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SFA Surgical Pharmacology > Surgical Pharmacology > Flashcards

Surgical Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

A PATIENT UNDERGOING A SURGICAL PROCEDURE, SUDDENLY EXHIBITS SIGNS OF MH. THE MEDICALTION THAT NEEDS TO BE ADMINISTERED IS:

A. DIPRIVAN
B. DOPAMINE
C. DANTROLENE
D. DEMEROL

A

C. DANTROLENE

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2
Q

WHICH TYPE OF MEDICATION IS USED TO PARALYZE OF THE CILIARY MUSCLE OF THE EYE?

A. MYDRIATIC
B. MYOTIC
C. CYCLOPEGIC
D. MANNITOL

A

C. CYCLOPEGIC

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3
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MEDICATION PROVIDES MUSCLE RELAXATION DURING SURGICAL PROCEDURE?

A. PITOCIN
B. BUPIVACAINE
C. SUCCINYLCHOLINE
D. LIDOCAINE

A

C. SUCCINYLCHOLINE

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4
Q

WHICH MEDICATION WOULD BE USED ALONG WITH GENERAL ANESTHESIA TO RELIEVE PAIN?

A. FENTANYL
B. NALOXONE
C. MANNITOL
D. OXYTOCIN

A

A. FENTANYL

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5
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A LATE SIGN OF MH?

A. TACHYCARDIA
B. HYPERCARBIA
C. MUSCLE STIFFNESS
D. INCREASE IN BODY TEMP

A

D. INCREASE IN BODY TEMP

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6
Q

MANNITOL IS A DIURETIC USED PREDOMINANTLY DURING WHICH TYPE OF SURGERY?

A. CARDIAC
B. VASCULAR
C. NEURO
D. ORTHOPEDICS

A

C. NEURO

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7
Q

HOW IS THROMBIN ADMINISTERED?

A. IV
B. TOPICAL
C. IM
D. ORAL

A

B. TOPICAL

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8
Q

HOW MANY GRAMS EQUALS 55.75 KIOLGRAMS?

A. 557,500 GRAMS
B. 5,575 GRAMS
C. 55.7.5 GRAMS
D. 55,750 GRAMS

A

D. 55,750 GRAMS

1 KILO = 1000 GRASMS
MULTIPLY 55.75 BY 1000

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9
Q

WHICH CLASSIFICAITON OF DRUGS PREVENT NAUSEA AND VOMITING AFTER RECOVERY IN TEH PACU?

A. ANTI-EMETIC
B. ANTI-HISTAMINE
C. ANTI-ARRHYTHMIC
D. ANTI-CHOLINERGIC

A

A. ANTI-EMETIC

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10
Q

ANESTHESIC ARE ADMINISTERED BOTH IV AND AS INHALATION AGENTS, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS ADMINISTERED IV ONLY?

A. ETHRANE
B. PENTHRANE
C. PROPFOL
D. NITROUS OXIDE

A

C. PROPFOL

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11
Q

MICROFRILLAR COLLAGEN IS TYPICALLY KNOWN IN THE OR AS:

A. THROMBIN
B. GELFOAM
C. AVEGUARD
D. AVITENE

A

D. AVITENE

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12
Q

WE ONLY HAVE 30CC OF 2% CONTRAST MEDIA, WE REQUIRE 30CC OF 1%. HOW DO WE ACHIEVE THE RIGHT DOSAGE?

A. WE ADD 30CC OF SALINE TO THE 30CC OF 2% MEDIA
B. WE ADD 15CC OF SALINE TO THE 30CC OF MEDIA
C. WE ADD 30CC OF LR AND 30CC OF MEDIA
D. WE ADD 15CC OF LR AND 15 CC OF MEDIA

A

A. WE ADD 30CC OF SALINE TO THE 30CC OF 2% MEDIA

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13
Q

TO OBTAIN 10 UNITS PER ML CONCENTRATION OF ANY GIVEN SUBSTANCE, HOW MANY UNITS WOULD NEED TO BE ADDED TO 1000 ML OF SALINE?

