannot be restored in flight.
32
In flight APU bleed air is available for pressurization at or _____ feet.
Below 22000.
33
The AIR COND reset switch resets or attempts to reset which of the following?
Pack valves trim air valves recirculation fans and fault protection.
34
When on the ground the ground crew call horn will sound and an EICAS advisory message will be displayed when ____.
The forward equipment cooling system is inoperative.
35
*** For ____ pack control automatically uses standby cooling as a backup mode. The EICAS advisory message PACK MODE (L R) displays. ***
Certain internal malfunctions.
36
When the engine bleed air switches are selected ON an engine bleed valve closes automatically for _____?
A bleed air duct leak.
37
If a duct leak is detected the appropriate valves _____ to isolate the leak.
Close automatically.
38
*** Which cockpit windows are heated? ***
All windows.
39
*** Does the cockpit window heat system have a backup system? ***
Yes the forward windows have a backup electric anti-fogging system.
40
*** In flight with engine and wing anti-ice selected to AUTO anti-ice operation is automatic _____. ***
The engine anti-ice valves open bleed air is supplied to the cowl inlets and wing anti-ice valves open bleed air is supplied to the three mindwing slats.
41
*** With Wing Anti-Ice selected to ON and TAT is 10 degrees C or above the manual wing antiice operation is inhibited until ____. ***
5 minutes after takeoff.
42
*** The side windows have what type(s) of protection? ***
Interior surface anti-fogging protection only.
43
*** Automatic (AUTO) wing anti-ice operation is inhibited independent of TAT for up to _____ minutes after takeoff and while in the takeoff reference mode. ***
10
44
*** Will wing anti-ice work automatically on the ground? ***
No wing anti-ice is available only in flight.
45
*** Will engine anti-ice work automatically on the ground? ***
No it works on the ground only when ENGINE ANTI-ICE is manually selected ON.
46
*** The INOP light on the WINDOW HEAT switch indicates _____. ***
An overheat system fault or the switch is off.
47
What is indicated when EAI appears above the N1 indication on the EICAS display?
An engine anti-ice valve is open.
48
In flight with wing anti-ice selected to AUTO _____.
Wing anti-ice valves open to deice the three midwing leading edge slats.
49
Which cockpit windows have exterior surface anti-icing?
The forward windows.
50
How do you know when an engine anti-ice valve is open?
EAI is above N1 display.
51
*** The primary power source for the flight control DC electrical system are the _____ backup generator PMGs. ***
Left and right
52
*** What are the components of the standby electrical system? ***
The Main battery Standby inverter RAT generator and the C1 and C2 TRUs.
53
What causes the IDG drive to automatically disconnect from the engine?
High generator Temperature.
54
The _____ normally supply power to the flight control DC electrical system.
PMGs.
55
*** While on the ground normally the IDG can be electrically disconnected from the main busses by selecting an external electric power source or ______. ***
By selecting the GEN CTRL switch to OFF.
56
*** What does the illumination of a generator DRIVE light indicate? ***
Low IDG oil pressure.
57
The primary external power AVAIL light illuminates when the _____.
Primary power source voltage and frequency are within limits.
58
When the GEN CTRL switches are ON the generator breaker is armed to close automatically when generator power is _____.
Available.
59
*** Pushing the CABIN/UTILITY power switch to OFF removes power from the ____. ***
Ground service bus.
60
*** On the ground power transfers are made without interruption except when ___. ***
Switching between primary and secondary external power sources.
61
What is the maximum altitude for APU start?
43100 feet
62
Each engine-mounted backup generator contains ____ permanent magnet generator(s) (PMG).
2
63
If demand from the RAT exceeds capacity to provide hydraulic and electrical power which has priority?
Hydraulic power - electrical load is shed until satisfactory hydraulic pressure can be maintained.
64
*** How does the APU generator compare to the IDGs? ***
It is electrically identical to the IDGs.
65
During power source transfers (such as switching from the APU generator to an engine generator) operating sources are momentarily paralleled to prevent power interruption _____.
On the ground.
66
The BACKUP GEN OFF Light illuminated indicates ____.
A backup generator failure a circuit fault or the switch is off.
67
If an IDG is manually disconnected in flight with the DRIVE DISC switch can the pilots reconnect it?
No maintenance action is required on the ground.
68
What happens to the APU and RAT when both transfer busses are lost in flight?
The APU automatically starts and the RAT automatically deploys.
69
*** When AC power is removed from the airplane with the BATTERY switch ON the PA system remains powered ____. ***
In flight or on the ground.
70
*** The main battery charger when powered will power the _____. ***
Hot battery bus.
71
The external AVAIL light means power is plugged in and _____.
Voltage and frequencies are within limits but not yet selected/connected.
72
Pushing the IFE/PASS SEATS power switch to OFF removes power from what?
All inflight entertainment components.
73
If the electrical loads exceed power available (airplane or external) ELMS ____.
Automatically sheds nonessential systems.
74
*** The backup generator system automatically powers the right transfer bus when _. ***
Approach mode (APPR) is selected.
75
*** Secondary external power can power the _____. ***
Left and right main busses.
