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Block 6 week 3 > Survey of medical bacteriology I - Kozel > Flashcards

Survey of medical bacteriology I - Kozel Flashcards

1
Q

What are the classifications of bacterial pathogens?

A
  1. aerobic, gram-pos cocci or rods
  2. aerobic, gram-neg cocci or rods
  3. anaerobes
  4. mycobacteria/acid fast bacteria
  5. spirochetes
  6. miscellaneous bacteria
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2
Q

What is streptococcus pyrogenes classified as?

A

Aerobic, gram-pos cocci.

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3
Q

Name some characteristics of S. pyrogenes.

A
  1. forms chains
  2. is beta hemolytic on blood agar
  3. Has group specific carbohydrate - Group A
  4. Has type specific protein - Group M
  5. Has numerous toxins, adhesins and antiphagocytic components
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4
Q

How can you identify S. pyrogenes?

A
  1. it is catalase negative
  2. it is bacitracin sensitive
  3. it has the Group A antigen
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5
Q

Name some suppurative (pus-forming) infections caused by S. pyrogenes.

A
  1. pharyngitis
  2. scarlet fever
  3. pyoderma
  4. erysipelas
  5. streptococcal toxic shock syndrome
  6. cellulitis
  7. necrotizing fasciitis
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6
Q

Name some non-suppurative diseases caused by S. pyrogenes.

A
  1. rheumatic heart disease

2. acute glomerulonephritis

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7
Q

What is Streptococcus agalactiae classified as?

A

Aerobic, gram-pos cocci.

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8
Q

Name some characteristics of S. agalactiae.

A
  1. forms chains
  2. is beta hemolytic
  3. contains Group B-GBS group specific cell wall carbohydrate
  4. contains a type specific antiphagocytic capsular polysaccharide
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9
Q

How can you identify S. agalactiae?

A

It is catalase negative, CAMP positive and has a Group B antigen.

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10
Q

What major diseases are caused by S. agalactiae?

A
  1. menengitis in newborns
  2. early onset neonatal disease
  3. late onset neonatal disease
  4. various disseminated infections in adults
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11
Q

What is Viridans streptococci classified as?

A

Aerobic, gram-pos cocci.

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12
Q

Name some characteristics of Viridans streptococci.

A
  1. forms chains
  2. is alpha hemolytic
  3. has no carbohydrate anitgen
  4. has many species
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13
Q

How can you identify Viridans streptococci?

A

It is catalase negative and optochin resistant. Must differentiate from alpha hemolytic S. pneumoniae - S. pneumoniae is optochin sensitive.

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14
Q

Name some different species of Viridans streptococci.

A
  1. S. mitis
  2. S. mutans
  3. S. salivaris
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15
Q

Name some diseases caused by Viridans streptococci.

A
  1. endocarditis
  2. dental caries
  3. bacteremia in neutropenic patients
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16
Q

What is the difference between alpha and beta hemolysis?

A

Some bacteria have the ability to break down RBC’s - called hemolysis. When these bacteria are placed on a blood agar their different ways of causing hemolysis results in different colors in the agar. Alpha hemolysis is caused by hydrogen peroxide produced by the bacteria. This oxidizes hemoglobin and makes the agar look green. Beta hemolysis is the complete break down of the RBC caused by an exotoxin called streptomycin. This results in the agar turning a light yellow to clear color.

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17
Q

What is Streptococcus pneumoniae classified as?

A

Aerobic, gram-pos cocci.

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18
Q

Name some characteristics of S. pneumoniae.

A
  1. forms Lancet-shaped pairs
  2. alpha hemolytic
  3. contains an antiphagocytic capsular polysaccharide
  4. there is a vaccine for this bacteria that targets the capsular polysaccharide or a CPS-protien conjugate
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19
Q

How can you identify S. pneumoniae?

A

It is catalase negative, bile soluble and optochin sensitive. The fact that it is optochin sensitive is a way to differentiate between it and Viridans streptococci.

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20
Q

Name some major diseases caused by S. pneumoniae.

A
  1. pneumonia
  2. meningitis
  3. bacteremia
  4. sinusitis and otitis media
  5. sickle cell disease is a risk factor
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21
Q

How is Staphylococcus aureus classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-pos cocci.

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22
Q

Name some characteristics of S. aureus.

A
  1. forms clusters
  2. has adhesive and antiphagocytic factors, toxins and virulence enzymes
  3. can be resistant to antibiotics - MRSA - has an altered PBP encoded by mecA gene
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23
Q

How can you identify S. aureus?

A

It is catalase positive, coagulase positive and has Protein A on its surface.

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24
Q

Name some suppurative infections caused by S. aureus.

A
  1. impetigo
  2. folliculitis
  3. furuncles/boils
  4. carbuncles
  5. bacteremia
  6. endocarditis
  7. osteomyelitis
  8. septic arthritis
  9. pneumonia and empyema (collection of pus in a naturally existing anatomical space such as pleural cavity)
  10. brain abscess
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25
Q

Name some toxin-mediated diseases caused by S. aureus.

