SV 2023 Flashcards
Test Study
With the SEAT BELT Selector in AUTO the signs are turned ON or OFF automatically with reference to aircraft and cabin ______.
Aircraft and cabin altitude flap position landing gear configuration and passenger oxygen use.
A white sterile cockpit light is located in the hallway on the ceiling panel above the cockpit door. The light automatically illuminates when the altitude is _____ feet MSL and below and the parking brake is not set.
10000
Emergency Lights that illuminate the cabin escape path and exits are controlled by the guarded EMER LIGHTS switch on the cockpit overhead panel and the guarded EMERG LIGHTS switch on the flight attendant pane at Door1 L. Which switch has priority?
When pushed ON the flight attendant switch bypasses the cockpit switch regardless of the cockpit switch position (OFF ARMED or ON).
** The cabin FASTEN SEAT BELTS signs illuminate automatically when the SEATBELTS selector is set to AUTO and which of the following conditions exist? **
Landing gear not up and locked.
PASS OXYGEN switch activation causes ______.
Deployment of passenger oxygen masks.
Oxygen bottle pressure for the pilot oxygen system is displayed on the _____.
MFD STATUS page
What does the PASS OXYGEN ON light mean?
Verifies the signal has been sent to unlatch the PSUs (passenger service unites).
The (200B/C 322) passenger cabin is equipped with supplemental oxygen packs which can supply oxygen _____.
To cabin occupants in the event of a decompression.
Squeeze and pull the mask release levers to release the oxygen mask from its container and inflate mask harness. Closing the left storage door and pushing down on the PRESS TO TEST AND RESET slide lever _____.
Shuts off oxygen flow to the mask and deactivates the mask microphone.
The EICAS advisory message CREW OXYGEN LOW alerts the crew that the oxygen pressure _____.
Is low.
** In this configuration what is the status of the nose gear taxi light? (Image showing 2 main gears in green blocks with DN. The block of the nose gear is black with thin white diagonal stripes). **
Off.
If the Emergency Lights are ARMED they will automatically illuminate with the _____.
Loss of DC power.
Which EMER LIGHTS switch position(s) will allow the emergency lights battery packs to charge
All three positions.
Oxygen masks and chemical generators are located above the seats in passenger service units (PSUs). The masks automatically drop from the PSUs if cabin altitude exceeds approximately ____ feet.
13500.
The IND LTS switch when held in the TEST position illuminates all annunciator lights to _____ brightness. After the switch has been held for 10 seconds the lights _____.
Full dim.
What feature does the pilot obtain by selecting EMERGENCY position on the oxygen regulator?
100% oxygen under positive pressure is forced into the facepiece at all cabin altitudes preventing the entrance of contaminants.
The emergency lighting system is powered by remote batteries that are charged by the airplane electrical system. Fully charged the batteries can provide at least ____ minutes of operation.
15
Recirculation fans _____ and allow packs to operate at a reduced flow.
Improve cabin ventilation.
* For ground operations single air conditioning pack operation is not recommended:*
Because it does not reduce APU fuel consumption.
If both air conditioning packs are in the standby cooling mode pack operation _____.
Continues regardless of altitude or outside air temperature to maintain cabin pressurization.
** Shoulder and foot heat for pilots is available _____. **
In flight only.
The pilots can set the master cabin temperature control reference between ______ using the CABIN TEMP control.
65 degrees F and 85 degrees F
** When pulled ON the LDG ALT selector removes the FMC landing altitude. Rotating left or right manually sets the landing altitude. Pushing the selector in _____. **
Restores the FMC landing altitude.
** Pneumatic system air can be supplied by the _____. **
Engines APU or ground air source.
** The _____ cargo compartments are heated and pressurized. **
Forward aft and bulk.
When the LDG ALT selector knob is pulled out/ON _____.
The landing altitude can be set manually by rotating the knob left or right.
The LDG ALT (landing altitude) display shows ____.
When halfway or more than 400 NM from departure airport.
The left pack supplies air to the cockpit at a higher pressure than the passenger cabin _____.
To prevent smoke from entering the flight deck from the passenger cabin.
** The ___ cargo compartments have independent bleed air heating systems. **
Aft and bulk.
If the EQUIP COOLING OVRD light is illuminated and AUTO is visible the ____.
Smoke override mode has been automatically selected.
If an automatic shutdown of the cargo heat system occurs cargo heat ____.
