Surgical questions 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How do you give a fluid challenge?

A

500ml IV normal saline over 30 minutes - if worried about cardiac failure, try 250ml.
Monitor HR, BP, urine output and mental state for response and check for pulmonary oedema. If vital signs still abnormal but no pulmonary oedema, repeat fluid challenge.
If still unstable, may need a CVP line and senior help.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the minimum obligatory volume of urine produced for a normal patient?

A

0.5ml/kg/hr. If less urine than this is produced, the patient is oliguric.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a standard maintenance fluid replacement regime?

A

1L normal saline and 2L of 5% dextrose, with 20mM potassium to each 1L bag. Each bag should run over 8 hours, lasting the whole day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the daily maintenance fluid requirements for a 70 kg man.

A

Water 1.5ml/kg/hour - roughly 2.5L/day (1.5L/day urine, 200ml/day faeces and 800ml/day insensible losses)
Na 2mmol/L - 140mmol
K 1mmol/L - 70mmol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do you work out insensible losses?

A

Insensible losses from the skin and respiratory system roughly 800ml/day.

Increase by 20% for each degree rise in temperature (roughly an extra 500ml)
Burns patients will need extra fluids and this can be calculated using the Parkland formula: Fluids (ml) - 4 x weight (kg) x % surface area burnt
Stoma patients - the only way to calculate how much excess fluid is being lost is by measuring and recording how much fluid a stoma drains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a laparostomy and when is it indicated?

A

Laparostomy = leaving the abdomen open

Indications: if there has been extensive tissue loss such that it is impossible to close the abdomen; abdominal compartment syndrome - when fluid in the peritoneal and retroperitoneal space accumulates>abdominal wall compliance threshold, reducing venous return and eventually causing ischaemia (can occur due to capillary permeability in SIRS in a critically ill patient).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the borders of the inguinal canal?

A

Posterior: transversalis fascia and conjoint tendon
Roof: arching fibres of internal oblique and transversus abdominis
Anterior: skin, superficial fascia, external oblique aponeurosis and the internal oblique for the lateral third
Floor: inguinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the boundaries of the femoral canal?

A

Anterior: inguinal ligament
Posterior: pectineal ligament and pectineus
Medial: lacunar ligament
Lateral: femoral vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the potential complications of a surgical hernia repair?

A

General: haemorrhage, infection, thromboembolism, anaesthetic complications, death

Specific: hernia recurrence, ischaemic orchitis/testicular atrophy, bruising of scrotum and penis, cutaneous anaesthesia or hyperaethesia (but note that there is considerable overlap in the cutaneous areas supplied by the iliohypogastric, ilioinguinal and genitofemoral nerves)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle and what is its significance?

A

Whether an inguinal hernia is direct or indirect is defined according to its relationship with Hesselbach’s triangles. The boundaries are as follows:

  • Medially: rectus sheath
  • Inferiorly: inguinal ligament
  • Superiorly: inferior epigastric artery

An inguinal hernia that arises within Hesselbach’s triangle is direct, whereas indirect hernias arise lateral to the inferior epigastric artery and thus lateral to the triangle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the contents of the inguinal canal?

A

Think of structures arising in sets of 3.
Three layers of fascia: external spermatic fascia (from external oblique aponeurosis), cremasteric fascia (from internal oblique aponeurosis), internal spermatic fascia (from transversalis fascia).
Three arteries: gonadal, cremasteric, artery of the vas
Three veins: testicular, cremasteric, vein of the vas
Three nerves: ilioinguinal nerve, sympathetic supply from T10 and 11, genital branch of the genitoinguinal nerve
Three other things: vas deferens, lymphatics, patent processus vaginalis (if present)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What must you always do with any patient who is receiving IV fluids of any sort?

A

If a patient is receiving IV fluids, you must always document fluid input and output and always reassess the patient clinically and biochemically for fluid status and electrolytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the neuroanatomical basis for the shifting location of the pain in appendicitis?

A

There are two pain sensation systems in the abdomen - the splanchnic system, which only senses stretch and spasm, and the cerebrospinal pathway. The embryonic gut arises as a midline organ and its splanchnic innervation is bilateral, thus visceral pain is felt in the midline. The splanchnic nerves carrying this information synapse on neurons which also receive inputs from the anterior abdominal wall. The appendix, being an embryological midgut organ, is innervated by the lesser splanchnic nerve (T10 and T11) and thus pain is felt around the umbilicus.

As the inflammation extends to involve the parietal peritoneum, the pain signals are carried in somatic nerves and inflammation can be localised to the actual site of the appendix, usually in the RIF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which two incisions are commonly used for appendicectomy?

A

The classic approach was the gridiron incision, made perpendicular to the imaginary line between the umbilicus and ASIS and centred over McBurney’s point. This is rarely performed now. The Lanz incision is placed slightly lower in the RIF, starting 2cm medial to the ASIS and follows a horizontal course, following a skin crease.