76
If primary external power is powering one or both main busses and then the APU is started the APU automatically connects to _____after reaching operating speed.
The left main bus.
77
On the ground power transfers are made without interruption except when ____.
Switching between primary and secondary external power sources.
78
Once one engine is started with no other electrical source providing power and the BUS TIE switches are in AUTO the ____ powers both main busses.
IDG
79
Several events can cause the backup AC Electrical system to operate automatically one of these events is when ____.
Power to one or both main AC busses is lost.
80
The ground service bus is normally powered by the right main bus. The ____ and ____ are alternate sources of power.
APU generator primary external power.
81
In flight when both BUS TIE switches are set to AUTO the priority for powering the left and right main busses is the _____.
Respective IDG APU generator opposite generator.
82
The main battery provides standby power to the _____.
Hot battery bus battery bus and standby inverter.
83
The entire airplane AC/DC electrical load is supplied by ____.
Any two main AC power sources.
84
Several items are powered by the ground handling bus item(s) include the ____.
Forward and aft cargo doors.
85
The ____ powers the AC standby bus if the left transfer bus is not powered.
Standby inverter.
86
How many starters does the APU have?
Two one electric and one air turbine.
87
*** The main airplane battery powers the APU ____. ***
Inlet door fuel valve and fire detection system.
88
*** If the APU starts automatically in flight it _____. ***
Can be shut down by positioning the selector to ON then OFF.
89
What occurs when the APU selector is turned to OFF?
Initiates normal shutdown.
90
The APU continues to operate in the attended mode and the EICAS message APU LIMIT displays for a ____ fault.
High EGT.
91
*** Oil pressure temperature and quantity are _____. ***
Displayed on the secondary engine display.
92
*** How would you know that the EEC had switched to the soft alternate mode (200 A/B)? ***
EPR indication is blank.
93
On the ground the autostart system will attempt a maximum of _____ start(s) (200A/B).
2
94
The ALTN mode of EEC operation provides _____.
Overspeed protection.
95
The autostart system will not attempt a second start on the ground if ______.
There is no N1 rotation.
96
In the alternate mode the EEC uses _____ as the controlling parameter.
N1
97
*** If the EGT limit is exceeded during an inflight engine start _____. ***
The start is temporarily discontinued.
98
*** The normal power source for engine ignition is main AC power. The backup source for ignition is _____. ***
Standby AC power.
99
*** The maximum altitude the APU can be used for Pack operation is ____. ***
22000 feet.
100
In flight the APU will automatically shut down with no cool-down period for ___.
An overspeed.
101
*** If AC power is not available the DC pump in the ____ tank provides APU fuel. ***
Left main.
102
How can pilots be certain that the APU is operating normally?
The message APU running is displayed on EICAS./
103
Regarding the Thrust Reverser System the EECs also provide thrust limits protection in which mode?
Reverse operation.
104
The START/IGNITION selectors control the ____ and provide continuous ignition capability.
Starter air valves.
105
Engine failure WARNINGs occur when the engine produces less than commanded thrust _____.
During takeoff below 400 feet radio altitude and between 65 knots and 6 knots less than V1.
106
*** An auto-relight is initiated anytime a flameout is detected. A flameout is detected by the EEC when ______. ***
N2 is less than idle RPM.
107
*** Forward throttle movement is mechanically restricted until _____. ***
The reverse thrust lever is fully down.
108
On the ground with the engines not running the APU shuts down with no cool-down period if which of the following occurs: _____.
APU controller failure
109
APU fuel can be provided by _____.
Any AC fuel pump supplying fuel to the left fuel manifold.
110
With the START/IGNITION switch in the NORM position continuous ignition is automatically provided ______.
With the flap lever out of the UP position.
111
During takeoff the EGT indication is _____.
Often in the amber band.
112
What does the autostart system NOT monitor during engine start?
Oil pressure and oil temperature.
113
How does the EEC shift from NORM to the soft alternate mode of operation?
If the required signals are not available to operate in the normal mode.
114
The autostart system will attempt a second start for all the following conditions EXCEPT FOR ______.
Insufficient air pressure.
115
During an inflight engine start how does the EEC interact with the ignitors?
It selects both igniters.
116
In flight the APU automatically starts regardless of APU selector position under which of these conditions?
Loss of power to both AC transfer busses.
117
The EEC automatically selects approach idle when _____.
Flaps are commanded to 25 or greater.
118
During a ground Autostart with the FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN at the appropriate ____ the engine valve opens and the ignitor(s) energize.
N2 RPM.
119
During an inflight engine autostart if the EGT limit is exceeded the _____.
Start is temporarily discontinued to allow engine cooling however the autostart is not aborted.
120
With AC power available and the APU selector to ON the ____ and cannot be turned off on the ground.
Left forward fuel pump operates automatically.
121
In the secondary flight control mode the elevator variable feel system provides _____.
Two feel force levels that change with flap position.
122
*** Placing the PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTERS disconnect switch to DISC puts the flight control system in which mode? ***
Direct
123
The Manual Trim Cancel Switch _____ rudder inputs from TAC.
Has no effect on it.