To the related compartment cannot be restored in flight.
In flight APU bleed air is available for pressurization at or _____ feet.
Below 22000.
The AIR COND reset switch resets or attempts to reset which of the following?
Pack valves trim air valves recirculation fans and fault protection.
When on the ground the ground crew call horn will sound and an EICAS advisory message will be displayed when ____.
The forward equipment cooling system is inoperative.
** For ____ pack control automatically uses standby cooling as a backup mode. The EICAS advisory message PACK MODE (L R) displays. **
Certain internal malfunctions.
When the engine bleed air switches are selected ON an engine bleed valve closes automatically for _____?
A bleed air duct leak.
If a duct leak is detected the appropriate valves _____ to isolate the leak.
Close automatically.
** Which cockpit windows are heated? **
All windows.
** Does the cockpit window heat system have a backup system? **
Yes the forward windows have a backup electric anti-fogging system.
** In flight with engine and wing anti-ice selected to AUTO anti-ice operation is automatic _____. **
The engine anti-ice valves open bleed air is supplied to the cowl inlets and wing anti-ice valves open bleed air is supplied to the three mindwing slats.
** With Wing Anti-Ice selected to ON and TAT is 10 degrees C or above the manual wing antiice operation is inhibited until ____. **
5 minutes after takeoff.
** The side windows have what type(s) of protection? **
Interior surface anti-fogging protection only.
** Automatic (AUTO) wing anti-ice operation is inhibited independent of TAT for up to _____ minutes after takeoff and while in the takeoff reference mode. **
10
** Will wing anti-ice work automatically on the ground? **
No wing anti-ice is available only in flight.
** Will engine anti-ice work automatically on the ground? **
No it works on the ground only when ENGINE ANTI-ICE is manually selected ON.
** The INOP light on the WINDOW HEAT switch indicates _____. **
An overheat system fault or the switch is off.
What is indicated when EAI appears above the N1 indication on the EICAS display?
An engine anti-ice valve is open.
In flight with wing anti-ice selected to AUTO _____.
Wing anti-ice valves open to deice the three midwing leading edge slats.
Which cockpit windows have exterior surface anti-icing?
The forward windows.
How do you know when an engine anti-ice valve is open?
EAI is above N1 display.
** The primary power source for the flight control DC electrical system are the _____ backup generator PMGs. **
Left and right
** What are the components of the standby electrical system? **
The Main battery Standby inverter RAT generator and the C1 and C2 TRUs.
What causes the IDG drive to automatically disconnect from the engine?
High generator Temperature.
The _____ normally supply power to the flight control DC electrical system.
PMGs.
** While on the ground normally the IDG can be electrically disconnected from the main busses by selecting an external electric power source or ______. **
By selecting the GEN CTRL switch to OFF.
** What does the illumination of a generator DRIVE light indicate? **
Low IDG oil pressure.
The primary external power AVAIL light illuminates when the _____.
Primary power source voltage and frequency are within limits.
When the GEN CTRL switches are ON the generator breaker is armed to close automatically when generator power is _____.
Available.
** Pushing the CABIN/UTILITY power switch to OFF removes power from the ____. **
Ground service bus.
** On the ground power transfers are made without interruption except when ___. **
Switching between primary and secondary external power sources.
What is the maximum altitude for APU start?
43100 feet
Each engine-mounted backup generator contains ____ permanent magnet generator(s) (PMG).
2
If demand from the RAT exceeds capacity to provide hydraulic and electrical power which has priority?
Hydraulic power - electrical load is shed until satisfactory hydraulic pressure can be maintained.
** How does the APU generator compare to the IDGs? **
It is electrically identical to the IDGs.
During power source transfers (such as switching from the APU generator to an engine generator) operating sources are momentarily paralleled to prevent power interruption _____.
On the ground.
The BACKUP GEN OFF Light illuminated indicates ____.
A backup generator failure a circuit fault or the switch is off.
If an IDG is manually disconnected in flight with the DRIVE DISC switch can the pilots reconnect it?
No maintenance action is required on the ground.
What happens to the APU and RAT when both transfer busses are lost in flight?
The APU automatically starts and the RAT automatically deploys.
** When AC power is removed from the airplane with the BATTERY switch ON the PA system remains powered ____. **
In flight or on the ground.
** The main battery charger when powered will power the _____. **
Hot battery bus.
The external AVAIL light means power is plugged in and _____.
Voltage and frequencies are within limits but not yet selected/connected.
