Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

General Surgery > Surgical recall > Flashcards

Surgical recall Flashcards

1
Q

What is the source of alkaline phosphatase?

A

Ductal epithelium (thus, elevated with ductal obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most common liver tumor?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Imaging for liver tumor?

A

CT scan, ultrasound, A-gram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Vinyl Chloride, arsenic, thorotrast contrast + liver

A

Angiosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hepatocellular adenoma risk factors

A
  • ABC-Adenoma Birth Control (female)

- steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Focal nodular hyperplasia histology

A

normal hapatocytes and bile ducts (adenoma with no bile ducts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Diagnose FNH on CT

A

central scar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

FNH treatment

A

embolization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Kasabach-Merrit syndrome

A

Hemangioma and thrombocytopenia and fibrinogenipenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma

A

HepB, cirrhosis, aflatoxin (Aspergillus), hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hepatoculluar carcinoma signs/symptoms

A
  • Painful haepatomegaly
  • portal hypertension
  • splenomegaly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tests for hepatocullular carcinoma

A
  • US, CT, angiography, tumor marker (a-fetoprotein) elevation
  • tissue diagnosis = needle biopsy with CT scan, US, or lap guidance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

most common hepatocellular carcinoma metastasis site?

A

lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Bacterial abscess signs/symptoms

A

Fever, chills, RUQ pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

you tracking on Entomeaba histolyitca?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What lab tests should be performed when entomoeba histolytica is suspected?

A

Indirect hemagglutinin titers, elevated LFTs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

6 potential routes of portal-systemic collateral blood flow

A
  1. Umbilical vein
  2. Coronoary vein to esophageal venous plexuses
  3. Retroperitoneal veins
  4. Diaphragm veins
  5. Superior hemorrhoidal veins to middle and inferior hemorrhoidal veins and then to iliac vein
  6. Splenic veins to short gastric veins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

normal portal pressure?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What causes pre-hepatic portal hypertension?

A

Thrombosis of portal vein/atresia of portal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What causes hepatic portal hypertension?

A

Cirrhosis, cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Post hepatic portal hypertension?

A

Budd-chiari thrombosis of hepatic veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most common finding in patients with portal hypertension

A

Splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

4 most common clinical findings in portal hypertension

A
  1. esophageal varices
  2. splenomegaly
  3. Caput medusae
  4. hemorrhoids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Initial treatment of variceal bleeding

A
  • Large bore IVs x 2
  • Foley
  • type and cross blood
  • labs, correct coagulopathy (vitamin K, FFP)
  • Intubation to protect from aspiration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Diagnostic test of choice for variceal bleeding?

A

Upper GI endoscopy (EGD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pharmacologic options for esophageal variceal bleeding

A

-Somatostain (octreotide) or IV vasopressin (and nitroglycerin, to avoid MI) to achieve vasocinstriction of the mesenteric vessels. B-blocker if still bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where are most bile acids absorbed?

A

Terminal ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What stimulates gallbladder empyting?

A

Cholecystokinin and vagal input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Source of cholecystokinin

A

duodenal mucosal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What inhibits cholecystokinin?

A

Trypsin and chymotrypsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

level of jaundice for bili

A

> 2.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Dark urine/clay stool =

A

jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Biliary colic

A
  • Pain from gallstones
    1. RUQ, epigastrum, or right subscapular region of back.
    2. lasts minutes to hours, postprandial
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the initial diagnostic study of choice for evaluation of the biliary tract/gallbladder/ cholelithiasis?

A

Ultrasound!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cholelithiasis

A

Gallstone formation (Female, fat, forty, fertile)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Calcified gallbladder

A

Porcelain gallbladder, do cholecystectomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When would you do asymptomatic cholecystectomy?

A

Sickle-cell
calcified gallbladder
child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

choledocolithiasis management?

A
  1. ERCP with papillotomoy and basket/balloon retrieval of stones (pre- or post-op)
  2. Laparoscopic
  3. Open
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What meds can dissolve gallstone?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid (Actigall), Chenodeoxycholic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ERCP complication?

A

Pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cholecystitis is obstruciton of _________ duct

A

cystic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Signs/sympoms of cholcystitis

A

UNRELENTING RUQ pain or tenderness. Fever. N/V. Murphy’s sign.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Murphy’s sign of cholcystitis

A

Acute pain and inspiratory arrest during RUQ palpatoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

labs of cholecysitis

A

elevated amylase, t billi slightly. alk phos/.LFT elevatoin. WBC elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

US cholecystitis signs

A

Thickened wall >3mm. Fluid. Gallstones. Sonographic murphy’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Cholangitis

A

infection of biliary tract from obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Charcot’s triad of cholangitis

A
  1. Fever/chills
  2. RUQ pain
  3. Jaundice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Reynold’s pentad

A
  1. Fever/chills
  2. RUQ pain
  3. Jaundice
  4. altered mental status
  5. Shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Treatment of cholangitis

A

US and ocntrast (ERCP) after IV antibiotics cool them off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Major risk factor of sclerosing cholangitis?