124
*** In the Secondary Flap/Slat mode slats are positioned _____. ***
To full extension when flaps 1 is selected.
125
*** In the secondary flight control mode the primary pitch trim switches and the alternate pitch trim levers move the ______. ***
Stabilizer directly. There is no trim reference speed.
126
*** During flight in the normal mode the pitch trim switches _____. ***
Make inputs to the PFCs to first move the elevators to achieve the trim change then move the stabilizer to streamline the elevator.
127
The Manual Trim Cancel Switch is available in all flight control modes except the ____ mode.
Direct
128
*** To protect against inadvertent flap deployment during cruise flap and slat extension from the UP position is inhibited at altitudes above approximately ______. ***
20000 feet.
129
The TAC is available during all phases of flight ______.
Above 70 knots.
130
*** The autoslat system if armed enhances airplane stall protection characteristics ______. ***
Upon receiving a signal from the stall warning system.
131
Which of the following sequences illustrates the flight control process when the autopilot is engaged?
Autopilot Inputs > PFCs > ACEs > Control Surfaces
132
*** Autothrottles stall protection (commonly referred to as autothrottle wakeup) is available ____. ***
In all three flight control modes if valid air data information is present.
133
***If uncommanded stabilizer motion is sensed what happens to the hydraulic power?***
Hydraulic power to the Stabilizer Trim Control Module that caused the motion is automatically shut off.
134
*** Bank angle protection starts providing opposing forces to the roll control wheel inputs when the airplane bank angle exceeds approximately ______. ***
35 degrees.
135
The spoilers are powered by _____ hydraulic system(s).
All three.
136
Which of the following statements is true of the RUDDER Trim Knob?
It is spring-loaded to neutral.
137
*** Slat load relief is available in the _____ flap mode because slats are fully extended in all flap positions in that mode. ***
Secondary
138
Which of the following CDU inputs is NOT required to calculate the stabilizer green band?
Flap setting.
139
*** On the ground the stabilizer is directly positioned when the pilot uses ____. ***
Pitch trim switches.
140
In the Normal flight control mode what occurs with the STAB TRIM switches in CUTOUT?
Pitch trim is still available.
141
TAC can normally compensate for which of the following engine problems?
Engine failure.
142
Which of the following sequences illustrates the Direct flight control process while hand flying?
Pilot Input > ACEs > Control Surfaces
143
What action may cause an automatic reversion to the secondary flight control mode?
PFC or related airplane system faults.
144
*** PFCs change airplane pitch based on pilot control column or autopilot commands and airspeed. In the normal mode PFCs automatically compensate for _____. ***
Thrust changes.
145
The pitch envelope protection functions _____ the pilot’s control authority.
Do not reduce.
146
Bank angle protection provides opposing forces to roll control wheel inputs when the airplane bank angle exceeds approximately _____ degrees.
35
147
The Primary Flight Computers automatically control pitch to maintain a relatively constant flight path. There is no need for additional control column back pressure to compensate for turns using up to ____ degrees of bank.
30
148
Which function is NOT available after an automatic reversion to the secondary flight control mode?
Automatic pitch compensation.
149
The dual alternate pitch trim levers on the control pedestal _____.
Have priority over the control yoke trim switches in all flight control modes.
150
Manual selection of the secondary flight control mode _____.
Is not possible.
151
Which of the following sequences illustrates the Normal flight control process while hand flying?
Pilot Input > ACEs > PFCs > ACEs > Control Surfaces.
152
Which of the following are functions of envelope protection with the PFCs in the normal mode?
Bank angle protection stall protection and overspeed protection.
153
*** To provide airplane control in the event of a jam the control ____ are connected through jam override mechanisms. ***
Columns and control wheels.
154
The ALTN FLAPS selector electrically extends the flaps/slats to what maximum position?
20/mid.
155
The autoslat system enhances stall protection. When approaching stick shaker if armed the system automatically moves the slats from the ____ position to the ____ position.
Mid down.
156
*** Pilot controls command the _____ actuator control electronics (ACEs) and the _____ primary flight computers (PFCs).***
4 3.
157
Automatic landings can be made using _____.
Flaps 20 or 30 with one or two engines operating.
158
Roll control is provided by movement of the ______.
Flaperons ailerons and asymmetrical spoilers.
159
In the Direct flight control mode which of the following is operative?
Pitch trim.
160
The stab green band is calculated using which of the following pilot CDU inputs?
CG
161
*** The stabilizer is powered by which hydraulic systems? ***
Center and right.
162
On 200B aircraft primary flap and slat extension from the UP position is inhibited at speeds greater than _____ knots.
265
163
How is ALTN flap mode selected?
Manually.
164
When the autopilot is engaged it sends commands directly to the _____.
PFCs.
165
Autothrottle Wakeup stall protection is available in _____ flight control mode(s) if valid air data information is present.
All three.
166
Load relief is available for ______.
Flaps in the primary mode.
167
When does the rudder become effective?
Approximately 60 knots.
168
In the _____ pitch control mode(s) the PFCs automatically compensate for thrust gear and speed brake configuration changes.
Normal.