A. 100,000
B. 10
C. 1,000
d. 10,000

A

d. 10,000

1000 MULTIPLIED BY 10 = 10,000

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14
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FORMS OF ANESTHESIA MAY UTILIZE INTRAVENOUS VERSED?

A. MINIMAL SEDATION
B. EPIDURAL ANESTHESIA
C. DEEP SEDATION
D. REGIONAL ANESTHESIA

A

C. DEEP SEDATION

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15
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FORMS OF ANESTHESIA MAY UTILIZE INTRATHECAL ROPIVACAINE?

A. MINIMAL SEDATION
B. EPIDURAL ANESTHESIA
C. DEEP SEDATION
D. DISSOCIATION

A

B. EPIDURAL ANESTHESIA

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16
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS ANOTHER NAME FOR SUCCINYLCHOLINE?

A. XYLOCAINE
B. HALOTHANE
C. ANECTINE
D. MARCAINE

A

C. ANECTINE

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17
Q

ATROPINE IS OFTEN USED AS A PREOP MEDICATION. IT IS ADMINISTERED TO PROMOTE:

A. DRYING OF SECRETIONS
B. DROWSINESS
C. PAIN RELIEF
D. DECREASED ANXIETY

A

A. DRYING OF SECRETIONS

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18
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A BENZODIAZEPINE?

A. ATROPINE
B. HALOTHANE
C. MIDAZOLAM
D. KETAMINE

A

C. MIDAZOLAM

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19
Q

THE ANALGESIC FENTANYL’S GENERIC NAME IS:

A. MORPHINE
B. VALIUM
C. VERSED
D. SUBLIMAZE

A

D. SUBLIMAZE

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20
Q

ANECTINE (SUCCINYLCHOLINE) IS A MUSCLE RELAXANT THAT CAN PRECIPITATE:

A. APPENDICITIS
B. OSTEOMYELITIS
C. MALIGNANT HYPERTHERMIA
D. SEPSIS

A

C. MALIGNANT HYPERTHERMIA

21
Q

A HYPOTENSIVE CRISIS DURING A SURGICAL PROCEDURE IS BEST MANAGED WITH ADMINISTRATION OF:

A. LASIX
B. KEFLEX
C. DIPRIVAN
D. ADRENALIN

A

D. ADRENALIN

22
Q

THE GENERIC NAME FOR MARCAINE IS:

A. NALOXONE
B. XYLOCAINE
C. BUPIVACAINE
D. DIAZAPAM

A

C. BUPIVACAINE

23
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD BE CONSIDERED THE DURATION FOR THE LOCAL ANESTHESIA AGENT ROPIVACAINE?

A. 10-60 MIN
B. 30-60 MIN
C. 120-360 MIN
D. 120-240 MIN

A

C. 120-360 MIN

24
Q

A PATIENT IS ALLERGIC TO PROCAINE, WHAT NERVE BLOCK ANESTHETIC MIGHT BE SUBSTITUTED IN THIS CASE?

A. CHLOROPROCAINE
B. ETIDOCAINE
C. COCAINE
D. BENZOCAINE

A

B. ETIDOCAINE

25
Q

FENTANYL IS A STRONG:

A. BARBITARATE
B. BENZODIAZEPINE
C. OPIOID
D. DIISOBROPYL PHENOL

A

C. OPIOID

26
Q

HOW MUCH DEXTROSE WOULD D5W IV FLUID CONTAIN?

A. 10%
B. 50%
C. 5%
d. 25%

A

C. 5%

27
Q

WHICH ANTIBIOTIC IS GIVEN BEFORE PROCEDURES TO PROVIDE PROTECTION?

A. CEFAZOLIN
B. GENTAMICIN
C. PENICILLIN
D. BACITRACIN

A

A. CEFAZOLIN

28
Q

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE VASOPRESSOR DRUGS EXCEPT:

A. HIGH DOSE DOPAMINE
B. NOREPINEPHRINE
C. HEPARIN
D. PHENYLEPHRINE

A

C. HEPARIN

HEPARIN IS AN ANTICOAGULANT

29
Q

A PATIENT HAS AN ELECTROLYTE IMBLANCE MANIFESTING AS WITH DECREASED CELLULAR ACTIVITY, HEADACHE, NAUSEA, AND VOMITING. HIS HCO3 RESULTS WERE 15mEq/L. THIS PATIENT IS SHOWING SIGNS OF WHAT?