A

Inflammatory bowel disease (usually ulcerative cholitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Beads on a string on gallbladder contrast

A

Sclerosing cholangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Gallstone ileus major risk factor

A

Women over 70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Diagnostic tests for gallstone ileus

A
  • ABD X-Ray
  • UGI
  • Abdominal CT: Air in biliary tract, gallstone in intestine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Gilbert’s =

A

Glucorynyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Pancreatitis symptoms

A

Epigastric pain (radiates to back), nausea and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Signs of pancreatitis

A

Epigastric tenderness, diffuse abdominal tenderness, decreased bowel sounds, fever, dehydration/shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Pancreatitis can cause gastric varices through

A

splenic vein necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Pancreatitis chronic work up

A

CT, KUB, ERCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Radiologic tests for gallstone pancreatitis

A

U/S to look for gallsotnes

CT to look at pancreas, if symptoms are severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Pancreatic cancer work up

A

US -> CT if US nondiagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Greatest risk factor for pancreatic head cancer

A

Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

WDHA syndrome

A

-Pancreatic VIPoma (Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide tumor) AKA Verner-Morrison syndrome
VIP causes:
Watery diarrhea
Hypokalemia
Achlorhydria (inhibits gastric acid secretion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Whipple triad of pancreatic insulinoma

A
  1. Hypoglycemia (Glc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Pancreatic somatostatinoma triad

A

Gallstones, diabetes, steatorrhea (inhibits gallbladder contraction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Pancreatic glucagonoma tumor findings

A

Diabetes, dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

CRH function

A

Corticotropin-releasing hormone: releassed form anterior hypothalaus and causes release of ACTH from anterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

ACTH

A

released normally by anterior pituitary, which causes adrenal gland to release cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What inhibits ACTH secretion?

A

Cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Most common cause of cushings

A

iatrogenic (exogenous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How can cortisol levels be indirectly measured over a short duration?

A

Urine cortisol or breakdown product of cortisol (17-OHCS) in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Direct test of cortisol

A

serum cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Initial tests for cushing’s?

A

Electrolytes, serum cortisol, urine-free cortisol, 17-OHCS, Low dose dexamethasone suppression test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test

A
  • Negative feedback on ACTH and thus cortisol on normal patients
  • Patient’s with Cushing’s syndrome DO NOT suppress cortisol secretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

After low-dose dexamethasone suppression test, what do you do?

A

Check ACTH

  • Low: adrenal tumor
  • High or normal: ACTH dependent process, do high-dose dexamethasone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

High dose dexamethasone suppressoin test

A

Suppression: Pituitary source

No suppression: Ectopic ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Most common sight of ectopic ACTH-producing tumor?

A

Oat cell tumor of lung (#2 is carcinoid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is a pheochromocytoma?

A

Tumor of the adrenal MEDULLA and sympathetic ganglion (from chromaffin cell lines) that produces catecholamines (noreipnephrine>epi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

PHEochromocyotma tria

A

Palps, Headache, Episodic diuresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What tests should be performed for pheochromocytoma?

A

VanillylMandelic Acid (VMA), metanephrine, normetanephrine (all breakdown products of catechols). Urine/serum epi, NE levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Most common site of pheochromocytoma?

A

adrenals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Tumor localization tests for pheo?

A

CT, MRI, I-MIBG, PET, Octreoscan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Pre-op med treatment for pheo?

A

incresae intravascular volume with a-blockade (phenoxybenzamine, prazosin) to allow reduction in catecholamine-induced vassoconstriction and resulting volume depletion, treatment should start as soon as diagnosis is made +/- b-blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What must be ruled out in patients with pheochromocytoma?

A

MEN type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

______ and _________ cause renin secretion from juxtaglomerular cells

A

Low sodium and hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the physiologic effect of aldosterone?

A

causes sodium retention for exchange of potassium in the kidney, resulting in fluid retention and increased BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Sings of hyperaldosteronism?

A

Hypertension, headache, polyuria, weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

clues of Conn’s syndrome?

A

Hypertension, hypernatremia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What commonly causes Conn’s syndrome?

A

Adrenal adenoma or hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Tests for Conn’s syndrome?

A

CT, adrenal venous sampling, saline infusion test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Preop treatment of Conn’s?

A

Spironolactone, k+ supps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

renin levels in patients with primary aldosteronism vs secondary

A

normal or low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Addison’s disease

A

Adrenal insufficiency with HYPERkalemia, hyponatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is an insulinoma?

A

Insulin-producing tumor arising from B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Risks associated with insulinoma

A

Men-I syndrome (PPP = pituitary, pancreas, parathyroid tumors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

signs/symptoms of insulinoma?