169
If a single spoiler fails the corresponding spoiler on the other wing ______.
Retracts.
170
Flap load relief limits flap retraction to Flaps _____.
5.
171
With the autopilot engaged the primary pitch trim switches are _____.
Inhibited.
172
The wheel-to-rudder cross-tie system provides _____.
Up to 8 degrees of rudder deflection using control wheel inputs.
173
What malfunction would cause the ACEs to automatically transition to the Direct flight control mode?
Failure of all PFCs.
174
Which flight control system function is not available when operating in the secondary mode?
Autopilot
175
*** Which VHF radio is configured only for voice communications? ***
L.
176
*** Selecting the INT position of the Audio Control Panel MIC/INT switch initiates a _____. ***
Transmission on the flight interphone system.
177
*** The two independent HF radios can receive ______. ***
Simultaneously.
178
What indication is seen on the Radio Tuning Panel if the selected radio has failed or has been disconnected?
Dashes in the active and standby frequency windows.
179
*** Which radio is normally dedicated for ACARS data communication? ***
VHF C (center).
180
*** Pushing the Audio Control Panel CAB transmitter select switch twice within one second places a priority call to _____. ***
The flight attendant station at Door 1L.
181
*** What does a FAIL light on the Control Pedestal just forward of the handset indicate?***
The printer has failed.
182
*** ACARS is accessed by selecting ______ on the display select panel and placing the communications main menu on the appropriate display unit (DU). ***
COMM.
183
If either TO/GA switch is NOT pushed on takeoff roll by 60 KIAS the autothrottle cannot be engaged until what minimum altitude?
Above 400 feet AGL.
184
An empty white box next to an EICAS message indicates that ______.
The checklist has not been accessed or has at least one incomplete step.
185
The flight deck voice recorder system simultaneously records four audio channels on a ____ continuous loop.
2 hour.
186
Which of the following procedures initiates an ALL CALL from the cockpit?
Pressing 55 on the interphone handset.
187
*** Radio Altitude information is displayed on the PFD below _____ feet AGL. ***
2500.
188
*** What is the function of the Non-normal checklist operational NOTES key at the bottom of any checklist page? ***
Checklist operational notes are used for ongoing consequences of the nonnormal condition.
189
The ITEM OVRD key changes the color of a highlighted item to cyan and indicates that an electronic checklist item _____.
Is not applicable and has been overridden.
190
*** The order of ECL messages in the non-normal checklist queue matches _____. ***
EICAS message priority.
191
Which VHF radio(s) can be configured for voice or data communications?
R and C.
192
What does the Service Interphone (SERV INTPH) switch do in the ON position?
Connects the Service and Flight Interphone systems.
193
How are normal checklists arranged in the ECL menu?
By phase of flight.
194
The FMC present position in MAP mode is represented by a _____ symbol on the NDs.
White triangle.
195
When the ECL system is inoperative or disabled checklist icons on the EICAS display are _____.
Not displayed for any message.
196
The PFD speed trend vector indicates predicted airspeed in ____ seconds based on current acceleration or deceleration.
10.
197
Two toggle switches allow display of the left and right VOR and ADF bearing pointers on _____.
The ND.
198
The function of the Captain’s and First Officer’s CANC switch on the glareshield is _____.
The same as selecting CANCEL command key on the MFD.
199
When a single system failure causes the display of multiple EICAS alert messages _____.
Unnecessary non-normal checklists are inhibited from display in the checklist queue.
200
Flap maneuvering speeds are displayed on the PFD beginning at _____ feet and below.
20000.
201
Pitch Limit Indication is automatically displayed on the PFD _____.
When flaps are not up or at slow speeds with flaps up.
202
Touching a corner of the Cursor Control Device touchpad ____.
Places the cursor in the corresponding corner of the MFD.
203
*** What effect do the stall and overspeed protection functions have on the flight director? ***
The pitch flight director bar disappears.
204
*** If the autothrottle is used during a manual landing the autothrottle does not automatically retard if the pitch mode is _____. ***
TO/GA or FLCH.
205
*** When the TO/GA switch is pushed to initiate a go-around autothrottles adjust to climb at not less than _____ FPM. ***
2000.
206
*** When the AFDS redundancy is unable to make an automatic landing the AFDS status annunciation is _____. ***
NO AUTOLAND.
207
The IAS/MACH window _____ when the FMC controls speed.
Is blank.
208
All MCP modes can be disengaged by _____.
Disconnecting the autopilot and turning both flight director (F/D) switches OFF.
209
*** All automatic flight control modes EXCEPT _____ can be disengaged by selecting another mode. ***
APP.
210
*** The VNAV LNAV LOC and APP modes can be disarmed by _____. ***
Pushing the mode switch a second time before capture.
211
*** Engaged or captured modes are shown at the top of the flight mode annunciator boxes in large _____ letters. ***
Green.
212
*** The AFDS FMA HOLD indicates ______. ***
The throttles are disconnected from the autothrottle servos and pilots can set the thrust levers manually.
213
Autopilot rudder commands are added only ______.
When LAND 3 or LAND 2 is annunciated.