A. RESPIRATORY ACIDOSIS
B. METABOLIC ACIDOSIS
C. RESPIRATORY ALKALOSIS
D. METABOLIC ALKALOSIS

A

B. METABOLIC ACIDOSIS

30
Q

IF A MEDICATION IS TO BE ADMINISTEREED EVERY HOUR, WHICH OF THE FOLLIWING ABREVIATIONS SHOULD BE USED?

A. Qh
B. QID
C. STAT
D. PRN

A

A. Qh

31
Q

WHAT ANTIBIOTIC IS COMMONLY USED TO SOAK PROSTHETIC DEVICES?

A. POLYMYXIN B
B. TETRACYCLINE
C. AMOXICILLIN
D. PENICILLIN

A

A. POLYMYXIN B

32
Q

HOW MUCH BLOOD WOULD YOU DRAW FOR A COMPLETE ABG?

A. 1 ML
B. 3 ML
C. 2 ML
D. 5 ML

A

D. 5 ML

33
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD BE CONSIDERED A MAJOR GROUP OF ANTIBIOTICS?

A. MACROLIDES
B. CEPHALOSPORINS
C. AMINOGLYCOSIDES
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

A

D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

34
Q

FOR PATIENTS RECEIVING ANTICOAGULATION THERAPY, WHICH TWO LABORATORY VALUES MAY BE TESTED TO DETERMINE THE NEED FOR ANTICOAGULATION REVERSAL AGENTS?

A. PROTIME/INTERNATIONAL NORMALIZED RATIO (PT/INR) AND PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN TIME (PTT)
B. PROTIME/INTERNATIONAL NORMALIZED RATIO (PT/INR) AND HEMOGLOBIN
C. PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN TIME (PTT) AND HEMATOCRIT
D. PROTIME/INTERNATIONAL NORMALIZED RATIO (PT/INR) AND BLOOD URA NITROGEN (BUN)

A

A. PROTIME/INTERNATIONAL NORMALIZED RATIO (PT/INR) AND PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN TIME (PTT)

35
Q

A BLOOD VESSEL HAS BEEN INJURIED. WHAT HAPPENS NEXT IN TEH HEMOSTATIC CASCADE?

A. FIBRINOLYSIS
B. PLATELET PLUG FORMATION
C. VASOCONSTRICTION
D. FIBRIN CLOT FORMAITON

A

C. VASOCONSTRICTION

36
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MOST APPROPRIATE PROPLYLAXIS PRIOR TO T&A IN A PATIENT WITH ARTIFICAL VALVE?

A. AMPICILLIN
B. CIPROFOXACIN
C. RIFAMPIN
D. TETRACYCLINE

A

A. AMPICILLIN

37
Q

THE HEMATOCRIT (HCT) MEASURES WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING?

A. RBC% PER VOLUME OF BLOOD
B. RBC WEIGHT PER VOLUME OF BLOOD
C. RBC NUMBER PER VOLUME OF BLOOD
D. HEMOGLOBIN MASS PER VOLUME OF BLOOD

A

A. RBC% PER VOLUME OF BLOOD

38
Q

A PATIENT UNDERGOING A 6 HOUR PELVIC TUMOR DEBULKING PROCEDURE IS ECPERIENCING PROGRESSIVELY WORSENING HYOTENSION AND TACHCARDIA. AT 4 HOURS INTO THE OPERATION, THE ACP INDICATES THAT THE PATIENT’S OXYGEN SATURATION IS STARTING TO DECREASE. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SHOULD BE ADMINISTERED?