A

Sympathetic nervous system symptoms resulting from hypoglycemia
-palps, diaphoresis, tremulousness, irritability, weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Labs for insulinoma

A

Glucose/insulin during fast. C-peptide and proinsulin (if injection of insulin is concern, as insulin injections have no proinsulin or C-peptide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Diagnostic tests for insulinoma

A
  • fasting hypoglycemia present. 72 hour fast, then check glucose and insulin every 2 hrs.
  • CT, A-gram, endoscopic US
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is treatment of insulinoma?

A

Diazoxide, suppresses insulin release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Where is a glucagonoma located?

A

Tail of pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Symtpoms of glucagonoma?

A

Necrotizing migratory erythema (below waist), diabetes, stomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is necrotizing migratory erythema?

A

red, often psoriatic appearing rash with serpiginous borders over the trunk and limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Lab findings for glucagonoma

A

hpergylcemia, high glucagon, low amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Classic glucagonoma finding on CBC

A

anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Stimulation test for glucagonoma?

A

tolbutamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Imaging for glucagonoma?

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Med treatment for necrotizing migratory erythema?

A

somatostatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Somatostatinoma

A

Pancreatic tumor that secretes somatostatin: diabetes, diarrhea, dilation of gallbladder. Dx with CT. Medical treatment streptozocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

Gastrinoma: non-B islet cell tumor of the pancreas (or other locale) that produces gastrin, causing gastric hypersecretion of HCl acid, resulting in GI ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Syndrome associated with ZES

A

MEN-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

With ZES, how do yo uscreen for MEN 1?

A

Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

how can a ZES tumor be localized?

A

octreotide scan, CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What tests are used to evaluate ulcers?

A

EGD, UGI, or both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

High yield screening labs for MEN-1?

A
  1. calcium
  2. PTH
  3. Gastrin
  4. Prolactin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Medical treatment of ZES

A

H2 blockers, omeprazole, somatostatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What studies can be used to evaluate a thyroid nodule?

A

U/S - solid or systic nodule

FNA ->cytology I sciniscan - hot or cold nodule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Diagnostic test of choice for thyroid nodule?

A

FNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Indications for I scintiscan on thyoid nodule?

A

multiple nondiagnostic FNAs

Nodule with thyrotoxicosis and low TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

MEN is inherited in what patter?

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Men I Werner’s syndrome gene defect?

A

Chromosome 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

MEN I tumors

A

“PPP”- PA, PA, PI
Parathyroid hyperplasia
Pancreatic islet cell tumors (gastrinoma 50% insulinoma 20%)
Pituitary tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What other tumors (in addition to PPP) are associated with MEN-1?

A

Adrenal (30%) and thyroid (15%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is the gene defect in MEN !!A Sipple’s syndrome?

A

RET (reT=Two)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Most common MEN IIA tumors?

A

2 = 2 MPH or miles per hour
Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Pheochromocytoma (mPH)
Hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

All patients with MEN IIA have _________

A

medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Screening tests for MEN IIA?

A
  1. Calcitonin
  2. Calcium
  3. PTH
  4. Catecholamines and metabolites (metanephrine and normetanephrine)
  5. RET gene testing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are most common abnormalities in MEN IIB?

A

“MMMP”

  • Mucosal neuromas (100%) - in the nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, and conjunctiva
  • Medullary thryoid carcinoma (85%) more aggressive than MEN IIa
  • Marfinoid body habitus (IIB = TO BE marfanoid)
  • Pheochromocytoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Physical findings/signs of MEN IIB?

A

Mucosal neuromas
Marfanoid body habitus
Pes cavus/planum (large arch of foot/flatfooted)
Constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Most common GI complaint of MEN IIB?

A

Constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Major difference between MEN IIA/IIB?

A

MEN-IIA has parathyroid hyperplasia. MEN IIB has NO parathyroid hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Thryoid blood supply?

A
  1. Superior thyroid artery from external carotid

2. Inferior thyroid artery (branch of thyrocervical trunk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What paired nerves must be identified during thyroidectomy?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerves behind cricothyroid. Hoarseness if unilateral, airway obstruciton if bilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Superior laryngeal nerve cut?

A

Deeper and quieter voice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What is TRH?

A

Throtropin releasing hormone released from hypothalamus, causes release of TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

TSH released by

A

Anterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Most active form of thyroid hormone?

A

T3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Most common conversion site from T3 to T4?

A

Liver

137
Q

Parafollicular cells secrete

A

Calcitonin

138
Q

What studies are used to evaluate a thyroid nodule?

A

US-solid or cystic
FNA ->cytology
I scintiscan-hot or cold nodule

139
Q

Diagnostic test of choice for thyroid nodule?

A

FNA

140
Q

5 types of thyroid carcinoma?

A
  1. Papillary - 80%
  2. Follicular - 10%
  3. Medullary - 5%
  4. Hurthle cell - 4%
  5. Anaplastic/undifferentiated carcinoma - 1-2%
141
Q

What oncogenes are associated with thyroid cancer?