214
*** What does the ON BAT light mean when illuminated? ***
ADIRU is being powered by the Hot Battery Bus.
215
The RECMD altitude on the ACT ECON CRZ page displays the most economical altitude for the next _____ NM.
500.
216
On the POS REF page 2 of 3 what happens when the prompt at 6R (BRG/DIST) is selected?
Prompt changes display of position data on POS REF 2/3 and 3/3 to bearing/distance format or latitude/longitude format.
217
The valid entry range for cost index on the CDU PERF INIT page is _____.
0-9999.
218
During climb the IAS/MACH window automatically change from IAS to MACH _____.
At 0.84 Mach.
219
*** With the BANK LIMIT selector in the AUTO position angle of bank varies between ____. ***
15-25 degrees depending on TAS.
220
Regarding AFDS FMA indications armed modes (except for TO/GA inflight) are shown in _____.
Smaller white letters at the bottom of the flight mode annunciator boxes.
221
The CLB CON thrust switch is NOT operational during takeoff below _____ feet.
400.
222
*** When a specific flight director mode degradation persists the condition is annunciated by ______ .***
Removal of the affected (pit or roll) flight director bar.
223
At what altitude does VNAV engage if it is armed for takeoff?
400 feet.
224
Regarding thrust management the second push of the TO/GA switch in flight _____.
Engages autothrottles in the THR REF mode to provide full-rated go-around thrust
225
*** Inflight if the ADIRU switch is selected OFF _____. ***
The ADIRU remains powered.
226
The DEPARTURES page data (if available) is used to enter what information?
Departure runway SID and transition (if known).
227
The SET HDG prompt on POS INIT 1/3 is not normally present. Under what condition will this prompt automatically appear?
It is displayed three minutes after ADIRU failure.
228
____ is displayed on the PFD throttle FMA when thrust is set to the selected thrust limit.
THR REF.
229
When the airplane is _____ feet AFE or below on takeoff or _____ feet RA or below on approach the autothrottle will NOT automatically engage (autothrottle wakeup) to support stall protection.
400 100.
230
LNAV becomes active after takeoff when armed and when altitude is at or above _____ feet when within 2.5 NM of the active route leg.
50.
231
The three ADIRU modes of operation are ______.
Align navigate and automatic realign.
232
All flight management computing tasks are accomplished by _____.
The active FMC.
233
What entry do you make on the TAKEOFF REF page 2/2 for E/O ACCEL HT if there is no engine out procedure?
800.
234
After manually positioning the throttles with the autothrottle system engaged the autothrottle does NOT subsequently reposition the throttles in which mode?
HOLD.
235
The AFDS captures the localizer when within range and within _____ degrees of the localizer track.
120.
236
Autothrottle disconnect occurs automatically under what circumstance?
A fault in the engaged autothrottle mode is detected.
237
With LAND 2 annunciated on the PFD _____.
A single fault cannot cause a significant deviation from the flight path.
238
If electrical power is removed from the airplane and the battery switch is turned OFF the _____ continues to supply electrical power to the ADIRU.
Hot battery bus.
239
SAARU power-up occurs automatically _____.
When the airplane is powered.
240
On the IDENT page the nav database change-over time (when applicable) is _____.
0901Z.
241
An amber line throug the pitch mode annunciation on the PFD FMA indicates that ______.
Degradation of the pitch mode is sensed while the autopilot is engaged.
242
A green box is drawn around a mode annunciation for 10 seconds when _____.
A mode first becomes active or engaged.
243
The FMC determines present position from the _____.
ADIRS GPS and navigation radios.
244
At cruise altitude the FMC sets cruise speed at the default or pilot entered speed until reaching the top-off-descent point. What are the other two alternate cruise speed options?
Long range (LRC) and Engine out (ENG OUT).
245
The ADIRU ON BAT light indicates the ADIRU remains powered by the _____ with all other power removed from the airplane.
Hot battery bus.
246
After localizer and glideslope capture the localizer and glideslope modes can be disengaged by ____.
Disconnecting the autopilot and turning both Flight Directors off.
247
If the ADIRU fails the SAARU automatically provides _____.
Backup attitude directional gyro and air data information.
248
The SAARU provides _____ minutes of backup heading following and ADIRU failure except in the polar region where the backup is not provided.
3.
249
When the A/P DISENGAGE bar is positioned down _____.
Bank angle protection is disabled and all autopilots are disconnected.
250
Which radios are NOT tuned using the Radio Tuning Panel?
ADF radios.
251
*** Center fuel tank scavenge is a(an) ____ operation. ***
Automatic.
252
*** The fuel system allows the crew to jettison fuel _____. ***
From all fuel tanks.
253
If you are at max gross weight and you do nothing but arm the Fuel Jettison system and open the nozzles what weight will you dump to?
Maximum (structural) landing weight.
254
*** The DC fuel pump in the left main tank automatically provides fuel ______. ***
To the APU when AC power is not available and the APU selector is ON.
255
*** With AC power available which fuel pump operates automatically when starting the APU? ***
The left forward AC pump.
256
*** The center tank fuel pumps override the main tank pumps so that the _____. ***
Center tank fuel is used first.