A
  1. food poisoning
  2. toxic shock syndrome
  3. scalded skin syndrome
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26
Q

What is Lancefield grouping?

A

It is a method of grouping B-hemolytic bacteria based on the carbohydrate composition of their cell wall antigens.

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27
Q

How are coagulase-negative staphylococci classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-pos cocci.

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28
Q

Name some characteristics and identifiers of coagulase-negative staphylococci.

A
  1. catalase positive
  2. coagulase negative
  3. extracellular polysaccharide contributes to biofilm
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29
Q

Name some major diseases caused by coagulase-negative staphylococci.

A
  1. endocarditis
  2. catheter and shunt infections
  3. urinary tract infections
  4. UTI’s in young, sexually active women - mainly by the species Staphylococcus saprophyticus
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30
Q

What is the primary species of coagulase-negative staphylococci that causes clinical disease.

A

S. epidermidis - also S. saprophyticus causes UTI’s in young, sexually active women.

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31
Q

What is coagulase positivity?

A

Some bacteria produce coagulase - this enzyme catalyzes change of fibrinogen to fibrin. If present it will cause blood an plasma to clot- this is used diagnostically to differentiate between certain bacterias such as S. aureus.

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32
Q

How is Neisseria gonorrhoeae classified?

A

Aerobic gram negative cocci.

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33
Q

Name some characteristics of N. gonorrhoeae.

A
  1. forms diplococci
  2. multiple virulence factors/antigens on its surface
  3. resistant to most antibiotics - ceftriaxone now in use
  4. can diagnose by nucleic acid amplification
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34
Q

Name som major diseases caused by N. gonorrhoeae.

A
  1. gonorrhea
  2. disseminated infections - spread to skin or joints
  3. ophthalmia neonatorum - ocular infection acquired at birth
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35
Q

How is Neisseria meningitidis classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg cocci.

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36
Q

Name some characteristics of N. meningitidis.

A
  1. forms diplococci
  2. has antiphagocytic Group-specific capsular polysaccharide
  3. there is a vaccine against capsular polysaccharide or CPS-protein conjugate
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37
Q

Name some major diseases caused by N. meningitidis.

A
  1. menengitis - in young adults
  2. meningococcemia - disseminated infection with petechia and purport
  3. repeated attacks in patients with deficiencies in terminal complement proteins
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38
Q

How is Bacillus anthraces classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-pos rod.

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39
Q

Name some characteristics of B. anthracis.

A
  1. large, spore-forming rod
  2. has an antiphagocytic capsular polypeptide made from poly-glutamic acid
  3. has 3 exotoxins - protective antigen (PA), edema factor (EF), and lethal factor (LF)
    4 is treated with ciprofloxacin
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40
Q

Name some major diseases caused by B. anthraces.

A
  1. cutaneous anthrax - forms a black eschar
  2. gastrointestinal anthrax - ulcers at site of invasion
  3. inhalation anthrax - non-specific signs followed by severe sepsis
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41
Q

How is Bacillus cereus classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-pos rod.

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42
Q

Name some characteristics of B. cereus.

A
  1. large, spore-forming rod
  2. ubiquitous in soil worldwide
  3. has two enterotoxins
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43
Q

Name some major diseases caused by B. cereus.

A
  1. food poisoning - vomiting and diarrheal forms
  2. ocular infection - traumatic penetrating injury
  3. severe pulmonary disease- severe anthrax-like pulmonary disease in immunocompetent patients
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44
Q

How is Listeria monocytogenes classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-pos rod.

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45
Q

Name some characteristics of L. monocytogenes.

A
  1. is a motile coccobacilli
  2. is a facultative intracellular pathogen
  3. grows at 4 degrees celsius - especially in contaminated food
  4. treatment via penicillin alone or with gentamycin
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46
Q

Name some major diseases caused by L. monocytogenes.

A
  1. contaminated food or transplacental spread
  2. neonatal disease - early onset
  3. is influenza-like or asymptomatic in healthy adults
  4. source of in utero infection - usually during third trimester - called early onset before birth and late onset after birth
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47
Q

How is Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-pos rod.

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48
Q

Name some characteristics of E. rhusiopathiae.

A
  1. thin, pleomorphic rods in filaments
  2. zoonotic - colonizes swine, turkeys, fish - is an occupational disease in humans
  3. treatment with penicillin
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49
Q

Name some major diseaes caused by E. rhusiopathiae.

A
  1. Erysipeloid - painful, pruritic inflammatory skin lesion at sites of trauma
  2. generalized cutaneous disease - diffuse cutaneous infection
  3. septicemia leading to endocarditis (uncommon)
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50
Q

How is Corynebacterium diphtheriae classified?

A

Aerobic, gram pos rod.

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51
Q

Name some characteristics of C. diphtheria.

A
  1. pleomorphic
  2. produces diptheria toxin - A-B toxin inactivates EF-2
  3. grown on special media - cysteine-tellurite agar
  4. has vaccine - to diphtheria toxin
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52
Q

Name some diseases caused by C. diphtheriae.

A
  1. respiratory diphtheria - starts with exudative pharyngitis evolving to pseudomembrane then releases toxins causing myocarditis and neurotoxicity
  2. cutaneous diphtheria - chronic, non-healing ulcer following contact with infected person.
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53
Q

How are pathotypes Escherichia coli classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rod. There are many strains of E. coli. The pathogenic strains are further classified under five different pathotypes.

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54
Q

Name some characteristics of E. coli.

A
  1. They are fermentative (fermentation if no O2 available) rods
  2. Some strains are normal flora of the GI tract
  3. There are 5 different pathogenic groups with distinct toxins
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55
Q

Name some diseases caused by E. coli.

A
  1. gastroenteritis - five major groups with distinct sites of action, symptoms and virulence factors
  2. urinary tract infection - most common cause
  3. neonatal meningitis
  4. septicemia
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56
Q

What are the 5 pathotypes of E. coli?

A
  1. Uropathogenic (UPEC)
  2. Enterotoxigenic (ETEC)
  3. Enteropathogenic (EPEC)
  4. Enteroinvasive (EIEC)
  5. Enterohemorrhagic 0157:H7 (EHEC)
  6. Enteroaggregative (EAEC) - has same toxin as EHEC.
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57
Q

Describe UPEC.

A

Uropathogenic E. coli. This E. coli pathotype produces the exotoxin a-hemolysin, triggers inflammation and is an opportunistic infector.

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58
Q

Describe ETEC.

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli. This pathotype produces the exotoxin a-hemolysin, triggers inflammation and is involved in UTI’s.

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59
Q

Describe EPEC.

A

Enteropathogenic E. coli. This pathotype produces the exotoxins Labile toxin (LT) and Stable toxin (ST), causes hypersecretion leading to watery diarrhea.

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60
Q

Describe EIEC.

A

Enteroinvasive E. coli. This pathotype triggers inflammation, produces ulcers and causes dysentery.

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61
Q

Describe EHEC 0157:H7.

A

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli. This pathotype produces Shiga toxin. This toxin binds to and colonizes the small intestines (also can bind in the kidneys) and causes hemorrhage leading to bloody diarrhea and hemolytic uremic syndrome.

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62
Q

Describe EAEC.

A

Enteroaggregative E. coli. This pathotype also produces Shiga toxin. It is involved in producing adherent biofilm and causing watery or blood diarrhea and hemolytic uremic syndrome.

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63
Q

How is Salmonella enterica classified.

A

Aerobic gram-neg rod.

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64
Q

Name some characteristics of S. enterica.

A
  1. is a non-fermenting rod
  2. most infections via contaminated food such as poultry or eggs.
  3. has over 2500 O serotypes
  4. The serovars Typhi and Paratyphi are highly adapted to humans.
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65
Q

Name some diseases caused by S. enterica.

A
  1. Gastroenteritis - infectious dose lower if reduced gastric acidity.
  2. Septicemia
  3. Enteric fever - typhoid fever produces by S. Typhi.
  4. Asymptomatic colonization - usually gallbladder, carrier for infection by S. Typhi and S. paratyphi.
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66
Q

How are the Shigella species classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

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67
Q

Name some characteristics of the Shigella species.

A
  1. They are non-fermenting rods.
  2. There are 4 species
  3. They produce Shiga toxin that damages intestinal epithelium and A-B toxin that blocks protein synthesis.
  4. Humans are their only reservoir.
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68
Q

What are the 4 Shigella species?

A
  1. S. sonnei
  2. S. flexneri
  3. S. dysenteriae
  4. S. boydii
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69
Q

Name some diseases caused by the Shigella species.

A
  1. Shigellosis - a type of gastroenteritis characterized by watery diarrhea (caused by enterotoxin), abdominal cramps, fever and bloody stool.
  2. Asymptomatic carriers are a reservoir.
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70
Q

How are the Yersinia species classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

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71
Q

Name some characteristics of Yersinia.

A
  1. zoonotic- rats, sqirrels, rabbits and domestic animals
  2. Y. pestis is the flea vector
  3. There have been 3 major pandemics caused by this bacteria.
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72
Q

Name some diseases caused by Yersinia.

A
  1. Bubonic plague- spread via fleas
  2. Pneumonic plague - spread via aerosol
  3. Y. enterocolitica and Y. pseudotuberculosis - cause enterocolitis following ingestion of infected meat, milk or water.
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73
Q

Name some clinically important Yersinia species.

A
  1. Y. pestis
  2. Y. enterocolitica
  3. Y. pseudotuberculosis
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74
Q

How is Klebsiella pneumoniae classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

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75
Q

Name some characteristics of K. pneumoniae.

A
  1. Can also be fermentative.
  2. Is encapsulated so has antiphagocytic properties.
  3. Has a strain that is resistant to carbapenemase - CRKP or Carbapenem-resistant K. pneumniae.
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76
Q

Name some diseases caused by K. pneumoniae.

A
  1. Pneumonia - usually patients with impaired pulmonary defense such as diabetes, alcoholism, malignancy or COPD. The symptoms include bloody, mucoid sputum.
  2. UTI
  3. Sepsis
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77
Q

How is Proteus mirabilis classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

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78
Q

Name some characteristics of P. mirabilis.

A
  1. Urease positive
  2. motile - can be seen on bacterial plates
  3. makes urine alkaline leading to struvite crystals in kidneys (kidney stones) - urease hydrolyzes urea to ammonia
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79
Q

What disease does P mirabilis cause?

A

UTI with crystal formation.

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80
Q

How is Serratia marcesens classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

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81
Q

Name some characteristics of S. marcesens.

A
  1. Produces red pigment.

2. Ubiquitous in damp aras of environment.

82
Q

Name some diseases caused by S. marcesens.

A
  1. Noscomial (originates in hospital) infection in neonates and compromised patients.
  2. UTI
  3. Respiratory tract infection.
  4. Wound infection.
83
Q

How are the Aeromonas species classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

84
Q

Name some characteristics of the Aeromonas species.

A
  1. There are greater than 20 species.

2. They are ubiquitous in fresh and brackish water.

85
Q

Name some diseases associated by the Aeromonas species.

A
  1. Diarrheal disease in otherwise healthy people - caused by contaminated food or water.
  2. Wound infection - traumatic injury and exposure to contaminated water.
  3. Opportunistic systemic disease, particularly in those with hepatobiliary disease or malignancy.
86
Q

How is Vibrio cholerae classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

87
Q

Name some characteristics of V. cholerae.

A
  1. Form curved rods that require salt for growth.
  2. Produce cholera toxin - A-B toxin. This toxin in similar to LT toxin of E. coli, it interacts with G-protein that regulates adenylate cyclase leading to secretion of water and electrolytes.
  3. The cholera toxin is produced by the 01 and 0139 serogroups.
  4. V. cholerae is spread by consumption of contaminated food or water.
88
Q

Name some diseases caused by V. cholerae.

A
  1. Asymptomatic or self-limited diarrhea.

2. Cholera - watery diarrhea with “rice-water” stool (speckled with mucus).

89
Q

How is Vibrio parahaemolyticus classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

90
Q

Name some characteristics of V. parahaemolyticus.

A
  1. forms curved rods that require salt for growth
  2. present in estuarine and marine environments worldwide, most common cause of gastroenteritis in Japan and SE Asia, most common cause of seafood-associated gastroeneritis in US (raw shellfish)
91
Q

Name some diseases caused by V. parahaemolyticus.

A
  1. Gastroenteritis - usually a self-limited diarrhea

2. wound infection - exposure to contaminated water

92
Q

How is Vibrio vulnificus classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

93
Q

Name some characteristics of Vibrio vulnificus.

A
  1. forms curved rods that require salt for growth
  2. infectIon via exposure to contaminated salt water or ingestion of contaminated shellfish
  3. responsible for 90% of Vibrio-related deaths in the US
94
Q

Name some diseases caused by V. vulnificus.

A
  1. Septicemia after consumption of raw oysters, has a high mortality rate - 25%
  2. Wound infection after exposure to contaminated water
95
Q

How are campylobacter jejuni (and other Campylobacter spp.) classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

96
Q

Name some characteristics of C. jejuni et al.

A
  1. forms curved rods
  2. zoonotic- poultry, contaminated food, unpasteurized milk, contaminated water
  3. There are several species
97
Q

Name some diseases caused by C. jejuni et al.

A
  1. Gastrointestinal disease - most common cause of bacteria gastroenteritis in US, killed by gastric acid so especially associated with decreased gastric acid
  2. Septicemia - uncommon
  3. Guillain-Barre syndrome - cross reactivity between surface LPS and peripheral nerve gangliosides
98
Q

Name some clinically important species of Campylobacter.

A
  1. C. jejuni
  2. C. coli
  3. C. fetus
  4. C. unsaliensis
99
Q

How is Helicobacter pylori classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

100
Q

Name some characteristics of H. pylori.

A
  1. Forms spiral, highly motile rods
  2. humans are the primary reservoir, infection is common and colonization is life-long
  3. copious urease production - so can diagnose via non-invasive breath test
  4. difficult to culture - requires complex medium
101
Q

Name some diseases caused by H. pylori.

A
  1. Gastritis
  2. Gastric ulcers - 10-20% lifetime risk if colonized
  3. Gastric cancer - 1-2% lifetime risk if colonized
  4. colonization is life-long it untreated
102
Q

How is Pseudomonas aeruginosa classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

103
Q

Name some characteristics of P. aeruginosa.

A
  1. Is oxidase-positive and produce green pigment
  2. has a mucoid polysaccharide capsule
  3. ubiquitous in nature and often cause nosocomial infection
  4. highly resistant, requires use of antibiotic combinations
104
Q

Name some diseases caused by P. aeruginosa.

A
  1. Pulmonary infection - seen with cystic fibrosis and mucoid strains
  2. Infection of burn wounds
  3. UTI - especially in long-term indwelling catheters
  4. External otitis - swimmer’s ear
  5. Bacteremia - opportunistic infection such as would be seen with neutropenia
105
Q

How is the Burkholderia species classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

106
Q

Name some characteristics of Burkholderia.

A
  1. There are multiple species - B. cepacia, B. pseudomallei, B. mallei.
107
Q

Name some diseases associated with Burkholderia.

A
  1. B. cepacia complex - pulmonary infection in patients with underlying lung disease such as cystic fibrosis.
  2. B. mallei - glanders in horses; biothreat
  3. B. pseudomallei - melioidosis - a pulmonary infection and sepsis, also a biothreat
108
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Glanders?

A

Glanders is a disease primarily of horses but can infect humans. It can cause fever, chills, sweating, light sensitivity, muscle aches, chest pain, nasal discharge and headaches.

109
Q

How is Acinetobacter baumanii classified?

A

Areobic, gram-neg rods.

110
Q

Name some characteristics of A. baumanii.

A
  1. Gram-neg coccobacillus
  2. Ubiquitous saprophytes in many environments
  3. emerging nosocomial infection
  4. Highly resistant to multiple antibiotics
111
Q

Name some diseases caused by A. baumanii.

A
  1. Noscomial infection in the hospital
  2. Wound infection - noscomial infection of battlefield wounds
  3. opportunistic infections
112
Q

How is Haemophilus influenzae classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

113
Q

Name some characteristics of H. influenzae.

A
  1. small coccobacilli
  2. encapsulated - Type B is most important
  3. has a vaccine - protein conjugate of type B polysaccharide
  4. nutritional requirements - X (hemin) and V (NAD) factors
114
Q

Name some diseases caused by H. influenzae.

A
  1. menengitis - disease of unimmunized children
  2. Epiglottitis - life-threatening swelling of the epiglottis
  3. acute and chronic otitis media and sinusitis (acapsular strains) - most common cause along with Strep. pneumoniae
115
Q

How is Pasteurella multocida classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

116
Q

Name some characteristics of P. multocida.

A
  1. gram-neg coccobacilli
  2. commensals of oropharynx of healthy animals
  3. infection follows exposure to animals, ie - bites, scratches, shared food
117
Q

Name some diseases caused by P. mulocida.

A
  1. Cellulitis and lymphadenitis after animal bite - most common infection following dog or cat bites
  2. Respiratory infection in patients with underlying pulmonary dysfunction
  3. Systemic infection in immunocompromised patient
118
Q

How is Bordetella pertussis classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

119
Q

Name some characteristics of B. pertussis.

A
  1. gram-neg coccobacillus
  2. Produces pertussis toxin - inhibits protein that regulates adenylate cyclase activity - this leads to increased cAMP levels
  3. there is a vaccine against a cocktail of purified B. pertussis proteins
120
Q

Name some diseases caused by B. pertussis.

A
  1. Pertussis or whooping cough - seen in unimmunized infants

2. Causes chronic cough in partially immunized patients

121
Q

What are the stages of Pertussis?

A

Stage 1 - Catarrhal stage - characterized by coryza, low-grade fever and mild, occasional cough
Stage 2 - Paroxysmal state - characterized by paroxysms of numerous, rapid coughs, thick mucoid sputum, cyanosis, vomiting, exhaustion, long aspiratory effort accompanied by a ‘whoop’ at the end
Stage 3 - Convalescent stage - Characterized by less persistent, paroxysmal coughs and a gradual recovery

122
Q

How is Franciscella tularensis classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-ned rods.

123
Q

Name some characteristics of F. tularensis.

A
  1. Gram-neg coccobacillus that requires cysteine for growth. This requires a special media and is dangerous.
  2. zoonotic - primarily in rabbits
  3. insect vectors are hard ticks and biting flies
  4. Is a facultative intracellular pathogen
124
Q

Name some diseases caused by F. tularensis.

A
  1. Causes Tularemia - 3 types
    Ulceroglandular - most common form that follows insect bite or direct inoculation - causes an ulcer at the site with swelling of regional lymph nodes
    Oculoglandular - follows inoculation of the eye - i.e. -by rubbing the eye, causes irritation and inflammation of eye with swelling of regional lymph nodes
    Pneumonic - follows inhalation, is a biothreat, causes cough, chest pain and SOB
125
Q

How is the Brucella species classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

126
Q

Name some characteristics of the Brucella species.

A
  1. very small, gram-neg coccobacilli
  2. infects tissue rich in erythritol like the uterus and placenta
  3. zoonotic with different species in different animals
127
Q

Name the different species of Brucella and their animal hosts.

A
  1. B. melitensis - goats and sheep
  2. B. abortus - cattle and American bison
  3. B. suis - seine, reindeer and caribou
  4. B. canis - dogs, foxes and coyotes
128
Q

Name some diseases caused by Brucella.

A
  1. Undulant fever - multiple symptoms with intermittent fever
  2. Disease spectrum varies with infecting species
  3. Is a biothreat
129
Q

How is Legionella pneumophila classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

130
Q

Name some characteristics of L. pneumophila.

A
  1. Slender, pleomorphic rods
  2. Nutritionally fastidious - requires cysteine (special media in lab)
  3. replicates inside macrophages and amoebae
  4. common in natural bodies of water such as cooling towers etc.
131
Q

Name some diseases caused by L. pneumophila.

A
  1. Asymptomatic infection is relatively common
  2. Legionnaire’s disease - severe form of pneumnia in setting of underlying pulmonary disease
  3. Pontaic fever - self-limiting flu-like illness associated with several Legionella species
132
Q

How is the Bartonella species classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

133
Q

Name some characteristics of Bartonella.

A
  1. Gram-neg rod
  2. many transmitted by blood-sucking arthropods
  3. The reservoir is cats and their fleas
134
Q

Name some diseases caused by Bartonella.

A
  1. B. quintana - passed by the bite of the human body louse, responsible for Trench fever of WWI - severe headache, fever and pain in the long bones
  2. B. henselae - can cause Bacillary angiomatosis - vascular proliferative disease and Cat-scratch disease - chronic regional lymphadenopathy associated with inoculation of flea excreta via a cat scratch
135
Q

What are 2 clinically important species of Bartonella?

A
  1. B. quintana

2. B. henselae

136
Q

How is Streptobacillus moniliformis classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

137
Q

Name some characteristics of S. moniliformis.

A
  1. forms long, thin rods

2. Reservoir is rat and other small rodents - normal flora in nasopharynx of rats

138
Q

Name some diseases caused by S. moniliformis.

A
  1. Rat-bite fever - human infections follow rat bites, symptoms are irregular fever, headache, chills, migratory polyarthralgia, maculopapular or petechial rash
139
Q

How is Eikenella corrodes classified?

A

Aerobic, gram-neg rods.

140
Q

Name some characteristics of E. corrodens.

A
  1. small, gram-neg rods

2. normal flora of human mouth and upper respiratory tract

141
Q

Name some diseases caused by E. corrodens

A
  1. opportunistic infection of immunocompromised patients

2. commonly isolated in human bit wound or fistfight.

142
Q

How is Clostridium perfringens classified?

A

As an anaerobe.

143
Q

Name some characteristics of C. perfringens.

A
  1. spore-forming, gram-pos rod
  2. ubiquitous in soil, water and GI tract of humans and animals
  3. produces numerous toxins and enzymes such as alpha toxin or lecithinase
  4. produces C. perfringens enterotoxin
144
Q

Name some diseases caused by C. perfringens

A
  1. Cellulitis
  2. Fasciitis or suppurative myositis
  3. Myonecrosis or gas gangrene
  4. Clostridial food poisoning - intoxication; meat products
145
Q

How is Clostridium tetani classified?

A

As an anaerobe.

146
Q

Name some characteristics of C. tetani.

A
  1. spore-forming gram-pos rod
  2. spores in most soils and GI tracts of humans and animals
  3. Has a vaccine against tetanus toxoid
  4. Produces Tetanospasmin -a neurotoxin that blocks the release of neurotransmitters for inhibitory synapses so causes spastic paralysis
147
Q

Name some diseases caused by C. tetani.

A
  1. Generalized tetanus - spread of toxin from local site
  2. Localized tetanus - toxic effects at local site
  3. Neonatal tetanus - toxemia after infection of umbilical stump
148
Q

How is Clostridium botulinum classified?

A

As an anaerobe.

149
Q

Name some characteristics of C. botulinum.

A
  1. spore-forming gram-pos rod.
  2. spores in soil worldwide
  3. produces botulinum toxin - prevents release of neurotransmitter acetylchline which causes flacid paralysis
  4. diagnosis by detection of toxin in patient serum or feces
150
Q

Name some diseases caused by C. botulinum.

A
  1. Foodborne botulism - intoxication via contaminated bood
  2. Infant botulism - neurotoxin produced in vivo following colonization of infant GI tract - usually via honey
  3. Wound botulism - toxemia following wound infection
151
Q

How is Clostridium difficile classified?

A

As an anaerobe.

152
Q

Name some characteristics of C. difficile.

A
  1. spore-forming gram-pos rod
  2. colonizes human GI tract, spores common in hospital rooms and other health care settings
  3. produces two toxins - enterotoxin and cytotoxin
  4. diagnosis by detection of toxins in patient feces
153
Q

Name some diseases caused by C. difficile.

A
  1. Pseudomembranous colitis - follows use of broad spectrum antibiotics such as Cllindamycin - relapse is common since antibiotics do not kill spores
  2. May have milder forms
154
Q

How is Actinomyses israelii classified?

A

As an anaerobe.

155
Q

Name some characteristics of A. israelii?

A
  1. gram-pos, branching rod
  2. infection endogenous - poor oral hygiene, dental work
  3. sulfur granules - large yellow or orange masses of filamentous organisms at sites of infection
156
Q

Name some diseases caused by A. israelii.

A
  1. Oral-cervicofacial infection

2. Infections at other sites - thoracic, abdominal, pelvic, CNS

157
Q

How is Propionibacterium acnes classified?

A

As an anaerobe.

158
Q

Name some characteristics of P. acnes.

A
  1. small, gram-pos rods
  2. common on skin, sebaceous glands, sweat glands
  3. produces many products that stimulate local inflammation
159
Q

Name some diseases caused by P. acnes.

A
  1. Acne vulgaris - stimulates inflammatory response

2. Opportunistic infections in patients with prosthetic devices (i.e. artificial heart valves) or IV lines

160
Q

How is Bacterioides fragilis classified?

A

As an anaerobe.

161
Q

Name some characteristics of B. fragilis.

A
  1. pleomorphic, gram-neg rod

2. colonize human upper respiratory tract, GI tract and genitourinary tract

162
Q

Name some diseases caused by B. fragilis.

A
  1. Head and neck infection
  2. Intra-abdominal infection
  3. Gynecologic infection
  4. Skin and soft tissue infection
  5. Bacteremia
163
Q

How is Mycobacterium tuberculosis classified?

A

As Mycobacteria/acid fast bacteria.

164
Q

Name some characteristics of M. tuberculosis.

A
  1. Acid-fast, aerobic rods with cell walls that are rich in lipids.
  2. Slow growth - 16-20 hours doubling time.
  3. Intracellular pathogen - grows in unactivated macrophages.
  4. disease due to host response.
  5. MDR-TB - some strains have multiple drug resistance
165
Q

Name some diseases caused by M. tuberculosis.

A
  1. Tuberculosis - most infections asumptomatic and latent - can do a skin test. Two forms - pulmonary and extra pulmonary.
  2. Extrapulmonary - in pleura, CNS, genitourinary system.
166
Q

How is Mycobacterium leprae classified?

A

As Mycobacteria/acid fast bacteria.

167
Q

Name some characteristics of M. leprae.

A
  1. Acid-fast, aerobic rods with cell walls rich in lipids.
  2. Obligate intracellular pathogen - does not culture.
  3. Disease due to host response.
168
Q

Name some diseases caused by Lepromatous leprosy.

A
  1. Tuberculoid leprosy - strong cellular immune response, relatively few bacteria.
  2. Lepromatous leprosy - Strong antibody response but defect in cellular response, abundant bacteria - most infectious form.
169
Q

How is Mycobacterium avium complex classified?

A

As Mycobacteria/acid fast bacteria.

170
Q

Name some characteristics of Mycobacterium avium complex.

A
  1. Acid fast, aerobid cods with cell walls rich in lipids.
  2. Two species, M. avium and M. intracellular.
  3. Common in soil and water; acquired via ingestion of contaminated water or food.
171
Q

Name some diseases caused by Mycobacterium avium complex,

A
  1. Asymptomatic colonization.
  2. Chronic localized pulmonary disease.
  3. Disseminated disease - ie in an AIDS patient.
172
Q

How is the Nocardia species classified?

A

As gram-positive rods with filamentous forms that resemble hyphae; weakly acid fast.

173
Q

Name some characteristics of Nocardia.

A
  1. ubiquitous in soil rich with organic matter

2. serious disease in immunocompromised patients

174
Q

Name some diseases caused by Nocardia.

A
  1. Bronchopulmonary disease
  2. Lymphocutaneous disease - may progress to mycetoma
  3. Brain abscess in immunocompromised patients
175
Q

How is Treponema pallidum classified?

A

As a spirochete.

176
Q

Name some characteritics of T. pallidum.

A
  1. spirochete with gram-neg like cell wall.
  2. Humans only natural host.
  3. Cannot be cultured - use dark field microscopy of primary lesion.
  4. Serology used for diagnosis in secondary and late stages.
177
Q

Name some diseases caused by Treponema palladium.

A
  1. Primary syphilis - painless chancre at site of inoculation.
  2. Secondary syphilis - disseminated disease; rash
  3. Latent Syphilis - asymptomatic; serological evidence of infection
  4. Tertiary or late Syphilis - destruction of multiple organs.
  5. Congenital Syphilis.
178
Q

How is Borrelia burgdorferi classified?

A

As a spirochete.

179
Q

Name some characteristics of B. burgdorferi.

A
  1. Spirochete with gam-neg like cell wall that stains poorly
  2. Zoonoitc - it is the leading vector-borne disease in the US
  3. The reservoir for the larval form is mice and for the adult form is deer
  4. The vector is hard-shelled ticks in larval/nymph form on mice
180
Q

Name some diseases caused by B. burgdorferi.

A
  1. Lyme diseases - there is an initial circular “Bull’s eye” skin lesion with erythema migrans. The systemic signs are arthritis, cardiac and neurologic.
181
Q

What is erythema migrans?

A

A rash that is seen in the early stages of Lyme disease.

182
Q

How is the Borrelia species classified?

A

As spirochetes.

183
Q

Name some characteristics of Borrelia.

A
  1. Spirochete with a gram-neg like cell wall.
  2. This bacteria can vary the expression of it’s lipoprotein coat to escape immune surveillance.
  3. Present worldwide and in the Western US.
  4. The reservoir is rodents and small mammals and the vector is soft ticks.
  5. The species B. recurrentis causes Epidemic relapsing fever in regions of Africa.
184
Q

Name some diseases caused by Borrelia.

A
  1. Endemic relapsing fever - caused by several Borrelia species like B. hermsii. The fever is relapsing because the bacterium evades the immune system.
  2. Epidemic relapsing fever - caused by B. recurrentis. The reservoir is man and the vector is the human body louse.
185
Q

How is Leptospira interrogans classified?

A

As a spirochete.

186
Q

Name some characteristics of Leptospira interrogans.

A
  1. Spirochete with gram-neg like cell wall.
  2. Zoonotic - rodents, dogs, farm animals, wild animals.
  3. Infection via contact with water, food or soil contaminated with urine from infected animal.
187
Q

Name some diseases caused by L. interrogans.

A
  1. Most disease is mild, flu-like with fever and myalgia.
  2. Systemic disease presents as aseptic meningitis.
  3. Weil syndrome - overwhelming disease, vascular collapse, hepatic disease with jaundice and renal dysfunction.
188
Q

Describe Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

A
  1. smallest free-living bacterium, lacks cell wall, membrane contains sterols from host serum.
  2. strictly human pathogen, transmission via aerosol droplet.
  3. treatment includes macrolides like azithromycin or quinolones.
189
Q

What are some diseases caused by M. pneumoniae?

A
  1. Tracheobronchitis
  2. pharyngitis
  3. Atypical or walking pneumonia
  4. other species may also cause disease
190
Q

Name some other species of Mycoplasma.

A
  1. M. genitalium
  2. M. hominis
  3. Ureaplasma urealyticum
191
Q

Describe Rickettsia rickettsii.

A
  1. small forms similar to gram-neg rods
  2. obligate intracellular parasite
  3. gets into endothelial cells and causes vasculitis
  4. hard ticks are both a reservoir and a vector
  5. Weil-Felix agglutination - a test for the Ab to this bacteria - has low sensitivity and specificity
192
Q

What are some diseases caused by Rickettsia rickettsii?

A
  1. Rock mountain spotted fever - fever, headache, malaise, myalgia, nausea, macular rash with cenripetal spread - ie to hands and feet and trunk
193
Q

What are some other Rickettsia species that cause disease?

A
  1. R. prowazekii - causes epidemic typhus, spread through lice.
  2. R. typhi - causes endemic typhus, spread through fleas.
  3. Orientia tsutsugamushi - causes scrub typhus and is spread by mites.
194
Q

What are some symptoms of typhus?

A

Back pain, myalgia, abdominal pain, headaches, joint pain, fever, rashes. Endemic typhus also causes vomiting and hacking, dry cough. Scrub typhus is more like spotted fever.

195
Q

Describe the Ehrlichia and Anaplasma species.

A
  1. small forms with cell wall like gram-neg bacteria.
  2. Obligate intracellular parasite - cytoplasmic vacuoles of hematopoietic cells.
  3. zoonotic - resrvoirs include der, mice, voles and canines and the vector is ticks.
196
Q

Name some diseases caused by the Ehrlichia and Anaplasma species.

A
  1. many symptoms caused by immune dysregulation.
  2. E. chaffeensis - causes human monocytic ehrlichiosis.
  3. A. phagocytophilum - causes human granulocytic ehrlichiosis.
197
Q

Describe Coxiella burnetii.

A
  1. small gram-neg, spore-forming bacterium.
  2. Obligate intracellular growth.
  3. Zoonotic - cattle, sheep, goats, dogs and cats.
  4. Infection due to inhalation or unpasteurized milk.
  5. Extreme environmental stability.
198
Q

Name some diseases caused by C. burnetii.

A
  1. Acute disease - pneumonia, hepatitis, fever.
  2. Chronic disease - inflammation of the heart (endocarditis).
  3. Biothreat
199
Q

Describe Chlamydia trachomatis.

A
  1. Small gram-neg rods with no peptidoglycan layer.
  2. Obligate intracellular parasite.
  3. Two forms: infectious elementary bodies and non-infectious reticulate bodies.
  4. Treatment is via azithromycin or doxycycline.
200
Q

Name some diseases caused by C. trachomatis.

A
  1. Urogenital - urethritis, PID, most common STD in US.
  2. Trachoma - important global infectious diseases - causes blindness.
  3. Lymphogranuloma venereum - STD, primary lesion extending to lymphatics and lymph nodes.
201
Q

Describe the Chlamydophila species.

A
  1. Small gram-neg rods with no peptidoglycan layer.

2. Obligate intracellular parasite.

202
Q

Name some diseases caused by Clamydophila.

A
  1. Chlamydophila pneumoniae - causes respiratory infection with sinusitis, pharyngitis, pneumonia and possibly artherosclerosis.
  2. Chlamydophila psittaci - causes Psittacosis or Parrot fever/Ornithosis. This is a respiratory in fiction spread to RES cells of liver and spleen. Birds are a natural reservoir.

Block 6 week 3 (5 decks)

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