A

Ras gene family and RET proto oncogene

142
Q

Papillary hiostologic findiing?

A

psommoma

143
Q

Most common site of papillary adenocarcinoma metastasis?

A

Lung

144
Q

Ps of papillary thryoid cancer

A 
Popular (80%)
Psammoma bodies
Palpable lymph nodes
Positive I131 uptake
Positive prognosis
Postoperative I scan to find and treat metastasis
Pulmonary metastasis
145
Q

Follicular carcinoma consistency

A

rubbery, encapsulated

146
Q

Route of spread of follicular?

A

Hematogenous

147
Q

4 Fs of follicular cancer of thyroid?

A

Far-away metastasis (spreads hematogenously)
Female (3 to 1)
FNA…NOT
Favorable prognosis

148
Q

Hurthle cell tumor cell of origin

A

follicular cells

149
Q

Diagnosis of hurthle?

A

FNA, then tissue histology

150
Q

Hurthle metastasis?

A

lymphatic

151
Q

Medullary thyroid carcinoma histology?

A

Amyloid (aMyloid)

152
Q

What does a medullary thyroid carcinoma secrete?

A

Calcitonin (tumor marker)

153
Q

Appropriate stimulation test for medullary thyroid carcinoma?

A

Pentagastrin

154
Q

Diagnosis of medullary thyroid?

A

FNA

155
Q

Ms of medullary thyroid

A 
MEN II
aMyloid
Median lymph node dissection
Modified neck dissection if lateral nodes are positive
Mutation of RET proto-oncogene
Miserable I uptake
156
Q

histologic findings of anaplastic carcinoma?

A

Giant cells, spindle cells

157
Q

Diagnosis of anaplastic thyroid carcinoma?

A

FNA

158
Q

What labs must be followed after thyroidectomy?

A

Calcium

159
Q

PTU mech cs methimazole

A

PTU: inhibits iodione incorporation into t4/T4 AND inhibits peripheral conversion.
Methimazole: Just inhibits iodine incorporation (blocks peroxidase oxidation)

160
Q

What medication may bring on hyperthyroidism with multinodular goiter?

A

Amiodarone (contains iodine)

161
Q

Thyroiditis bacteria

A

Strep and staph

162
Q

What are the features of hashimotos thyroiditis?

A

Firm and rubbery gland

163
Q

What lab tests confirm Hashimotos?

A

Antithyroglobulin and microsomal antibodies

164
Q

What type of cell produces parathyroid hormone?

A

Chief cells

165
Q

How does PTH increase blood calcium levels?

A 
Bone breakdown
GI absorption
increased resorption from kidney
excretion of phsophate by kidney
ALSO decreases serum phsophate
166
Q

What does vitamin D do?

A

Increases intestinal absoroptoin of calcium and phosphate

167
Q

Where is calcium absorbed?

A

Duodenum and jejeunum

168
Q

Primary Hyperparathyroidism

A

Increased PTH secretion. High calcium, low phsophorus

169
Q

Secondary Hyperparathyroidism

A

Calcium wasting from renal failure or decreased GI calcium absorption causes increased PTH. Low calcium. Rickets or osteomalacia

170
Q

Tertiary Hyperparathyroidism

A

Persistent Hyperparathyroidism after correction of secondary Hyperparathyroidism. results from autonomous PTH secretion not responsive to normal negative feedback due to elevated calcium levels.

171
Q

33 to 1 rule

A

Patients with primary Hyperparathyroidism have ratio of serum CL- to phophate >33

172
Q

X-ray findings of Hyperparathyroidism?

A

Subperiosteal bone resorption (usually in hand/digits)

173
Q

How is primary Hyperparathyroidism diagnosed?

A

Labs-elevated PTH (hypercalcemia, decrease dphsophorus, increased Cl-); urine calcium should be checked for familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia

174
Q

What is familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia?

A

aysmptomatic hypercalcemia and low urine calciu.

175
Q

Differential diagnosis of hypercalcemia?

A 
CHIMPANZEES
Calcium overdose
Hyperparathyroidism (1,2,3)
Hyperthyroidism, Hypocalciuric hypercalcemia
Immobility/iatrogenic (thiazide)
Metastasis/milk alkali syndrome
Paget's disease (bone)
Addison's disease/acromegaly
Neoplasm (colon, lung, breast, myeloma)
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Excess Vitamin D
Exces vitamin A
Sarcoid
176
Q

Initial treatment of hypercalcemia?

A

Medical-IV fluids, furosemide NOT thiazide diuretics

177
Q

What carcinomas are associated with hypercalcemia?

A

BREAST, prostate, kidney, lung, pancreas, myeloma

178
Q

Palpable neck mass, hypercalcemia, elevated PTH =????

A

Parathyroid carcinoma

179
Q

Most common tumor marker of parathyroid carcinoma?