257
*** When fuel jettison is complete at least (200A/B/C) _____ (322) _____ remains. ***
11500 8500 pounds in each main tank.
258
The center tank scavenge system automatically transfers any remaining fuel to the main tanks whenever the main pumps are ON and the fuel quantity in either main tank is less than (200A) _____ pounds (200B/C) _____ pounds (322) ______.
20000 29000 52600.
259
*** The Fuel Imbalance Pointer is amber when imbalance is excessive and _____ if fuel balancing is going in the wrong direction. ***
Flashes.
260
The FAULT light in the FUEL JETTISON - ARM switch indicates that _____.
A system fault has occurred and fuel jettison is inoperative.
261
The DC Fuel pump in the left main tank ____ controlled from the cockpit.
Cannot be directly.
262
In flight the _____ operates automatically for quick left engine relight capability with the loss of both engine and all AC power.
DC fuel pump.
263
The main fuel tanks must be _____ if center tank fuel is loaded.
Scheduled full.
264
*** The CENTER PUMPS PRESS lights are inhibited _____. ***
When the center tank pump switches are off.
265
*** What happens when fuel jettisons to the TO REMAIN quantity? ***
Main tank jettison pumps shut off and center tank jettison isolation valves close.
266
Fuel can be jettisoned to a total minimum value of (200A/B/C) ____ (322) ____ pounds.
23000 17000.
267
An expanded FUEL QTY display appears when ____.
Center pumps are OFF with fuel in the center tank.
268
The center hydraulic system powers _____.
The landing gear actuation and slats/flaps.
269
*** In flight the RAT deploys automatically ______. ***
When all three hydraulic system pressures are low.
270
*** The left and right hydraulic demand pumps are driven by ______. ***
Electric motors.
271
*** What occurs if the center hydraulic system quantity is sensed to be low and airspeed is greater than 60 knots? ***
The reserve brakes are isolated from the center system and remain operable.
272
What does the RAT UNLKD light indicate?
The RAT is not in the stowed position.
273
*** Both center air demand pumps operate ______. ***
To meet system demands when selected to AUTO.
274
*** With AC power ON and the right electric demand pump switch in the AUTO position on the ground the _____. ***
Pump runs continuously.
275
*** With their respective switches in the AUTO position the hydraulic demand pumps operate ______. ***
When primary pump pressure is low or when high demand is anticipated.
276
*** When a demand pump FAULT light illuminates it indicates the following _____. ***
Low demand pump output pressure excessive demand pump fluid temperature or the pump is selected OFF.
277
*** An RF indication next to the hydraulic quantity indicates that _____. ***
The reservoir requires filling.
278
The left hydraulic system powers _____.
Some flight controls and the left thrust reverser.
279
If deployed can the RAT be re-stowed in flight?
No.
280
Hydraulic fluid is supplied to each hydraulic system from the respective reservoir. The reservoirs are pressurized by _____.
Bleed air.
281
The right hydraulic system powers _____.
Some flight controls the right thrust reverser and normal brakes.
282
*** Flight control system components are distributed so that _____ can provide adequate airplane control. ***
Any one hydraulic system.
283
*** In the left and right hydraulic systems the engine driven pumps receive fluid from the _____. ***
Standpipes.
284
*** One of the conditions that will automatically deploy the RAT in flight is the _____. ***
Failure of both engines and center hydraulic system pressure is low.
285
The FLT CONTROL HYD VALVE POWER switches on the Overhead Maintenance Panel are used only ______.
On the ground by Maintenance.
286
*** Which hydraulic pump(s) can load shed? ***
The primary C2 pump.
287
If the center hydraulic system quantity is sensed to be low the system isolates and removes pressure to the nose gear and steering. The nose gear actuation and steering are reconnected when airspeed decreases below _____ knots.
60.
288
The center hydraulic system powers _____.
Alternate/reserve brake system.
289
What components does the right hydraulic system power?
Normal brake system.
290
In flight the RAT deploys automatically if _____.
All three hydraulic systems lose pressure.
291
The RAM AIR TURBINE PRESS light (overhead panel) indicates the RAT is deployed and the _____ system(s) flight control hydraulic pressure(s) is(are) normal.
Center.
292
The RAT can be deployed manually by using the RAM AIR TURBINE switch _____.
With hot battery bus or APU battery bus powered.
293
Hydraulic pressure for landing gear retraction extension and steering is supplied by the ______ hydraulic system(s).
Center.
294
The Primary Electric C1 hydraulic pump FAULT light is illuminated and ON not visible indicates?
The C1 Electric Pump Switch is off.
295
If electrical loads exceed the power available (airplane or external) ELMS automatically sheds AC loads by priority. Which of the following may load shed?
C2 hydraulic electric pump.
296
If a hydraulic system reservoir is filled to beyond the normal full service level _____ appears on the Status page and HYD synoptic next to the Hydraulic QTY indication for that reservoir.
OF.
297
Regarding the Center Hydraulic System what pumps provide supplementary hydraulic power for periods of high system demand or when primary pump pressure is low?
C1 and C2 air demand pumps.
298
The RAT provides hydraulic power to _____.
To the primary flight control components connected to the center hydraulic system.
299
*** The center hydraulic system powers ______. ***
Alternate/reserve brake system.
300
*** Main gear aft axle steering automatically activates ______. ***
When the nose wheel steering angle exceeds 13 degrees.
301
ON dry runways the maximum autobrake deceleration rate in the landing mode is _____.
Less than that produced by maximum effort manual braking.
302
*** Autobrakes provide braking to ______. ***
A complete stop or until disarmed.
303
*** During extension how are the landing gear lowered? ***
They free-fall to the down and locked position.
304
*** The autobrake system can be disarmed after landing by _____. ***
Manual braking.
305
The alternate/reserve brake system provides _____ protection to tandem wheel pairs for the forward and middle axle wheels.
Antiskid.
306
Do not use speed brakes in flight below _____ feet.
1000.
307
If the right hydraulic system pressure is low the _____ hydraulic system automatically supplies pressure to the alternate/reserve brake system.
Center.
308
*** The ALTN GEAR switch releases all gear uplocks and doors ______. ***
By activating an electric hydraulic pump.
309
*** When the landing gear lever is moved to DN the landing gear doors open and the gear are unlocked. During extension ______. ***
Main gear trucks tilt to the flight position.
310
*** The landing gear lever lock ______. ***
Is automatically released through air/ground sensing.
311
When the parking brakes are set _____.
PARKING BRAKE SET displays on EICAS.
312
*** The BRAKE SOURCE light indicates low pressure in _____. ***
Both the right and center/reserve hydraulic systems.
313
Which of the following will NOT disarm the autobrake system?
Center system hydraulic loss.
314
Hydraulic pressure for landing gear retraction extension and steering is supplied by the _____ hydraulic system(s).
Center.
315
*** Autobrakes are applied if takeoff is aborted above _____ knots. ***
85.
316
Following an alternate extension positioning the landing gear lever to _____ then _____ retracts the gear using the normal system if the normal system is available.
DN UP.
317
When the landing gear lever is positioned to UP the _____.
Landing gear doors open and the main gear wheels tilt to the retract position.
318
*** If any gear is not completely locked down after normal transit time _____. ***
The EICAS gear position indicator changes to the expanded format.
319
*** The word BRAKE in this graphic indicates the brake ______ on the respective wheel. (In the graphic the word BRAKE appears next to the top right main in amber. Below it temperature reads in white). ***
Is deactivated.
320
Which input has steering override authority nose wheel steering tiller or rudder pedal?
Nose wheel tiller steering overrides rudder pedal steering.
321
When selected prior to takeoff RTO will operate _____ groundspeed above 85 knots.
With both throttles retarded to idle and.
322
What occurs when the AUTOBRAKE Selector is turned to the RTO position?
Automatically applies maximum braking when throttles are retarded to idle above 85 knots.
323
*** The minimum autopilot engagement height on takeoff or missed approach is _____ feet AGL. ***
200.
324
*** The minimum height for autopilot disengagement for a Non-ILS approach is ___. ***
50 feet below MDA/DA.
325
*** Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated the autopilot must be disengaged no lower than ______ feet AGL. ***
200.
326
*** The airplane maximum operating pressure altitude is ______ feet. ***
43100.
327
*** Icing conditions can exist in flight when _____ and visible moisture is present. ***
The TAT is 10 degrees C or below.
328
*** Minimum oil quantity before engine start is _____ quarts. ***
18
329
*** In severe turbulence maintain a minimum speed of _____ knots above the minimum maneuvering speed (top of amber band) at all altitudes when the airspeed is below .82 Mach. ***
15.
330
*** Maximum recommended operating speed (VMO/MMO) in severe turbulence below 25000 feet is _____ KIAS. ***
270.
331
*** Maximum recommended operating speed (VMO/MMO) in severe turbulence above 25000 feet is _____ KIAS/.82 Mach (whichever is lower) ***
280.
332
*** Do not use flight level change pitch mode (FLCH) on final approach below _____ feet AFE.
1000.
333
The maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing is _____ knots.
15.
334
*** The lower crew rest compartment (if installed) may not be occupied and the main entry hatch must be closed ______. ***
During taxi takeoff and landing.
335
Icing conditions can exist on the ground when _____ and visible moisture is present or standing water/ice slush/snow on ramps taxiway or runway surfaces.
The OAT is 10 degrees C or below.
336
*** What level of fire detection does the nose wheel well have? ***
No fire detection capability.
337
*** The main wheel wells have _____. ***
Fire detection capability only.
338
*** Which of the following occurs if an engine overheat is detected? ***
An EICAS caution message displays.
339
If a fault develops in both detector loops of an engine nacelle there is no fire or overheat detection and _____.
An EICAS message is displayed.
340
What are the two TCAS warning advisories?
Traffic Advisory and Resolution Advisory?
341
False GPWS warnings may occur due to _____.
Heavy rain or hail.
342
*** In flight with the WXR switch pushed or not pushed weather radar begins scanning for windshear (PWS) below _____ feet. ***
2300 feet RA.
343
Takeoff configuration warning indications are ____.