The laparoscopic approach is now becoming more common place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

At the time of the operation, in the presence of a normal appendix, the surgeon also inspects the distal two feet of the terminal ileum. Why?

A

One of the differential diagnoses of appendicitis is an inflamed Meckel’s diverticulum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the characteristics of a Meckel’s diverticulum.

A

It is the remnant of the vitelline duct, and is said to follow the rule of 2s. It occurs in 2% of the population, may contain two types of ectopic cells (pancreatic and gastric), is typically situated within 2 feet of the ileocaecal valve, is about 2 inches long and is usually symptomatic by 2 years.

17
Q

If a patient is clinically jaundiced, how high will his bilirubin levels be at a minimum?

A

Jaundice is due to the accumulation of bilirubin above its normal range of 3-17microM. For jaundice to be visible to the naked eye, serum bilirubin levels mus be >40.

18
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for dysphagia?

A

Intraluminal - foreign body, polypoid tumours, oesophageal inflammation, oesophageal infection e.g. candida
Intramural - benign strictures, malignant strictures, achalasia, oesophageal web, diffuse oesophageal stricture, scleroderma
Extramural - oesophageal pouch, malignancy, rolling hiatus hernia, retrosternal goitre, vascular structures e.g. thoracic aortic aneurysm
Systemic - MG, MS, PD, pseudobulbar palsy, psychological

19
Q

What are the risk factors for gastric cancer?

A
H. pylori
Smoking
Blood group A
Diet - nitrate and salt-containing food
Pernicious anaemia
Previous gastric surgery
A few cases of familial gastric cancer with mutations in E-cadherin expression
20
Q

What are the signs of gastric cancer on examination?

A

Epigastric mass
Succussion splash (caused by obstructing antral tumour)
Ascites
Hepatomegaly
Virchow’s node/Troisier sign
Acathosis nigricans
Pelvic deposits may be felt on rectal examination

21
Q

What are the treatment options for gastric cancer?

A

Surgery - can be curative or palliative. Palliative - bypass or resections for obstructing and bleeding tumours. Curative - gastrectomy or subtotal gastrectomy. A roux-en-Y is usually performed to prevent bile reflux.

Chemotherapy - predominantly palliative

Endoscopic and medical palliation - stenting, PPI, argon plasma coagulation (a method to achieve tissue destruction and haemostasis)

Radiotherapy is of no value

22
Q

How does gastric cancer spread?

A
Within walls of organ - linitis plastica
Local spread to adjacent structures
Lymphatic spread
Transcoelomic spread
Blood
23
Q

What is a GIST?

A

Mesenchymal tumour of the GI tract arising within the bowel wall. They are divided into 3 groups:

  • Leiomyomas and Leiomyosarcomas
  • Neurofibromas
  • GIST - positive for CD34 and CD117 (c-kit) and originate from the interstitial cells of Cajal, the pacemaker cells of the GI tract.
24
Q

What is the management of a GIST?

A

Surgical resection

Imatinib and other tyrosine kinase inhibitors.

25
Q

How do you diagnose achalasia?

A

Barium swallow - bird’s beak

Oesophageal manometry provides manometric confirmation of a non-relaxing sphincter

26
Q

How is achalasia treated?

A

Endoscopic dilatation of lower oesophageal sphincter

Heller’s procedure - cardiomyotomy

27
Q

What are the possible presentations of peptic ulcers?

A
Pain
Bleeding
Penetration into adjacent structures
Perforation (usually an anterior duodenal or gastric ulcer)
Obstruction
28
Q

What are the differentials for upper GI bleeding?

A
Duodenal ulcer
Gastric ulcer
Acute erosions/gastritis
Mallory-Weiss tear
Oesophageal varices
Oesophagitis
Cancer of the stomach or oesophagus
29
Q

How do you manage someone presenting with an acute UGI bleed?

A

Full history and examination - signs of shock and stigmata of liver disease
IV cannulae (14G) for fluid resuscitation
Bloods - cross match 4 units, FBC, urea, clotting
ECG - for ischaemia
Catheter and careful fluid balance
Correction of coagulopathies
NBM until OGD
Depending on severity, further invasive monitor e.g. central venous catheterisation may be necessary

30
Q

What are the possible endoscopic interventions for UGI bleeding?

A
Adrenaline injection
Thermal coagulation
Fibrin glue
Laser ablation
Endoclips
31
Q

When is surgical intervention indicated for UGI bleeding?

A

Failure to stop bleeding endoscopically
Rebleeding during current hospital admission

Surgery usually consists of opening the stomach or duodenum and underrunning the bleeding vessel. Post-operatively, patients should undergo H. pylori eradication therapy and commenced on long term acid suppression. All NSAID medications should be stopped.

32
Q

How do you manage bleeding oesophageal varices?

A

Terlipressin 2mg over 5min IV
OGD (under 4 hours if in shock)
If bleeding is still uncontrolled, consider a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube and TIPS procedure
Antibiotics - cirrhotic patients have reduced immune function