A

HCG

180
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis patient characteristics

A

Type I diabetic and younger age

181
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosiss Symptoms

A

Less pronounced altered mentation
More rapid onset of hyperglycemic symptoms
Hyperventilation and abdominal pain common

182
Q

DKA labs

A

Glucose 250-500

Bicarb

183
Q

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state patient characteristics

A

TII DM

Older

184
Q

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state clinical symptoms

A

More pronounced altered mentation
Gradual onset of hyperglycemic symptoms
Hyperventilation and abd pain less common

185
Q

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state labs

A 
Glucose >600
Bicarb >18
Normal anion gap
Negative or small serum ketones
Serum osmolality >320
186
Q

After 2 elevated calcium levels are seen in asymptomatic patients, what is the next test?

A

PTH

187
Q

Effects of excess thyroid hormone on bone

A 
Increased osteoclast activity, so....
increase bone resorption
decreased bone density
Increased fracture risk
LEADS TO...
Hypercalcemia, decreased PTH secretion, decreased vitmain D conversion so decreased renal calcium absorption, leading to hypercalciuria and net calcium wasting.
188
Q

Increased extracellular pH does what to calcium?

A

Increased pH (like alkalosis from hyperventilation in PE) causes H+ to dissacociate from albumin, allowing it to bind calcium. This mimicks hypocalcemia because it decreases ionized calcium.

189
Q

Hashimoto’s thyoiditis increases risk of what?

A

Thyroid lymphoma

190
Q

Thyroid storm symptoms

A
  • Fever as high as 40-41 C or 104-106 F
  • Tachycardia, hypertension, congestive heart failure, cardiac arrhythmias (A fib)
  • agitation, delirium, seizure, coma
  • Goiter, lid lag, tremor, warm and moist skin
  • Nausea, vomitting, diarrhea, jaundice
191
Q

Thyroid storm treatment?

A
  • Beta blockers (propanolol) to decrease adrenergic manifestations
  • PTU followe dby iodine SSKI
  • Glucocorticoids
192
Q

Manboob testicle exam looking for ….?

A

Leydig cell tumor

193
Q

Increased renin and increased aldosterone indicates ____ hyperaldosteronism?

A

Secondary

194
Q

Decreased renin and increased aldosterone indicates ________ hyperaldosteronism

A

Primary

195
Q

Decreased renin and decreased aldosterone indicates ______

A

non-aldosterone causes like congenital adrenal hyperplasia, cushing, exogenous

196
Q

DKA management

A
  1. 0.9% saline (NS)
  2. Correct hyperglyemia with IV regular insulin
  3. Pottassium correction
  4. Treat precipitating factors like infections with antibiotics
197
Q

Initial diagnosis of DKA?

A

Fingerstick blood glucose

198
Q

Which MEN involves gastrin producing tumor?

A

1 (because of ZE syndrome)

199
Q

Silent thyroiditis has ________ iodine uptake

A

Low

200
Q

Silent thyroiditis has postive TPO like hashimotos but causes hyperthyroidism. . What type of goiter does it cause?

A

small, nontender

201
Q

DeQuervain’s thyroiditis

A

Elevated ESR and c-reactive protein, low radioiodine uptake. Likely form inflammatory process. Painful/tender goiter.

202
Q

pancreatic body and tail tumors present with chronic pancreatitis and should be visualized with ____

A

CT w/ contrast

203
Q

Trauma work up: severe blunt trauma. What happens in ER initially?

A
  • ABCDE, IVx2 , type and cross, OGT/NGT, foley, chest tube PRN.
  • X-rays: CXR, pelvic, femur (if femur fracture suspected)
204
Q

Trauma work up: severe blunt trauma. What happens after ER management?

A
  • Normal vital signs: Chest CT, C-spine/head CT, ABD/Pelvic CT, extremity films PRN
  • Hypotension: FAST exam. + leads to OR ex lap. - leads to DPL (diagnositc peritoneal lavage).
  • CT after all this
205
Q

Upper GI bleeding is proximal to what?

A

Ligament of treitz

206
Q

Coffee ground emesis is seen in what type of bleed?

A

Upper GI

207
Q

Most common cause of significant UGI bleeding?

A

PUD (duodenal and gastric 50%)

208
Q

Differential of UGI bleed

A

ADEGEM

  1. Acute gastritis
  2. Duodenal ulcer
  3. Esophageal varices
  4. Gastric ulcer
  5. Esophageal
  6. Mallory-Weiss tear
209
Q

Diagnostic test of choice with UGI bleeding?

A

EGD

210
Q

Labs for UGI bleed?

A

Chem-7, bili, LFTs, CBC, TYPE AND CROSS, PT/PTT, amylase

211
Q

Why is BUN elevated in UGI bleed?

A

Because of absorption of blood by GI tract

212
Q

Initial treatment of UGI bleed

A
  1. IVFs, Foley
  2. NGT suction
  3. Water lavage (removes clots)
  4. EGD: endoscopy (determine locaiton, coagulate bleeders)
213
Q

What do you use when EGD fails to diagnose cause of UGI bleed and blood continues per NGT?