A. EPINEPHRINE
B. NORMAL SALINE
C. BLOOD PRODUCTS
D. MORPHINE

A

C. BLOOD PRODUCTS

39
Q

THE TOPICAL HEMOSTATIC AGENT THROMBIN SHOULD NEVER BE DIRECTLY INJECTED OR ALLOWED TO ENTER INTO A VESSEL BECAUSE:

A. IT CAUSES UNCONTROLLABLE VASOSPASMS
B. THE EFFECTS ARE REVERSED WHEN DIRECTLY INJECTED AND CAUSE MORE SEVER BLEEDING
C. IT CAN CAUSE CLOTTING AND MAY ULTIMATELY LEAD TO DEATH
D. THE RISK OF INFECTION INCREASES WITH DIRECT INJECTION

A

C. IT CAN CAUSE CLOTTING AND MAY ULTIMATELY LEAD TO DEATH

40
Q

HEMODYNAMIC CHANGES AND CONTINUED BLOOD LOSS ARE COMMON FOR _____ AFTER SURGERY.

A. 1-3 HRS
B. 4-6 HRS
C. 6-12 HRS
D. 18-24 HRS

A

C. 6-12 HRS

41
Q

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE REASONS TO INCLUDE A VASOCONSTRICTOR, EXCEPT:

A. LOWER BLOOD FLOW TO INJECTION SITE
B. INCREASE ANESTHETIC BLOOD LEVELS
C. INCREASE DURATION OF LOCAL
D. IMPROVE FIELD OF VISION

A

B. INCREASE ANESTHETIC BLOOD LEVELS

42
Q

YOUR PATIENT IS UNDERGOING A T&A, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LAB TESTS WOULD YOU EXPECT THE SURGEON TO ASSESS IN THE PATIENT?

A. PROTHROMBIN TIME
B. SERUM BILIRUBIN
C. BUN
D. ERTHROCYE SEDIMENTATION RATE

A

A. PROTHROMBIN TIME

43
Q

YOUR PATIENT WHO IS SCHEDULE FOR OUTPATIENT HERNIA REPAIR TOOK FUROSEMIDE (LASIX) THE MORNING OF SURGERY. THE PATIENT MIGHT BE AT RISK FOR WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

A. HYPERTENSION
B. FLUID VOLUME DEFICIT
C. HYPOTENSION
D. MH

A

B. FLUID VOLUME DEFICIT

44
Q

RANGE OF RBC IN CBC:

A. 3.5-5.2
B. 4.6-6.2
C. 12.0-16.0
D. 14.0-18.0

A

B. 4.6-6.2

45
Q

PATIENT REFUSE BLOOD DURING SURGERY INCREASE BLOOD LOSS HEMATOCRIT DROPS 30%:

A. TRANSFUSE WITH WHOLE BLOOD
B. INCREASE IV FLUID TO ALLOW HEMODILATION
C. CHANGE IV TO DEXTROSE 5%
D. TRANSFUSE PLATELETS

A

B. INCREASE IV FLUID TO ALLOW HEMODILATION

46
Q

TAH PATIENT BECOMES TACHICARDIA, NO BLOOD LOSS, CORE TEMP 103F, AND INCREASE CO2, SHOULD GIVE 100% OXYGEN AND ADMINISTER:

A. SUCCINYLCHOLNE
D. DANTROLENE
C. ATROPINE
D. EPINEPHRINE

A

D. DANTROLENE

47
Q

DISSECTION OF THE INTERNAL MAMMARY ARTERY (IMA), WHICH SOLUTION USED TO DILATE THE ARTERY AND REDUCE MUSCLE SPASM?

A. LIDOCAINE
B. BACITRACIN
C. HEPARIN
D. PAPAVERINE

A

D. PAPAVERINE

48
Q

PRIOR TO LIPOSUCTION, 40ML 1% LIDOCAINE WITH EPI 1:100,000 AND 1,000ML SALINE ARE COMBINED TO CREATE:

A. TUMESCENT
B. PAPAVERINE
C. DAKIN’S
D. LUGOLS

A

A. TUMESCENT

49
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MAY BE A CAUSE OF ACUTE CYANOSIS IN A PATIENT UNDERGOING A SURGICAL PROCEDURE?

A. LOWER THAN NORMAL HEMOGLOBIN
B. HIGHER THAN NORMAL HEMOGLOBIN
C. LOWER THAN NORMAL HEMATOCRIT
D. HIGHER THAN NORMAL HEMATOCRIT

A

A. LOWER THAN NORMAL HEMOGLOBIN

SFA Surgical Pharmacology (1 decks)

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