Inhibited above V1.
344
Status messages displayed on the STATUS page support normal airplane operation and _____.
Are not considered pilot alerts.
345
Altitude alerting is inhibited in flight with landing flaps (25 or 30) selected and all landing gear down or ______.
Glideslope capture.
346
The APU fire protection system has _____ fire detector loop(s).
2.
347
Normally ____ must sense a fire or overheat condition before the pilots are alerted.
Both detection loops.
348
How can the fire and overheat detection systems be manually tested?
By pushing the FIRE/OVHT TEST switch.
349
What occurs if an engine fire is detected?
The Engine FUEL CONTROL switch fire warning light illuminates.
350
*** In addition to the Master WARNING lights what indications are used to announce a Time Critical Warning? ***
Voice alerts PFD indications or stick shaker.
351
*** Takeoff configuration warnings are inhibited when airspeed exceeds _____. ***
V1.
352
What does pressing the GND PROX GEAR OVRD switch do?
Inhibits the GPWS TOO LOW GEAR voice alert.
353
In flight the landing configuration warning system activates if any gear is not locked down _____.
And the flap lever is in the 25 or 30 position.
354
*** An APU fire warning on the ground with both engines shut down causes ____. ***
Automatic extinguisher discharge.
355
The fire and overheat detection system monitors the fire and overheat detector loops for faults _____.
Continuously.
356
Which of the following statements is true regarding Aural Alerts?
A Bell is used for fire warnings.
357
*** Aural alerts are provided to ensure pilots’ attention recognition and response. What is a bell aural alert used for? ***
Fire warnings.
358
What happens after the CARGO FIRE DISCH is pushed?
All extinguishers are committed to the selected compartment.
359
The APU Fire Warning Horn in the nose wheel well sounds _____.
Intermittently during ground operation to indicate an APU fire or fire test.
360
Which of the following is accomplished by pressing the APU FIRE SHUTDOWN switch in the nose wheel well?
The APU generator field and breaker are tripped.
361
*** A Ground Proximity Warning of DON’T SINK DON’T SINK indicates that the GPWS detects _____. ***
An altitude loss after takeoff or go-around.
362
When the background terrain display is selected how is terrain shown?
The density and color of the patterns are functions of the height of the terrain.
363
After engine start the blue STATUS cue is inhibited _____.
Until 30 minutes after liftoff.
364
The ____ have a fire detection system however there is no fire extinguishing system installed.
Main gear wheel wells.
365
If the FIRE/OVHT TEST switch is released with FIRE TEST IN PRGO message displayed _____.
The test ends without completing.
366
The Master WARNING lights and fire bell are ____.
Inhibited for fire from V1 until 400 feet RA or 25 seconds after V1.
367
What does pressing either Master WARNING/CAUTION Reset Switch do?
Silences certain warnings and sirens and resets the lights for subsequent warning alerts.
368
When the AFT CARGO FIRE - ARM switch is depressed ____.
All cargo fire extinguisher bottles are armed.
369
An altitude alert occurs when the airplane altitude deviates from the altitude selected on the MCP by _____ feet or more.
200.
370
What does pressing the GND PROX FLAP OVRD switch do?
Inhibits the GPWS TOO LOW FLAPS voice alert.
371
Status messages identity system faults which may affect ______.
Airplane dispatch.
372
Pushing the CARGO FIRE DISCH switch on the ground causes the immediate full discharge of two extinguisher bottles into the selected compartment. After a time delay ______.
One of the (200A/B/C) three remaining (322) four remaining extinguisher bottles is discharged into the selected compartment at a reduced rate of flow.
373
When is the Predictive Windshear System activated (armed or turned on)?
Automatically on the ground when the throttles are set for takeoff.
374
An EICAS Caution message requires ____ pilot awareness and action _____.
Immediate may be required
375
How many APU fire extinguisher bottles are there?
1.
376
The STATUS message cue communication messages (except CABIN ALERT) and communication aural chimes are inhibited on descent from 800 feet RA until below ____ knots groundspeed.
75.
377
The Predictive Windshear Warning System (PWS) is activated automatically on the ground when the _____.
Throttles are set for takeoff.
378
What occurs when a fire is detected in a main wheel well?
The fire bell sounds.
379
If the FIRE/OVHT TEST switch is released with the FIRE TEST IN PRGO message displayed the test ______.
End without completing.
380
At 900 feet prior to the selected altitude a(n) _____ box displays around the selected altitude.
White.
381
The STATUS Cue is inhibited from _____ until _____ minutes after takeoff or until cruise altitude is reached.
Engine start 30.
382
When pushed and held the FIRE/OVHT TEST SWITCH _____.
Send fire and overheat test signals to the engine APU wheel well and cargo compartment fire detection systems.
383
If a fault is detected in one of the engine’s fire detection loops _____.
The system automatically switches to single loop operation.
384
How many fire extinguisher bottles are installed for discharge into the cargo compartments?
(200A/B/C) 5 (322) 6.
385
System alerts communication alerts and memo messages are displayed in both prioritized and chronological order. What is the correct priority in descending order?
Warning Caution Advisory and Memo.