A

Selective mesenteric angiography

214
Q

Treatment of PUD with H. pylori?

A

MOC or ACO
Metronidazole, omeprazole, clarithromycin
Ampicillin, clarithromycin, omeprazole

215
Q

What is the duodenal ulcer classic response to food intake?

A

relieves pain

216
Q

What syndrome must you always think of with duodenal ulcer?

A

ZES

217
Q

What artery is involved with bleeding duodenal ulcers?

A

Gastroduodenal artery

218
Q

Gastric ulcer age group

A

40-70

219
Q

What is gastric ulcer response to food?

A

increases pain

220
Q

What do you rule out with biopsy on EGD with gastric ulcer?

A

cancer

221
Q

What diagnostic tests are indicated for perforated peptic ulcer?

A

X-ray, Free air under diaphragm. Labs show leukocytosis, high amylase

222
Q

Initial treatment of perforated peptic ulcer?

A

NPO; NGT.
IVF/Foley
ABs/PPIs
Surgery

223
Q

What is a Mallory-Weiss tear?

A

Postwretching, post-emesis longitudinal tear (submucosa and mucosa) of stomach near GE junction.

224
Q

What causes mallory-Weiss-tear?

A

Increased gastric pressure, often aggravated by hiatal hernia.

225
Q

Risk factors for mallory-weiss tear?

A

Alcoholism, retching, hiatal hernia

226
Q

How is mallory weiss tear diagnosed?

A

EGD

227
Q

Classic mallory weiss history

A

Alcoholic patient after binge drinking- first, vomit food and gastric contents, followed by forceful retching and bloody vomitus

228
Q

Treatment for mallory-weiss tear?

A

Room temp water lavage, electrocautery, arterial embolizaiton, surgery

229
Q

How are esophageal varcies diagnosed?

A

EGD

230
Q

Acute medical treatment of variceal bleeding?

A

Lower portal pressure with somatostatin and vassopressin. Nitroglycerin prevents coronary artery vasoconstriction that may result in an MI.

231
Q

What is boerhaave’s syndrome?

A

Postemetic esophageal rupture

232
Q

What causes boerhaave’s syndrome?

A

Increased intraluminal pressure, usually caused by violent retching and vomitting.

233
Q

boerhaave’s syndrome risk factor

A

GERD

234
Q

boerhaave’s syndrome symptoms

A

pain postemesis (radiates to back, dysphagia)

235
Q

Mackler’s triad

A

indicates boerhaave’s syndrome

  1. emesis
  2. Lower chest pain
  3. Cervical emphysema (subQ air)
236
Q

How is boerhaave’s syndrome diagnosed?

A

H&P, CXR, esophogram with water soluble contrast

237
Q

boerhaave’s syndrome treatment

A

surgery within 24 hrs to drain mediastinum

238
Q

What tests are used for GERD?

A

EGD
UGI contrast study with esophogram
24-hour acid analysis (pH probe in esophagus)
Manometry, EKG, CXR

239
Q

What does the terminal ileum absorb?

A

B12, fatty acids, bile salts

240
Q

What are the classic electrolyte/acid-base findings with proximal obstruction?

A

Hypovolemic, hypochloremic, hypokalemia, alkalosis

241
Q

What is the initial management of all patients with SBO?

A

NPO, NGT, IVF, Foley

242
Q

What tests can differentiate partial from complete bowel obstruction?

A

CT with oral contrast, small bowel follow through

243
Q

Most common causes of SBO

A

ABC

  1. Adhesions
  2. Bulge (hernia)
  3. Cancer and tumor
244
Q

Causes of SBO

A 
GIVES BAD CRAMPS
Gallstone ileus at ileocecal valve
Intussusception
Volvulus
External compression
SMA syndrome
Bezoars, Bowel wall hematoma
Abscess
diverticulitis
Crohn's
Radiation enteritis
Annular pancreas
Meckel
Peritoneal adhesions
Stricture
245
Q

What lesion is associated with metastasis to the small bowel?

A

Melanoma

246
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of malignant tumors of the small intestine?

A
  1. Adenocarcinoma (50%)
  2. Carcinoid (25%)
  3. Lymphoma (20%)
  4. sarcomas (5%)
247
Q

Work up for small bowel tumor?

A

UGI with small bowel follow through, CT, enteroscopy

248
Q

What is a Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

remnant of omphalmesenteric duct/vitelline duct, which connects yolk sac with primitive midgut in embryo

249
Q

When does Meckel’s diverticulum usually occur?

A

First 2 years of life (rule of 2’s)

250
Q

How can a Meckel’s diverticulum cause bleeding?