Pushing the IFE/PASS SEATS power switch to OFF removes power from what?
All inflight entertainment components.
If the electrical loads exceed power available (airplane or external) ELMS ____.
Automatically sheds nonessential systems.
** The backup generator system automatically powers the right transfer bus when _. **
Approach mode (APPR) is selected.
** Secondary external power can power the _____. **
Left and right main busses.
If primary external power is powering one or both main busses and then the APU is started the APU automatically connects to _____after reaching operating speed.
The left main bus.
On the ground power transfers are made without interruption except when ____.
Switching between primary and secondary external power sources.
Once one engine is started with no other electrical source providing power and the BUS TIE switches are in AUTO the ____ powers both main busses.
IDG
Several events can cause the backup AC Electrical system to operate automatically one of these events is when ____.
Power to one or both main AC busses is lost.
The ground service bus is normally powered by the right main bus. The ____ and ____ are alternate sources of power.
APU generator primary external power.
In flight when both BUS TIE switches are set to AUTO the priority for powering the left and right main busses is the _____.
Respective IDG APU generator opposite generator.
The main battery provides standby power to the _____.
Hot battery bus battery bus and standby inverter.
The entire airplane AC/DC electrical load is supplied by ____.
Any two main AC power sources.
Several items are powered by the ground handling bus item(s) include the ____.
Forward and aft cargo doors.
The ____ powers the AC standby bus if the left transfer bus is not powered.
Standby inverter.
How many starters does the APU have?
Two one electric and one air turbine.
** The main airplane battery powers the APU ____. **
Inlet door fuel valve and fire detection system.
** If the APU starts automatically in flight it _____. **
Can be shut down by positioning the selector to ON then OFF.
What occurs when the APU selector is turned to OFF?
Initiates normal shutdown.
The APU continues to operate in the attended mode and the EICAS message APU LIMIT displays for a ____ fault.
High EGT.
** Oil pressure temperature and quantity are _____. **
Displayed on the secondary engine display.
** How would you know that the EEC had switched to the soft alternate mode (200 A/B)? **
EPR indication is blank.
On the ground the autostart system will attempt a maximum of _____ start(s) (200A/B).
2
The ALTN mode of EEC operation provides _____.
Overspeed protection.
The autostart system will not attempt a second start on the ground if ______.
There is no N1 rotation.
In the alternate mode the EEC uses _____ as the controlling parameter.
N1
** If the EGT limit is exceeded during an inflight engine start _____. **
The start is temporarily discontinued.
** The normal power source for engine ignition is main AC power. The backup source for ignition is _____. **
Standby AC power.
** The maximum altitude the APU can be used for Pack operation is ____. **
22000 feet.
In flight the APU will automatically shut down with no cool-down period for ___.
An overspeed.
** If AC power is not available the DC pump in the ____ tank provides APU fuel. **
Left main.
How can pilots be certain that the APU is operating normally?
The message APU running is displayed on EICAS./
Regarding the Thrust Reverser System the EECs also provide thrust limits protection in which mode?
Reverse operation.
The START/IGNITION selectors control the ____ and provide continuous ignition capability.
Starter air valves.
Engine failure WARNINGs occur when the engine produces less than commanded thrust _____.
During takeoff below 400 feet radio altitude and between 65 knots and 6 knots less than V1.
** An auto-relight is initiated anytime a flameout is detected. A flameout is detected by the EEC when ______. **
N2 is less than idle RPM.
** Forward throttle movement is mechanically restricted until _____. **
The reverse thrust lever is fully down.
On the ground with the engines not running the APU shuts down with no cool-down period if which of the following occurs: _____.
APU controller failure
APU fuel can be provided by _____.
Any AC fuel pump supplying fuel to the left fuel manifold.
With the START/IGNITION switch in the NORM position continuous ignition is automatically provided ______.
With the flap lever out of the UP position.
During takeoff the EGT indication is _____.
Often in the amber band.
What does the autostart system NOT monitor during engine start?
Oil pressure and oil temperature.
How does the EEC shift from NORM to the soft alternate mode of operation?
If the required signals are not available to operate in the normal mode.
The autostart system will attempt a second start for all the following conditions EXCEPT FOR ______.
Insufficient air pressure.
During an inflight engine start how does the EEC interact with the ignitors?
It selects both igniters.
In flight the APU automatically starts regardless of APU selector position under which of these conditions?
Loss of power to both AC transfer busses.
The EEC automatically selects approach idle when _____.
Flaps are commanded to 25 or greater.
During a ground Autostart with the FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN at the appropriate ____ the engine valve opens and the ignitor(s) energize.
N2 RPM.
During an inflight engine autostart if the EGT limit is exceeded the _____.
Start is temporarily discontinued to allow engine cooling however the autostart is not aborted.
With AC power available and the APU selector to ON the ____ and cannot be turned off on the ground.
Left forward fuel pump operates automatically.
In the secondary flight control mode the elevator variable feel system provides _____.
Two feel force levels that change with flap position.
** Placing the PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTERS disconnect switch to DISC puts the flight control system in which mode? **
Direct
The Manual Trim Cancel Switch _____ rudder inputs from TAC.
Has no effect on it.
** In the Secondary Flap/Slat mode slats are positioned _____. **
To full extension when flaps 1 is selected.
** In the secondary flight control mode the primary pitch trim switches and the alternate pitch trim levers move the ______. **
Stabilizer directly. There is no trim reference speed.
** During flight in the normal mode the pitch trim switches _____. **
Make inputs to the PFCs to first move the elevators to achieve the trim change then move the stabilizer to streamline the elevator.
The Manual Trim Cancel Switch is available in all flight control modes except the ____ mode.
Direct
** To protect against inadvertent flap deployment during cruise flap and slat extension from the UP position is inhibited at altitudes above approximately ______. **
20000 feet.
The TAC is available during all phases of flight ______.
Above 70 knots.
** The autoslat system if armed enhances airplane stall protection characteristics ______. **
Upon receiving a signal from the stall warning system.
Which of the following sequences illustrates the flight control process when the autopilot is engaged?
Autopilot Inputs > PFCs > ACEs > Control Surfaces
** Autothrottles stall protection (commonly referred to as autothrottle wakeup) is available ____. **
In all three flight control modes if valid air data information is present.
If uncommanded stabilizer motion is sensed what happens to the hydraulic power?
Hydraulic power to the Stabilizer Trim Control Module that caused the motion is automatically shut off.
** Bank angle protection starts providing opposing forces to the roll control wheel inputs when the airplane bank angle exceeds approximately ______. **
35 degrees.
The spoilers are powered by _____ hydraulic system(s).
All three.
Which of the following statements is true of the RUDDER Trim Knob?
It is spring-loaded to neutral.
** Slat load relief is available in the _____ flap mode because slats are fully extended in all flap positions in that mode. **
Secondary
Which of the following CDU inputs is NOT required to calculate the stabilizer green band?
Flap setting.
** On the ground the stabilizer is directly positioned when the pilot uses ____. **
Pitch trim switches.
In the Normal flight control mode what occurs with the STAB TRIM switches in CUTOUT?
Pitch trim is still available.
TAC can normally compensate for which of the following engine problems?
Engine failure.
Which of the following sequences illustrates the Direct flight control process while hand flying?
Pilot Input > ACEs > Control Surfaces
What action may cause an automatic reversion to the secondary flight control mode?
PFC or related airplane system faults.
** PFCs change airplane pitch based on pilot control column or autopilot commands and airspeed. In the normal mode PFCs automatically compensate for _____. **
Thrust changes.
The pitch envelope protection functions _____ the pilot’s control authority.
Do not reduce.
Bank angle protection provides opposing forces to roll control wheel inputs when the airplane bank angle exceeds approximately _____ degrees.
35
The Primary Flight Computers automatically control pitch to maintain a relatively constant flight path. There is no need for additional control column back pressure to compensate for turns using up to ____ degrees of bank.
30
Which function is NOT available after an automatic reversion to the secondary flight control mode?
Automatic pitch compensation.
The dual alternate pitch trim levers on the control pedestal _____.
Have priority over the control yoke trim switches in all flight control modes.
Manual selection of the secondary flight control mode _____.
Is not possible.
Which of the following sequences illustrates the Normal flight control process while hand flying?
Pilot Input > ACEs > PFCs > ACEs > Control Surfaces.
Which of the following are functions of envelope protection with the PFCs in the normal mode?
Bank angle protection stall protection and overspeed protection.
** To provide airplane control in the event of a jam the control ____ are connected through jam override mechanisms. **
Columns and control wheels.
The ALTN FLAPS selector electrically extends the flaps/slats to what maximum position?
20/mid.