A

Ectopic gastric mucosa ->ulcer->bleeding

251
Q

What heterotopic tissue type is most often found in Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

Gatric mucosa, but duodenal, pancreatic, and colonic mucosa are also found

252
Q

How to you scan for Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

Scan for extopic gastric mucosa in Meckel’s diverticulum; use technetium pertechnate IV, which is preferentially taken up by gastric mucosa

253
Q

In patient’s with guiac-positive stools and a negative upper-and-lower GI workup, what must be ruled out?

A

Small bowel tumor, evaluate with enteroclysis (small bowel contrast study)

254
Q

What are the symptoms of carcinoid syndrome?

A 
B FDR
Bronchopasm
Flushing
Diarrhea
right-sided heart failure (from valve failure)
255
Q

What causes pellagra in carcinoid patients?

A

Decreased niacin production

256
Q

Medical treatment for carcinoid syndrome?

A

Octreotide IV to block serotonin.

Ondansetron for diarrhea alone (serotonin antagonist)

257
Q

What does liver breakdown turn serotonin in carcinoid syndrome into?

A

5-HIAA (50% of patients will have elevated levels)

5 CAR HI pile up

258
Q

What are associated lab findings for carcinoid syndrome

A

Elevated urine 5-HIAA (5-hydroxy indolacetic acid) as well as elevated urine and blood serotonin levels (take 24 hour test)

259
Q

What stimulation test can often elevate serotonin levels and cause symptoms of carcinoid?

A

Pentagastrin stimulation test

260
Q

What are the specialty radiologic (scintography) tests to localize carcinoid?

A

I-MIBG (M—guan)
In-octreotide
PET-scan utilizing C labeled HTP

261
Q

What lab tests are used to monitor nutritional status?

A
  • Prealbumin (acute changes
  • Transferrin
  • Albumin
  • Retinol binding protein
262
Q

Where is iron absorbed?

A

Duodenum

263
Q

Where is vitamin B12 absorbed?

A

Terminal ileus

264
Q

Where are bile salts absorbed?

A

Terminal ileum

265
Q

Where are fat-soluble vitamins absorbed?

A

Terminal ileum

266
Q

What are the signs of vitamin A deficiency?

A

Poor wound healing, night blindness (retinA)

267
Q

VitaminB12/folate deficiency signs?

A

Megaloblastic anemia

268
Q

Vitamin C deficiency signs?

A

Poor wound healing, bleeding gums

269
Q

Vitamin K deficiency signs?

A

Decreasing in vitamin K dependent clotting factors (2,7,9,10, c,s), bleeding, elevated PT

270
Q

Chromium deficiency causes ____

A

diabetic state

271
Q

Zinc deficiency causes what?

A

Poor wound healing, alopecia, dermatitis, taste disorder

272
Q

What does fatty acid deficiency cause?

A

Dry, flaky skin, alopecia

273
Q

What is the major nutrient of the mall bowel?

A

Glutamine

274
Q

What is “refeeding syndrome”?

A

Decreased serum K+, Mg, and phosphate after refeeding (vi TPN or enterally) a starving patient

275
Q

What is the major nutrient of the colon?

A

Butyrate

276
Q

What does intrinsic factor bind to?

A

B12

277
Q

5 different types of shock

A 
hypovolemic
septic
cardiogenic
neurogenic
anaphylactic
278
Q

What is the best way to determine the caloric requirements of a patient on a ventilator?

A

metabolic chart: resting energy expendicture by measuring O2 intake and CO2 output by calorimetry

279
Q

Signs of shock

A

Tachycardia, hypotension, acidosis, poor urine output, pale diaphoretic skin

280
Q

What lab test helps asses tissue perfusion?

A

lactic acid, base deficit, pH from ABG

281
Q

What type of shock can pancreatitis cause?

A

hypovolemic

282
Q

What is a class I hemorrhage?

A

-

283
Q

What is a class II hemorrhage?

A

15-30% or 750-1500 cc blood loss leading to normal systolic BP with decreased pulse pressure, tachycardia, tachypnea, anxiety

284
Q

What is a class III hemorrhage?

A

30-40% or 1500-2000 cc blood loss leading to decreased systolic BP, tachycardia (>120), tachypnea (>30), confusion

285
Q

What is a class IV hemorrhage?

A

(>40% or >2,000 cc blood loss leading to Decreased systolic BP, tachycardia (heart rate >140), tachypnea (>35), confused and lethargic, no urine output

286
Q

hypovolemic Shock treatment?

A

1 . stop bleeding

2. volume: IVF (isotonic LR) then blood products

287
Q

management of hyperkalemia

A

C BIG K DROP

  • Calcium gluconate (cardiac stabilizer)
  • Beta agonists (salbutamol nebulized or inhaled or bicarb cause temporary intracellular shift)
  • Insulin
  • Glucose: D5OW with insulin.
  • Kayeaxelate: sodium polystyrene sulfonate (not in acute)
  • Dialysis
288
Q

If someone has a surgery and afterwards UA shows white blood cell castes, what is the most likely explanaiton?

A

They already had pylonephritis beforet he surgery

289
Q

What are the 5 Ws of post-op fever in order?

A
  1. Wonder drugs
  2. Wind
  3. Water
  4. Walking
  5. wound
290
Q

What is likely happening when patient spikes a fever during surgery?

A

Malignant hyperthermia

291
Q

What is Tx for malignant hyperthermia?

A

O2
Dantrolene
IV fluids
follow up with UA for myoglobinuria

292
Q

What is prophylactic measures for malignant hyperthermia

A

fam Hx

293
Q

What is the likely cause of fever when a patient gets a fever right after surgery?

A

Bacteremia

294
Q

What is the likely cause of fever when a patient gets a feveron POD#1?

A

Atelectasis

295
Q

What is the likely cause of fever when a patient gets a fever on POD#2?

A

Pneumonia

296
Q

What is the likely cause of fever when a patient gets a fever on POD 3?

A

UTI

297
Q

What is the likely cause of fever when a patient gets a fever on POD 5?

A

DVT/PE

298
Q

What is the likely cause of fever when a patient gets a fever on POD 7?

A

Wound (cellulitis)

299
Q

What is the likely cause of fever when a patient gets a fever on POD 10-14?

A

Wound (abscess)

300
Q

What is diagnosis for post-op bactermia?

A

Blood culture

301
Q

What is diagnosis for atelectasis?

A

CXR (- for pneumonia)

302
Q

What is diagnosis for pneumonia?

A

+ CXR

303
Q

What is diagnosis for UTI?

A

UA

UC

304
Q

What is diagnosis for post-op PE/DVT?

A

U/S of bilateral extremities

305
Q

What is diagnosis for post op wound (cellulitis)?

A

U/S negative for abscess

306
Q

What is post-op diagnosis for abscess?

A

CT

307
Q

What is Tx for Post-op bacteremia?

A

Borad Abx

308
Q

What is Tx for Post-op Pneumonia?

A

Broad Abx

309
Q

What is treatment for post-op UTI?

A

Abx

310
Q

What is Tx for Post-op DVT/PE?

A

U/S Heparin then warfarin

311
Q

PPx for DVT?

A

Ambulation, heparin

312
Q

What is treatment for wound (cellulitis) after surgeries?

A

Abx

313
Q

What is treatment for abscess after surgery?

A

I&D, Abx

314
Q

What is diagnosis for abscess after surgery?

A

CT

315
Q

The diagnostic test of choice for blunt head trauma is always _____

A

CT

316
Q

A patient has racoon eyes, battle signs (postauricular eccymosis), or oto/rhinorrhea (clear CSF), what do they have?

A

Fracture of basilar skull

317
Q

How do you evaluate basilar skull fracture?

A

CT!

318
Q

Acute epidural hematoma is classically caused by __________

A

trauma to side of head

319
Q

Acute epidural hematoma shears what?

A

Middle meningeal artery

320
Q

History of epidural hematoma

A

Loss of consciousness followed by lucid interval with decreasing mental function to coma. “Walk, talk, then die”

321
Q

PE findings for epidural hematoma

A

-ipsilateral fixed dilated pupil and contralateral hemiparesis (caused by herniatian of uncus)

322
Q

Diagnosis of epidural hematoma?

A

CT

323
Q

Tx for epidural hematoma

A

Craniotomy

324
Q

MVA, shaken baby in a young person = ___________

A

subdural hematoma

325
Q

subdural hematoma history

A

Loss of consciousness WITHOUT lucid interval following major trauma

326
Q

subdural hematoma TX

A

craniotomy, or decrease ICP with elevation, hyperventilation, and mannitol if there is no middling shaft.

327
Q

subdural hematoma CT findings

A

Cresecent hematoma

328
Q

Which patients are at risk for minor trauma that causes sharing of veins that cause slowly evolving subdural hematoma?

A

Elderly, demented, alcholic

329
Q

What is history of patient with chronic subdural hematoma?

A

Gradually deteriorating mental function appearing as dementia, often with headache. CT wit hcrescent hematoma. Evacuation reverses effects.

330
Q

What injury to the head can occur in angular trauma, such as spinning car suck on an angle?

A

Axon fibers can shear, causing blurring of grey/white matter thats seen best on MRI

331
Q

Whats imaging modality for diffuse axonal injury?

A

MRI

332
Q

What should be monitored in diffuse axonal injury?

A

ICP

333
Q

What is indicated by a loss of consciousness followed by retrograde amnesia?

A

Concussion

334
Q

Imaging for concussion

A

CT

335
Q

Concussion treatment?

A

Cognitive and physical rest. Gradually ramp up activity.

336
Q

Vitamin D deficiency causes?

A

Hypocalcemia, osteoporosis

337
Q

Vitamin E deficiency causes?

A

Nystagmus

338
Q

Protein deficiency causes?

A

Weight loss and edema

339
Q

Calcium deficiency causes?

A

osteoporosis

General Surgery (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions