Surgical Nursing Flashcards

1
Q

list benefits of performing a neurological exam

A

breaks down complex presentations
identify if neurological or other condition
localisation of condition
aid diagnosis and prognosis
continual assessment of patient condition

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2
Q

state aims of neuro exam

A

determine if condition is neurological
determine where the condition is
determine potential causes

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3
Q

what is the purpose of localisation of neuro conditions?

A

aids differential diagnoses

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4
Q

where can neurological conditions be localised to?

A

brain - forebrain, cerebellum, brain stem
spinal cord - C1-C5, C6-T2, T3-L3, L4-S2
peripheral nerves
neuromuscular

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5
Q

what is the 5 finger rule of localisation (neuro)?

A

signalment
onset - acute vs chronic
progression
symmetry
pain

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6
Q

what are the different parts to a neuro exam?

A

hands off observation
hands on exam

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7
Q

what is examined in hands off observation in neuro exam?

A

mentation
gait
posture

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8
Q

what is examined in hands on observation in neuro exam?

A

postural reactions
spinal reflexes
cranial nerves
sensory evaluation
palpation

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9
Q

what should be considered when assessing mentation?

A

state - alert, obtunded, stuporous or coma
are reactions to environment as normally expected for this patient

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10
Q

what should be considered when assessing gait in a neuro exam?

A

common presentation, not always neurological
can they generate coordinated movements and walk normally
breed differences
head turn or tilt, ventroflexion, curving of the spine
decerebrate rigidity or decerebellate rigidity
stance

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11
Q

how is a gait exam performed?

A

owner walks animal up and down at varying speeds as needed
can use sling or support if needed

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12
Q

what is decerebrate rigidity?

A

extension of all limbs, head and neck
non-ambulatory in lateral

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13
Q

what is decerebellate rigidity?

A

extension of thoracic limbs, head and neck
hind limbs flexed or flacid

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14
Q

what is the purpose of testing postural reactions?

A

test sensory nerves in ascending tract in spinal cord, brainstem and forebrain, descending tracts in brainstem and spinal cord, motor neurones and muscles

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15
Q

why cant postural reaction tests localise neuro lesions?

A

tests are affected by lesions in any area

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16
Q

list types of postural reaction tests

A

proprioception - replacing feet
hopping - lift each leg in turn and move from side to side
visual placing - should place feet when moved to table
tactile placing - same as visual but eyes covered
hemi-walking and wheelbarrowing

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17
Q

what does spinal reflexes test assess?

A

all limbs function

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18
Q

how are thoracic limbs tested in spinal reflexes?

A

withdrawal
extensor carpi radialis and biceps brachii reflexes

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19
Q

how are pelvic limbs tested in spinal reflexes?

A

withdrawal
patella and cranial tibial and gastrocnemius reflexes

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20
Q

list types of spinal reflex tests

A

thoracic limbs
pelvic limbs
perianal reflex
panniculus reflex
cutaneous trunchi reflex

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21
Q

how are withdrawal reflexes tested?

A

non-painful pinching of the toe inducing a reflex

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22
Q

how is a patella reflex test performed?

A

knocking patella hammer to cause kicking

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23
Q

how is perineal reflex tested?

A

pinching around perineum to cause contraction

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24
Q

how is paniculus reflex performed?

A

pinching thoracic skin causing flinching of the skin

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25
Q

how is cutaneous trunci reflex performed?

A

pinching along each side of the spine to observe skin twitches

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26
Q

what is the purpose of cutaneous trunci reflex test?

A

tests segmental nerve to aid localisation

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27
Q

list tests for cranial nerves

A

menace response
gag reflex
PLR
oculocephalic reflex
nystagmus
palpebral reflex

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28
Q

describe the menace response

A

reaction when hand moved to the face

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29
Q

describe the oculocephalic reflex

A

observing eye tracking when moving the head

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30
Q

how do you assess sensory function in neuro exams?

A

panniculus reflex
deep pain perception

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31
Q

where are deep pain tracts found and what is the impact of this?

A

in the spinal column
only affected by severe spinal damage

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32
Q

how do you assess deep pain?

A

pinching digits to induce pain, should see reaction not just reflex

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33
Q

why do you palpate to assess neuro function?

A

detect any abnormalities

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34
Q

why is pupillary assessment important in neuro patients?

A

can be miotic, mydriatic or anisocoria
rapid deterioration indicated when pupil goes from miotic to mydriatic, intense monitoring and treatment needed
midsized fixed pupils indicate very poor prognosis, brain herniation or brain death
monitor for any changes

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35
Q

define miotic pupils

A

constricted

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36
Q

define mydriatic pupils

A

dilated

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37
Q

define anisocoria

A

asymmetric pupils

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38
Q

which motor neurones can be effected by brain or spinal cord lesions?

A

upper and lower motor neurones

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39
Q

where are UMNs located?

A

between cerebral cortex and spinal cord

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40
Q

what do UMNs do?

A

send signals to LMNs

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41
Q

what is the effect of UMNs being damaged?

A

stronger reflexes than normal
increased muscle tone with chronic muscle atrophy

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42
Q

where are LMNs located?

A

connect CNS to effector organ

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43
Q

what do LMNs do?

A

cause effector organs to contract

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44
Q

what is the effect of LMNs being damaged?

A

weak or absent reflexes
reduced muscle tone and rapid muscle atrophy
flacid paresis and paralysis

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45
Q

what is the purpose of grading spinal cord injuries?

A

allows objective assessment
ongoing monitoring
aids prognosis

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46
Q

what is seen in grade 1 spinal injuries?

A

pain
no neurological deficits
normally walking

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47
Q

what is seen in grade 2 spinal injuries?

A

ambulatory paraparesis
walking with neurological defecits
weakness or incoordination of pelvic limbs

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48
Q

what is seen in grade 3 spinal injuries?

A

non-ambulatory paraparesis
unable to walk without assistance but good pelvic limb movement

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49
Q

what is seen in grade 4 spinal injuries?

A

paraplegia with intact nociception
no voluntary movement in pelvic limbs
can feel toes
deep pain positive

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50
Q

what is seen in grade 5 spinal injuries?

A

paraplegia without nociception
no voluntary movement in pelvic limbs
deep pain negative

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51
Q

what assessments should be done for nursing neuro patients?

A

consider previous and current conditions
normal activities to make care as normal as possible
owner desires and expectations
owners ability to care

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52
Q

what are patient considerations for neuro patients?

A

ambulation
surgery
continence
temperament
recumbency
normal routine

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53
Q

what are common nursing considerations for neuro patients?

A

decreased motor activity
bladder and bowel management
pressure sores
wound management
pain management
respiratory support in severe cases, may get aspiration pneumonia

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54
Q

state the purposes of physiotherapy

A

improve local and body circulation
reduce pain
bond with patient
prevent pressure sores
aid motor recovery
improve joint health
limit muscle wastage
prevent contracture

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55
Q

what are the goals of physiotherapy?

A

relearn motor movements
stimulate proprioceptive relearning and gait

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56
Q

when should you start physio?

A

as early as possible and increase intensity

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57
Q

list types of physiotherapy

A

massage
PROM
assisted exercise
active exercise
proprioceptive exercise
neuromuscular e-stim
hot/cold therapy
hydrotherapy
laser therapy

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58
Q

how is massage performed?

A

light pressure applied to patients limbs in strokes and circular movement
move towards heart if oedema

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59
Q

what are the benefits of massage?

A

calms patient
prepares for handling
aid circulation
mobilised dermal and subdermal tissue
warms muscle

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60
Q

how is PROM performed?

A

flex and extend joints through normal range of motion

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61
Q

what are the benefits of PROM?

A

improve joint health without active contraction
aid gait patterning

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62
Q

what are examples of assisted exercises?

A

standing
walking
sit to stand
stand to sit
3 legged standing
weight shifting

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63
Q

list examples of active exercise?

A

walking in different patterns
un assisted sit to stand
hydrotherapy

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64
Q

list examples of proprioceptive exercises

A

standing
wobble board
uneven surfaces
over poles
weaving

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65
Q

what are the benefits of neuro patients having physio on different surfaces?

A

aids sensory relearning

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66
Q

what are benefits of hot/cold therapy?

A

muscle relaxation
analgesia

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67
Q

what are the benefits of neuromuscular e-stim?

A

increased tissue perfusion
minimise muscle atrophy

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68
Q

how does e-stim work?

A

causes muscle contraction in patients who cant actively contract their muscles

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69
Q

what are considerations for physiotherapy on neuro patients?

A

previous injuries and surgery
patient temperament
client expectations and limits
disease processes
neurolocalisation

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70
Q

what is a common condition post-op in neurological patients?

A

urinary incontinence

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71
Q

list potential bladder issues

A

UTI
bladder atony - weakening bladder muscles
pyelonephritis

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72
Q

what makes UTI common in neuro patients?

A

urine is static in bladder as patient cant urinate continently

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73
Q

what can be a consequence of bladder distension?

A

pain

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74
Q

describe UMN bladder

A

distended
hard to express

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75
Q

describe LMN bladder

A

distended
easy to express

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76
Q

why does overflow incontinence happen?

A

patient is unaware bladder is full so urine leaks out

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77
Q

what are consequences of overflow incontinence?

A

urine scalding
risk of UTI

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78
Q

how do you manage neuro patients bladders?

A

manual expression 3-4x daily
intermittent catheterisation 2x daily
indwelling catheter
drug therapy to relax bladder to aid expression

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79
Q

why are neuro patients normally able to defecate without issues?

A

passing faeces is initiated by rectal wall stretching

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80
Q

what is a consideration for neuro patients who are continent?

A

may not be able to move away from excretions

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81
Q

what injury can make defecation reflex overactive?

A

UMN injury

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82
Q

how do you manage neuro patients bowel movements?

A

keep clean
check regularly
give opportunities to go on normal environment

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83
Q

why do pressure sores occur commonly in neuro patients?

A

likely recumbent
compression of local circulation causing ischemic necrosis

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84
Q

what is the progression of pressure sores?

A

mild erythema to full thickness ulcers and open wounds

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85
Q

how do you prevent pressure sores?

A

thick bedding
turn every 2-4 hours
donut bandages
porous bedding
inco pads
prop up with pillows
physio
close monitoring
keep skin dry
rapidly aggressively treat if start to form

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86
Q

how can you protect feet of neuro patients?

A

bandages or foot covers

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87
Q

how do you treat pressure sores?

A

keep clean and dry
debride if needed
antibiotics if needed
bandaging

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88
Q

how do you manage neuro patients surgical wounds?

A

cold therapy
analgesia
primapore initially
prevent patient interference
no neck leads for ventral slot

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89
Q

why do ventral slots have less issues than hemilaminectomy?

A

go through less tissue and muscle
less skin movement in recovery so hemi more prone to seromas

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90
Q

when can neuro patients self mutilate?

A

deep pain negative
paraesthesia
boredom
stress

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91
Q

define paraesthesia

A

feeling sensations that arent there

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92
Q

where does neuro surgery pain come from?

A

IVD
facets
nerve roots
muscles
meninges
tissue damage and compression causes pain

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93
Q

what are the benefits of preventing acute pain?

A

stop chronic pain

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94
Q

why is respiratory management important in neuro patients?

A

prone to hypoventilation
atelectasis due to recumbency
pneumonia
especially important in C spine patients

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95
Q

how does aspiration pneumonia occur and what are the consequences?

A

inhalation of GI contents causing pulmonary damage and inflammation
predisposes to bacterial infection

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96
Q

list signs of aspiration pneumonia

A

coughing
tachypnoea
harsh lung signs
crackles on auscultation

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97
Q

how do you care for aspiration pneumonia patients?

A

close monitoring
antibiotics
IVFT
oxygen
respiratory physio
may need ventilation
feed from height
regular turning

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98
Q

what are types of respiratory physiotherapy?

A

nebulisation - 10-15 minutes, in sternal if possible, breaks up secretions
vibration - shake patients chest walls on expiration for loosen aspirates
coupage - 10 minutes, loosens and allows patient to cough up secretions

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99
Q

define atelectasis

A

collapsed or underinflated lung

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100
Q

define borborygmi

A

stomach noises

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101
Q

define hyperpnoea

A

increased effort breathing

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102
Q

define ipsilateral

A

the same side

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103
Q

define modified transudate

A

fluid formed by leakage from normal/non-inflamed vessels

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104
Q

define orthopnoea

A

adaptation in posture to aid breathing

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105
Q

define TFAST

A

thoracic focused assessment with sonography for trauma patients

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106
Q

what should you consider when triaging thoracic patients?

A

signalment
onset
progression

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107
Q

what are signalment indications for different potential diagnoses for thoracic patients?

A

age - neoplasia more common if older, FeLV+ cats exception
species - mediastinal masses in cats
breed - tracheal collapse in yorkie, lung lobe torsion in pugs, chylothorax in afghans, FB in springer
lifestyle - indoor or outdoor cat, urban vas rural, fighting cats, gundogs

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108
Q

which speed of onset is more concerning in thoracic patients?

A

acute

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109
Q

list clinical signs commonly seen in thoracic surgical patients

A

tachypnoea
abnormal breathing - orthopnoea, hyperpnoea, dyspnoea, abdominal breathing
cough
pale mm
cyanosis
exercise intolerance
collapse
injuires
systemic illness

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110
Q

what is initial management of thoracic surgery patients?

A

minimise deterioration
monitoring
diagnostics

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111
Q

how can you minimise deterioration of thoracic surgery patients when first presenting?

A

oxygen
manage wounds if trauma and protect from further damage

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112
Q

what are you monitoring initially in thoracic surgery patients?

A

temperament
progression or deterioration

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113
Q

what diagnostics need to be done for thoracic surgery patients?

A

bloods
thoracocentesis for cytology and culture
imaging
tfast

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114
Q

why should you be careful radiographing dyspnoeic patients?

A

restraint needed may be fatal

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115
Q

what are the benefits of early imaging/TFAST?

A

determine potential causes and urgency of case

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116
Q

in cases of pleural effusion what should be determined?

A

bilateral or unilateral
volume of fluid
if need to do thoracocentesis
lab analysis

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117
Q

what should be determined in cases of pneumothorax?

A

is chest open or closed
unilateral or bilateral
volume of air
if thoracocentesis is needed

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118
Q

how do you assess thoracic FBs?

A

imaging
is it radiopaque or radiolucent

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119
Q

what needs to be determined as differentials in cases of soft tissue masses in the thorax?

A

normal structure with abnormal appearance, neoplasia or torsion
abnormal structure in thorax
diaphragmatic hernia

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120
Q

what are signs of trauma in thoracic patients?

A

skin damage
broken ribs

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121
Q

when can pneumothorax be seen?

A

with and without trauma

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122
Q

describe a closed pneumothorax

A

internal air leak from something in chest containing air (oesophagus, trachea, small airways)
very fast lung collapse

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123
Q

describe an open pneumothorax

A

external air leak
opening in the chest from trauma or iatrogenic causes such as surgery, diaphragmatic rupture, thoracocentesis complications

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124
Q

list signs of pneumothorax

A

dyspnoea
lethargy
cough
exercise intolerance

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125
Q

state diagnostic tests for pneumothorax

A

imaging
thoracocentesis

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126
Q

what should be determined in pneumothorax diagnosis?

A

if it is unilateral or bilateral

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127
Q

how are pneumothoraxs treated?

A

chest drain for conservative management of small air leaks that may heal
thoracotomy if big leak or not self sealing

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128
Q

list causes of thoracic trauma

A

accident - rta, fall, impaling
attack - dog, human, accident or not

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129
Q

list clinical signs of thoracic trauma

A

shock
dyspnoea
soft tissue damage - open wounds, bruising
orthopaedic damage to chest or body

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130
Q

how is thoracic trauma treated?

A

stabilised
surgery

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131
Q

list possible complications of thoracic trauma

A

infection
issues with healing
effusions
pneumothorax
etc

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132
Q

what affects prognosis of thoracic trauma?

A

injury severity
owners ability to fund treatment

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133
Q

define blebs

A

collection of air on the edge of lobes between lung and visceral pleura

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134
Q

define bullae

A

collection of air within lung lobes

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135
Q

list causes and signalment of pulmonary bullae and blebs

A

large breed deep chested dogs
concurrent disease
unknown cause

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136
Q

list clinical signs of pulmonary bullae and blebs

A

none unless ruptured
non-specific - lethargy, anorexia, exercise intolerance
respiratory - sudden onset dyspnoea, progressive tachypnoea, orthopnoea, coughing, pneumothorax

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137
Q

how are pulmonary bullae and blebs diagnosed?

A

radiography to diagnose pneumothorax, not lobe specific
CT for advanced assessment

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138
Q

how are pulmonary bullae and blebs treated?

A

50% respond to intermittent thoracocentesis or chest drain
thoracotomy/sternotomy for better localisation
lung lobectomy depending on number of effected lobes

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139
Q

what is the surgical approach to diaphragmatic ruptures?

A

abdominal

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140
Q

what are causes of diaphragmatic rupture?

A

blunt force trauma
increased intraabdominal pressure with closed glottis, diaphragm is weakest part

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141
Q

list clinical signs of diaphragmatic rupture

A

depends on severity, mild and vague to dyspnoea and shock
herniation of organs
torsion
dyspnoea
tachypnoea
orthopnoea

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142
Q

how is diaphragmatic rupture treated?

A

stabilise with oxygen
analgesia
IVFT
surgery - explore, reposition organs, removed badly torsed or unviable organs, repair diaphragm
place chest drains for iatrogenic pneumothorax

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143
Q

list causes of pleural effusion

A

CHF
FIP
pyothorax
tumours
haemorrhage

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144
Q

what are types of fluid that can be found in pleural effusions?

A

septic or non-septic exudates
modified transudate
transudate
blood
chlye
neoplastic effusion
etc

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145
Q

what is modified transudate?

A

fluid formed by leakage from normal/non-inflamed vessels
has high protien content

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146
Q

define transudate

A

passive fluid accumulation

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147
Q

list clinical signs of pleural effusion

A

dyspnoea
lethargy
cough
exercise intolerance

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148
Q

how is pleural effusion diagnosed?

A

imaging
bilateral or unilateral
thoracocentesis for SG of fluid, cytology, culture and sensitivity

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149
Q

how is pleural effusions treated?

A

CHF, cat pyothorax with medical management
pyothorax in dogs, diaphragmatic rupture with surgery

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150
Q

define pyothorax

A

pus in chest

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151
Q

list causes of pyothorax

A

bacterial infection - e coli in dogs, pasturella in cats
idiopathic - bites, extension from pulmonary abscess in cats
FB
oesophageal tears
pulmonary infection

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152
Q

list clinical signs of pyothorax

A

mild to severe
lethargy
inappetence
PUO
dyspnoea

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153
Q

how is pyothorax diagnosed?

A

cytology and culture of effusion
radiography
ultrasound

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154
Q

how is pyothorax treated?

A

systemic antibiotics
chest drain
lavage
sternotomy to explore, debride and flush

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155
Q

why do dogs typically undergo surgical treatment of pyothorax when cats is usually conservative treatment?

A

dogs have much higher incidences of FBs

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156
Q

define pericardial effusion

A

fluid around the heart

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157
Q

list causes of pericardial effusion

A

idiopathic
neoplastic

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158
Q

list signs of pericardial effusion

A

cardiac tamponade
depends on rate of fluid filling

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159
Q

why does severity of clinical signs of pericardial effusion depend on speed of development?

A

if it fills slowly the pericardium can stretch to accommodate larger fluid volumes
if rapidly fills pericardium cant compensate

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160
Q

how is pericardial effusion diagnosed?

A

radiography
echo
advanced imaging
cytology to see if neoplasia

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161
Q

how is pericardial effusion treated?

A

pericardiocentesis
pericardectomy

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162
Q

how does pericardectomy treat pericardial effusion?

A

stops tamponade and fluid becomes pleural effusion but unlikely large enough volume to cause any issues

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163
Q

list complications associated with pericardial effusion

A

recurrence
long term effusions cause adhesions

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164
Q

what determines prognosis for pericardial effusion?

A

underlying cause

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165
Q

what are the common types of pulmonary neoplasia seen?

A

malignant
secondary much more common than primary

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166
Q

list clinical signs of pulmonary neoplasia

A

vague
non-productive cough
haemoptysis (coughing blood)
dyspnoea
weight loss
exercise intolerance
anorexia
lameness/hypertrophic pulmonary osteopathy

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167
Q

describe hypertrophic pulmonary osteopathy

A

paraneoplastic syndrome caused by mets in legs leading to lameness

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168
Q

how is pulmonary neoplasia diagnosed?

A

bloods
urinalysis
cytology
advanced imaging
inflated imaging

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169
Q

how is pulmonary neoplasia treated?

A

palliative care
lung lobectomy if no mets

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170
Q

what determines prognosis of pulmonary neoplasia?

A

metastasis
histopathology
surgical margins

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171
Q

list surgical considerations for thoracic surgery patients

A

analgesia
manage hypothermia
IPPV

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172
Q

what needs to be monitored for thoracic surgery patients when not in surgery?

A

TRP
pain scoring
ventilation

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173
Q

how do you manage wounds following thoracic surgery?

A

prevent infection
general wound care
gels around drains to prevent air leaks

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174
Q

what are benefits of body bandages for thoracic surgery patients?

A

increase comfort
stop patient interference
reduce risk of infection

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175
Q

how do you care for thoracic surgery patients?

A

care for DUDE - IVFT, u cath if needed, feeding tubes

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176
Q

define thoracocentesis

A

puncture into pleural space for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes

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177
Q

what are important considerations for thoracocentesis?

A

prioritise patient safety
sterile prep
gloves and drape

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178
Q

what are the goals of thoracocentesis?

A

sample collection
drain fluid or air fully from pleural space

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179
Q

list equipment for thoracentesis

A

oxygen
LA
sterile prep
needle/butterfly cath/IV cath
3 way tap
syringes
extension set
kidney dish
sample tubes
refractometer
slides

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180
Q

what blood tubes are used for thoracocentesis and what are each for?

A

EDTA - EDTA
heparin - biochem
plain - culture

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181
Q

what are positives and negatives of using IV and butterfly catheter for thoracocentesis?

A

IV - can remove sharp, have to attach collection system so position may change, may kink or collapse
butterfly - have collection system attached so can do alone

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182
Q

describe the process of obtaining samples from thoracocentesis

A

use fist sample taken to avoid contamination
put in appropriate tubes
make fresh smear for cytology
check SG

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183
Q

what are the purposes of chest drains?

A

continuous or intermittent therapeutic drainage of the pleural space

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184
Q

why are intermittent chest drain placements not ideal long term?

A

risk increases with each placement

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185
Q

list reasons for indwelling chest drains

A

disease causing continued fluid or air production
large quantity of production
intermittent thoracicentesis not working
following thoracotomy
long term drainage needed
medication admin

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186
Q

what are considerations for indwelling chest drains?

A

patient temperament
patient tolerance
treatment plan

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187
Q

what can cause intermittent thoracocentesis not to work?

A

too high volumes being produced
too thick to come through butterfly cath
too high risk or causing lung trauma placing

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188
Q

what measures should be done following thoracotomy?

A

remove air/fluid from surgery
detect any air/fluid being produced from surgery complication or underlying condition

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189
Q

what conditions require long term drainage?

A

pneumothorax due to underlying disease
pleural effusion

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190
Q

what medications can be administered down chest drains?

A

LAs
saline to lavage pyo
antibiotics
chemotherapy

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191
Q

list types of chest drains

A

large bore
small bore
trocar placement
seldinger technique

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192
Q

what affects type of chest drains being used?

A

depends on type of medium being drained

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193
Q

what determines the size of chest drain used?

A

reasons for drainage
amount of fluid expected to drain

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194
Q

what are different methods of chest drain placement?

A

closed chest
open chest in surgery

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195
Q

where do you place chest drains?

A

uni or bilateral
if bilateral need on both sides if mediastinum intact
tip of drain cranioventrally to thoracic inlet
all fenestration in chest

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196
Q

what are the benefits of chest drain connectors?

A

allow efficient drainage without the risk of iatrogenic pneumothorax

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197
Q

how are chest drains secured in place?

A

sandal sutures - trocar drains
anchor flanges secures with simple sutures - seldinger

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198
Q

list nursing care for patients with chest drains

A

24 hour care
body bandage
buster collar

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199
Q

what are the advantages of trocar drains?

A

fenestrated
rigid so easy to position
lost of sizes available
good for air and fluid
large bore
dont collapse
clear so can check patency

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200
Q

what are disadvantages of trocar drains?

A

placed under GA
need SC tunnel to prevent air leaks
rigid so higher risk of lung damage and pneumothorax
needs careful training for placement and suturing
not comfortable

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201
Q

what are advantages of narrow bore/seldinger drains?

A

dont need SC tunnel
less invasive placement
air leak less likely
dont need to place under GA
easy to place and secure
versatile
more comfortable

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202
Q

what are disadvantages of narrow bore/seldinger drains?

A

more expensive
lots of parts to the drain
more likely to block
can be too long in small patients so kink or too much outside of chest
harder to place as flexible

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203
Q
A
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204
Q

list equipment needed for closed chest drain placement

A

sterile prep
anaesthetic equipment - LA or GA depending on drain
pre-measured drain
scalpel
forceps
needle holders
scissors
swabs
drape
3 way tap
syringes
extension set
kidney dish
suture material

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205
Q

what determines frequency of intermittent chest drainage?

A

RR and dyspnoea
usually done every 4-8 hours

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206
Q

when is continuous chest drainage normally used?

A

air leaks

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207
Q

what can be used to provide continuous chest drainage?

A

commercial drainage unit
heimlich valve - one way valve for air

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208
Q

list considerations for chest drainage

A

care suction wont collapse the tube or aspirate tissue
record volumes drained

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209
Q

how can you prevent infections with chest drains in place?

A

aseptic techniques
good bandage hygiene
culture before antibiotics

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210
Q

state analgesia that can be used for chest drains in hospital and at home

A

multi modal
hospital - LA, systemic opioids (care for respiratory effects), CRIs, paracetamol
home - NSAIDs, oral paracetamol

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211
Q

list some complications associated with chest drains

A

issues with placement
failure to drain
patient factors
iatrogenic issues
infection

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212
Q

what can cause issues with chest drain placement?

A

cant place
incorrect placement
ideally x-ray to check placement

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213
Q

list reasons for chest drains failing to drain

A

accidental removal
tube disconnection
obstruction
kinking
tube slipped out

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214
Q

how can patients interfere with chest drains?

A

removal of drain
damage to drain

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215
Q

list iatrogenic issues with chest drains

A

haemorrhage
haemothorax
heart or lung damage
premature removal so recurrence of issue
nerve damage
pneumothorax
pyothorax
seroma (due to high volume effusion, usually self resolves)
SC emphysema around skin incision

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216
Q

how do you manage infections associated with chest drains?

A

manage with aseptic techniques
antibiotics
may need to remove early

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217
Q
A
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218
Q

when should you remove a chest drain?

A

complications risk higher than benefit of drain
volume produced significantly reduced
recurrence unlikely

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219
Q

what should you do to prep for thoracotomy?

A

stabilise patient
surgical plan

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220
Q

how do you stabilise patients for thoracotomy?

A

oxygen
assess ASA
IVFT
bloods

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221
Q

what is included in surgical plan for thoracotomy patients?

A

drugs plan - analgesia, antibiotics
approach to surgery
kit
complications and management

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222
Q

what are benefits of intercostal thoracotomy?

A

less painful
can place chest drain with visual guidance

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223
Q

what should be considered when deciding to do intercostal thoracotomy?

A

which side and intercostal space
can it be treated with unilateral approach

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224
Q

describe how intercostal thoracotomy patient is prepped

A

clip from thoracic inlet to mid abdo
loosely tie front and back legs
keep sternum and spine level

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225
Q

what are the benefits of sternotomy for thoracotomy?

A

better for exploration and bilateral conditions
can place chest drain with visual guidance

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226
Q

when is sternotomy not useful to perform?

A

if dorsal thorax affected

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227
Q

do you prep patients for sternotomy?

A

clip from thoracic inlet to mid abdo
keep stable with cradle or sandbags
loosely tie legs out of way

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228
Q

what are considerations for thoracoscopy?

A

least painful
needs specialised equipment
limitations in procedures and visualisation
fully clip in case need to convert to open
can be in lateral or dorsal depending on procedure

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229
Q

list common thoracic surgery instruments

A

long handled forceps
scissors
needle holders
handheld or self retaining retractors
sternotomy instruments

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230
Q

what is a type of forceps for thoracic surgery and what are their features?

A

debakeys
atraumatic, fine dissection, clamping vessels

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231
Q

what are different types of clamps used for in thoracic surgery?

A

vascular/statinsky/soft palette clamps for vessels
right angle clamps for dissection

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232
Q

what retractors are used for thoracic surgery?

A

finchietto
gelpis
langenbeck
malleable

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233
Q

what sternotomy specific instruments are used?

A

chisel and hammer
oscillating saw

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234
Q

list other equipment for thoracic surgery

A

lap swabs
thick suture material
wire
suction
chest drain
tourniquet
pledget sutures
vessel loops

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235
Q

what are the types of electrosurgery?

A

monopolar
bipolar

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236
Q

what is needed with monopolar electrosurgery and why?

A

earthing plate to prevent burns

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237
Q

list examples of advanced electrosurgery

A

gen11
ligasure
harmonic

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238
Q

when is advanced electrosurgery used?

A

used instead of staples
can have various uses
expensive

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239
Q

define lung lobectomy

A

partial or total removal of one lung lobe

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240
Q

define pneumonectomy

A

removal of a lung

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241
Q

what makes patients manage well after a pneumonectomy?

A

remaining lung fills the rest of the chest

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242
Q

what are closure options for lung lobectomy?

A

sutures - slow, technical, higher risk of leakage
staples - quick, less risk of leaks, more expensive, technical

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243
Q

describe how to perform a leak test following lung lobectomy

A

fill chest with warm saline
IPPV and check for air bubbles, suction all fluid out once happy

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244
Q

describe the anatomy of the liver (location, lobes, attachment)

A

sits in cranial abdomen with 2/3 mass on midline
4 lobes - left (largest), right, caudate and quadrate, are divided into sublobes and processes
attached to diaphragm, right kidney, lesser curvature of the stomach and proximal duodenum

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245
Q

which main vessel runs through the liver?

A

vena cava

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246
Q

describe blood supply to the liver

A

recieves from hepatic portal vein and hepatic artery
blood leaves via short hepatic veins to the vena cava
highly vascular

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247
Q

what is the purpose of the hepatic portal vein?

A

carry blood from the digestive tract and spleen, rich in nutrients and 50% of oxygen supply

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248
Q

what proportions does the liver get blood flow from the vessels?

A

80% from hepatic portal vein
20% from hepatic artery

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249
Q

what is the purpose of the hepatic artery?

A

carry oxygen rich blood, providing 50% oxygen

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250
Q

describe how blood passes through the liver

A

portal and arterial blood mix in sinusoids in liver
drain into hepatic veins
leave via dorsal border into caudal vena cava

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251
Q

list functions of the liver

A

synthesis of albumin, globulin, clotting factors, glucose, cholesterol
clearance of ammonia, bilirubin, bile acids, drugs
metabolism of carbs, lipids, amino acids
production and activation of clotting factors
clearance of toxins (ammonia, drugs)
immunoregulation
GI function
storage of vitamins, fats, glycogen, copper

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252
Q

what can be the consequence of hepatic dysfunction on synthesis and clearance?

A

ascites
longer duration of albumin bound drugs
excess drug sensitivity
neurological signs
PUPD
anorexia
vomiting

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253
Q

what are the consequences of hepatic dysfunction on metabolism?

A

hypoglycaemia
lethargy
weight loss

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254
Q

what are the consequences of hepatic dysfunction on production and activation of clotting factors?

A

clotting issues
haemorrhage

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255
Q

what are the consequences of hepatic dysfunction on immunoregulation?

A

endotoxaemia
sepsis

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256
Q

what are the consequences of hepatic dysfunction on GI function?

A

weight loss
diarrhoea

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257
Q

list clinical signs of hepatic dysfunction

A

inappetence
lethargy
vomiting
diarrhoea
jaundice
ascites
hepatic synthetic failure - carbs, protein, fat, clotting factors
detox failure - encephalopathy, increased drug activity

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258
Q

what causes jaundice?

A

hyperbillirubinaemia and tissue deposition of bile pigment due to failure of routine clearance of bilirubin

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259
Q

what is pre-hepatic jaundice?

A

haemolysis causing too much bilirubin for liver to clear

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260
Q

what is hepatic jaundice?

A

failure of uptake, conjugation to water soluble form or transport of bilirubin by the liver

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261
Q

what is post-hepatic jaundice?

A

failure of excretion of bile due to cholestatic disease or biliary rupture

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262
Q

how does ascites occur?

A

fluid accumulation in abdomen due to hypoalbuminaemia and portal hypertension causing sodium and water retention

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263
Q

what causes detoxification failure in the liver?

A

hepatic dysfunction or PSS

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264
Q

what are the effects of detoxification failure in the liver?

A

failure of ammonia conversion to urea
failure of drug detoxification so longer effects

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265
Q

what is the effect of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

fore brain disfunction, is the behaviour mediator

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266
Q

list clinical signs of hepatic encephalopathy

A

lethargy
obtunded
pacing
circling
head pressing
seizure
coma

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267
Q

what worsens signs of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

high protein meal
GI haemorrhage
vomiting and diarrhoea
diuretics

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268
Q

what is the significance of the liver having large functional reserve?

A

clinical signs wont present until 70-80% functional hepatic tissue is lost

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269
Q

describe what happens to bile after it is synthesised in the liver

A

excreted into hepatic ducts which drain to common bile duct
if not digesting this goes via cystic duct to gall bladder for storage and concentration
in digestion bile leaves via cystic duct to common bile duct to duodenum

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270
Q

list functions of the biliary tract and bile acids

A

aid digestion and absorption of fats
neutralise gastric acid
inhibit gastric acid secretions to prevent intestinal ulceration

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271
Q

list diagnostic tests for liver disease

A

biochemistry
haematology
blood gas
blood glucose
electrolytes
dynamic bile acid testing
liver enzymes
bibirubin
blood clotting
urinalysis
US
CT, MRI, scintigrpahy
biopsies

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272
Q

list ways of managing liver disease

A

prescription diet
oral antibiotics
oral lactulose

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273
Q

describe a prescription diet for liver disease

A

contains levels of high BV proteins
restricted fat
copper restricted
antioxidant supplemented

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274
Q

why are oral antibiotics used for liver disease?

A

compensates for livers reduced immunoregulatory action of detoxification of pathogens in intestines
prevent endotoxemia

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275
Q

why is oral lactulose used in hepatic patients?

A

binds to ammonia so can be excreted in faeces
reduces risk of hepatic encephalopathy

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276
Q

list management that should be done for hepatic patients before taking to surgery

A

clotting times
IV antibiotics
planning GA drugs
IVFT
manage electrolyte imbalances
blood typing and cross match
general patient care

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277
Q

what tests should be done for clotting times before taking liver patients to surgery?

A

full coag panel
platelet count
APTT and PT

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278
Q

how often are liver patients effected with abnormal clotting times?

A

50%

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279
Q

how would you manage abnormal clotting times before taking liver patient to surgery?

A

treat with FFP or vitamin k to minimise risk of haemorrhage

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280
Q

why would you give IV antibiotics to liver patients before surgery?

A

bacteria is in the liver so prevents endotoxaemia and sepsis

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281
Q

how would you choose antibiotics for patients undergoing liver surgery?

A

culture liver, bile and gall bladder
give broad spectrum while waiting for results

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282
Q

what drugs should be avoided in hepatic patients?

A

any that undergo hepatic metabolism

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283
Q

how should you manage IVFT for liver patients?

A

account for additional losses and correct any electrolyte imbalances

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284
Q

why is blood typing important in liver patients?

A

significant haemorrhage a risk
may have clotting disorders

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285
Q

what are general patient considerations for liver patients?

A

water and toileting if PUPD
tempt to eat if anorexic

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286
Q

how can you take liver biopsies?

A

US guided percutaneous FNA
open or laparoscopic

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287
Q

what is the purpose of taking liver biopsies?

A

diagnosis
prognosis

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288
Q

what are advantages and disadvantages of US percutaneous FNA liver biopsy?

A

adv - least risky
disadv - poor diagnostic accuracy

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289
Q

what are advantages and disadvantages of surgical liver biopsy?

A

adv - more accurate and better samples, can grossly visualise
disadv - more risky and invasive

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290
Q

when is partial or complete liver lobectomy done?

A

mass removal
abscesses
liver lobe torsion

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291
Q

what are risks associated with liver lobectomy?

A

haemorrhage
liver failure
portal hypertension

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292
Q

define cholecystectomy

A

removal of gall bladder

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293
Q

define cholecystoenterostomy

A

rerouting gall bladder to duodenum

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294
Q

when are cholecystectomy and cholecystoenterostomy indicated?

A

biliary tract rupture
bile peritonitis
diseases causing extra hepatic biliary obstruction such as gall bladder mucocele, choleliths, pancreatitis, neoplasia

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295
Q

in gall bladder surgery, which part is better to try to preserve?

A

common bile duct better to keep than the gall bladder

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296
Q

what makes hepatic and biliary surgery challenging?

A

high risk surgery and GA

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297
Q

list peri-op considerations for hepatic surgery

A

hypotension, ideally monitor BP with art line
hypothermia
haemorrhage
IVFT
drug choices
ventilation
IV antibiotics
blood glucose

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298
Q

why are liver surgical patients prone to hypothermia?

A

liver is highly metabolic
open abdominal surgery

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299
Q

how should you prepare for haemorrhage during liver surgery?

A

haemostasis available
blood products

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300
Q

list post-op care for liver patients

A

intensive nursing for 24 hours, longer if biliary or PSS
analgesia
IVFT
antibiotics
diet management
parameter monitoring
BP
monitor for haemorrhage, hypotension
temperature monitoring
blood glucose
sepsis monitoring
check for bile leakage
mentation
PCV, TS, electrolytes, acid base

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301
Q

how many PSS are congenital?

A

80%

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302
Q

what are causes of congenital PSS?

A

65-75% extra hepatic, in small breed dogs (westie, yorkie, cairn)
25-35% intrahepatic, in large breed dogs (wolf hound, labs)

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303
Q

how many PSS are acquired?

A

20%

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304
Q

what causes acquired PSS?

A

secondary to other disease such as chronic portal hypertension

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305
Q

describe PSS

A

anomalous blood vessel connecting hepatic portal vein to vena cava/systemic venous circulation so portal blood bypasses the liver

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306
Q

list clinical signs of PSS

A

GI signs
LUTD
coagulopathies
slow growth

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307
Q

what causes PSS clinical signs?

A

reduced oxygen and nutrient supply to the liver
altered metabolism of fat and protein
low protein production
reduced detox
lower urea production and higher ammonia in urine

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308
Q

what is seen on labs in PSS patients?

A

low albumin
low cholesterol
high bile acids
high ammonia

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309
Q

describe how to do a bile acid stim test

A

12 hour fast to remove bile acids in the blood
take blood sample
feed
retake blood sample 2 hours later
use serum gel or plain tube

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310
Q

what causes acute liver disease?

A

toxins
infection

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311
Q

list nursing considerations for acute liver disease patients

A

manage encephalopathy
give lactulose
monitor electrolytes
anti-emetics
blood glucose
coagulopathies
antioxidants if needed

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312
Q

how is PSS treated?

A

hydrate and regulate blood potassium
restrict protein
lactulose
antibiotics to minimise ammonia by gut flora
surgical closure of the shunt

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313
Q

what are types of chronic inflammatory liver disease?

A

sterile or infectious

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314
Q

what causes sterile chronic inflammatory liver disease?

A

copper or idiopathic for dogs
lymphocytic cholangitis in cats

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315
Q

what causes infectious chronic inflammatory liver disease?

A

cholangitis/inflammation of bile duct system
cholangiohepatitis/inflammation of the bile ducts, gall bladder and surrounding liver tissue
leptospirosis
FIP

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316
Q

how is inflammatory liver disease treated?

A

de-coppering therapy
antibiotics
diet modification
anti-oxidants
anti-inflammatories
choleretics
treating encephalopathy
ascites management

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317
Q

what can you use for decoppering therapy?

A

chelating agent (bonds to heavy metal)
zinc therapy
prescription diet
manage water source

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318
Q

how do choleretics work?

A

synthetic bile salts to stimulate bile flow
modulates inflammatory response in liver

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319
Q

list metabolic liver diseases

A

gall bladder mucoceles
feline hepatic lipidosis

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320
Q

what is gall bladder mucocele?

A

gall bladder fills with inspissated bile and mucus

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321
Q

what are the consequences of gall bladder mucocele?

A

asymptomatic
obstruct bile flow
ruptured gall bladder

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322
Q

how can you manage gall bladder mucocele?

A

medical management
surgical removal

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323
Q

how does feline hepatic lipidosis occur?

A

hepatocyte triglyceride deposition when anorexic, fat stores mobilise for energy and accumulate in liver

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324
Q

list predispositions for feline hepatic lipidosis

A

obesity
high fat diet
high carb diet
systemic illness
diabetes mellitis

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325
Q

what are the effects of feline hepatic lipidosis?

A

intra cellular fat accumulation
liver failure - encephalopathy, coagulopathy
death

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326
Q

how is feline hepatic lipidosis treated?

A

treat underlying disease
nutritional support with tube feeding

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327
Q

list signs of hepatic neoplasia

A

asymptomatic
hepatic and obstructive symptoms
rupture and haemoabdomen

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328
Q

how can hepatic neoplasias be treated?

A

primary - surgery
infiltrative - chemotherapy
metastatic - no treatment

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329
Q

list primary boas problems

A

stenotic nares
elongated and thick soft pallete
hypoplastic trachea
excess tissue in skin and airways
everted laryngeal saccules
hyperplastic tonsils

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330
Q

describe how boas patients present

A

loud breathing
snoring
exercise and heat intolerance
gagging
regurg

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331
Q

list compensatory mechanisms for boas

A

harder inspiratory pull

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332
Q

what are the consequences of boas compensatory mechanism

A

negative pressure in the throat, neck and chest causing secondary respiratory and GI issues

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333
Q

list secondary boas problems as a result of compensatory mechanisms

A

hiatal hernia
laryngeal collapse
reduced quality of life
regurg and aspiration

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334
Q

how is boas diagnosed?

A

physical exam
history
sedated exam
fluroscopy
barium swallow
CT
rhinoscopy
chest x-rays

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335
Q

list management of BOAS long term

A

dont breed, especially if clinically affected
minimal stress
avoid heat
manage weight
harness not collar
surgery to correct abnormalities

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336
Q

list pre-op considerations for boas surgery

A

bloods
asa grade
oxygen
minimal handling and stress
eye lube
prepare for regurg

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337
Q

what can lead to shorter prognosis of boas patients?

A

if severe disease

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338
Q

list surgical options for boas patients

A

shorten and thinning of soft pallette
laryngoplasty
laryngeal tie back
wedge resection of nostrils

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339
Q

what is laryngeal paralysis?

A

dysfunction of the laryngeal nerves causing paralysis of the larynx.

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340
Q

what is the consequence of laryngeal paralysis?

A

fails to open on inspiration and close on swallowing
can cause partial obstruction of upper airways

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341
Q

describe typical laryngeal paralysis presentation

A

large older dogs
exercise intolerance
cough
inspiratory stridor
respiratory distress

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342
Q

list first aid care for laryngeal paralysis

A

keep cool and calm
oxygen
possibly give butorphanol to calm and as anti-tussive
monitor for aspiration pneumonia, dysphagia (discomfort swallowing), megaoesphagus
steroids for reducing laryngeal oedema

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343
Q

how is laryngeal paralysis diagnosed?

A

laryngeal exam under sedation/ga

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344
Q

how is laryngeal paralysis managed long term?

A

weight loss
harness not lead
keep calm
avoid heat
dont feed dry food - dust can be inhaled
laryngeal tie back
raised feeding
no swimming

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345
Q

why is aspiration pneumonia a risk in laryngeal paralysis?

A

larynx cant close appropriately during eating and swallowing so food may be aspirated

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346
Q

list risk factors for tracheal collapse

A

small and toy breeds
obesity
middle aged
breeds - chihuahua, pom, shih tzu, lhasa apsos, poodle, yorkie

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347
Q

how does tracheal collapse occur?

A

tracheal rings lose rigidity, usually at the thoracic inlet
membrane of trachea sags making it hard for air to pass through to lungs

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348
Q

describe presentation of tracheal collapse

A

goose honking cough, worse with excitement, pressure on neck or hot weather, after eating or drinking

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349
Q

how is tracheal collapse diagnosed?

A

physical exam
x-ray/fluroscopy
bronchoscopy

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350
Q

what is grade 1 tracheal collapse?

A

25% loss of lumen

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351
Q

what is grade 2 tracheal collapse?

A

50% loss of lumen

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352
Q

what is grade 3 tracheal collapse?

A

75% loss of lumen

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353
Q

what is grade 4 tracheal collapse?

A

total loss of lumen

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354
Q

how is tracheal collapse managed?

A

oxygen
airway management
surgery
anti-inflammatories
anti-tussives
butorphanol
steroids
bronchodilators
no collar
weight loss
exercise restriction
harness

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355
Q

what surgeries can be done for tracheal collapse?

A

extraluminal ring prosthesis
intraluminal stenting

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356
Q

what does a tracheostomy bypass?

A

nares
pharynx
larynx
proximal trachea

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357
Q

list reasons for permenant tracheostomy

A

physical or functional obstruction of upper airway
upper airway compromised
stabilise patients in acute respiratory distress
laryngeal paralysis
BOAS
FB
laryngeal trauma
severe chronic respiratory obstruction

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358
Q

list nursing considerations for tracheostomy tubes

A

high levels of nursing care
maintaining airway
keep clean
keep comfortable
remove secretions
humidification
tube care

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359
Q

list potential problems with tracheostomy tubes

A

blockage
infection
water getting into tube
overheating (less efficient cooling)

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360
Q

how do you care for trach tubes?

A

initially every 15 minutes then every 4-6 hours when stable
monitor respiration, dyspnoea, cyanosis
issues with stoma site
coughing
discharge
routine suctioning

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361
Q

describe how to suction trach tubes

A

pre-oxygenate
aseptic technqiue
use long soft catheter no longer than tip of trach, move in circular motions while suctioning and withdrawing for 15 seconds
light and intermittent suctioning

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362
Q

how do you manage blocked trach tubes?

A

change inner lumen if can be removed
full removal is aseptic, using stay sutures to keep site open and place new tube

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363
Q

why is humidification needed for patients with trach tubes?

A

trach bypasses URT humidification
drying can damage muscosa, cause inflammation, irritation, thick mucus and dehydration

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364
Q

how do you humidify air for patients with trach tubes?

A

humidification filter
nebulisation
can do small volumes of sterile saline down tube

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365
Q

list equipment needed for nasopharyngeal FB removal

A

rhinoscope (flexible)
crocodile forceps
flush

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366
Q

list risks of nasopharyngeal FB removal

A

damage to nasopharynx
bleeding
incomplete removal of FB
aspiration

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367
Q

what is peri-op care for nasopharyngeal FB removal?

A

oxygen
close monitoring
analgesia
anti-inflammatories

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368
Q

what is aspergillosis?

A

fungal infection - aspergillus fumigatus
commonly of the nose where fungus produces alfatoxins causing inflammatory response and destruction of bone and turbinates

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369
Q

what can cause secondary aspergillosis?

A

FB

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370
Q

how can aspergillosis become systemic?

A

if fungus enters the body via respiratory tract and travels in the blood

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371
Q

list risk factors for aspergillosis

A

dogs with immune compromise as is opportunistic
meso and dociocephalic dogs more prone

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372
Q

list clinical signs of aspergillosis

A

nasal discharge
epistaxis
sneezing
nasal pain
nasal depigmentation
less commonly facial deformity, stertor or CNS signs

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373
Q

how is aspergillosis diagnosed?

A

rhinoscopy
tissue biopsy as fungus not in nasal discharge
MRI, CT to see turbinate destruction
bloods are non specific

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374
Q

list risks of aspergillosis diagnosis and treatment

A

epistaxis
aspiration
less access to head for GA monitoring

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375
Q

how is aspergillosis treated?

A

topical antifungal into nostrils and sinuses sealed in
turned every 15 minutes for hour for full contact
suction out
debride

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376
Q

why is aspergillosis not treated with oral meds?

A

not effective
systemic effects

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377
Q

list post-op care for aspergillosis

A

cold pack on nose
analgesia
keep patient calm
monitor respiration

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378
Q

used to be standard post op care for ortho patients and how has it changed?

A

6-12 weeks cage rest, but now involves more rehab

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379
Q

how can understanding the healing process help the post-op recovery process?

A

means you can avoid excessive strain and stress while challenging tissues in recovery to encourage return to normal function

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380
Q

list the stages of surgical recovery

A

post operative
regeneration
remodelling

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381
Q

what is post operative phase of recovery?

A

24-72 hours
pain, oedema, healing tissues

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382
Q

what treatment is done during the post-operative phase of recovery?

A

analgesia
cryotherapy
rest
non-weight bearing movement

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383
Q

what is the regenerative phase of recovery?

A

day 5 to 3 weeks
new collagen fibres forming for soft tissues
bone calluses forming in ortho
important not to disrupt these processes

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384
Q

how is the regenerative phase of recovery managed?

A

controlled lead exercise
PROM and AROM

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385
Q

what is the remodelling phase of recovery?

A

6 weeks to 1 year
consolidation - cellular to fibrous tissue, strength and alignment for ST
maturation - vascularity and metabolic rate returns to normal at 10wks to a year for ST
remodelling - reunion of bone

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386
Q

when can active exercise start in recovery?

A

remodelling phase

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387
Q

what is the main risk for cruciate disease?

A

obesity
other cruciate gone

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388
Q

what management can be done pre cruciate disease surgery?

A

weight management
hydrotherapy

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389
Q

list treatment options for cruciate disease

A

small dogs can leave
TTA/tibial tuberosity advancement
TPLO/tibial plataeu leveling osteotomy
lateral suture

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390
Q

what is the disadvantage of not treating cruciate disease?

A

very prone to OA

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391
Q

how do you rehab after cruciate surgery?

A

active exercise
hydro
slow return to normal

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392
Q

what affects choice of treatment for cruciate disease?

A

patient size
client preference
clinician preference

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393
Q

what effects fracture treatment options?

A

degree of fracture
site
any disease affecting healing
soft tissue damage
open wounds

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394
Q

how do you rehab following fracture repair?

A

analgesia
restricted exercise until callus formed
cold compress
encourage use and ROM slowly
supportive dressing if needed to stabilise and reduce pain

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395
Q

what are considerations for ex-fix of fractures?

A

can be hard to apply treatment
can massage/PROM
need to extend distal limb as naturally flex in fixator

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396
Q

what are considerations for joint surgery?

A

very painful
manage with experienced staff and consequences can be severe if go wrong

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397
Q

list post op care for joint surgeries

A

analgesia
cryotherapy
pressure dressing for pain and swelling
PROM
massage
slow and controlled movement
keep calm

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398
Q

what are the benefits of PROM?

A

maintain ROM
maintain blood and lymphatic circulation
stimulate sensory awareness

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399
Q

how do you manage patients following tendon surgery?

A

rest
NSAIDs
PROM after 3 weeks
limited exercise for 6 weeks

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400
Q

list goals of recovery following ortho surgery

A

weight bearing
active ROM to be good
muscle building to support limb and function

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401
Q

what are the benefits or rehab?

A

assists return to function
minimise stress on surgical site

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402
Q

what are considerations for rehab following ortho surgery?

A

need to fully understand the condition
subjective and objective process
altered and assessed for healing
ensure pain management throughout

403
Q

how to manage ortho patients pre-surgery?

A

cryotherapy to manage swelling
support dressings for swelling and analgesia
weight bear if possible to minimise muscle atrophy
analgesia
assess lifestyle and other conditions

404
Q

what are the benefits of cryotherapy?

A

vasoconstriction
analgesic effect
reduced oedema

405
Q

how do you perform cryotherapy?

A

15 minutes 3x daily
no direct contact

406
Q

what are the benefits of heat therapy?

A

increase blood flow and elasticity

407
Q

why should you be careful of using heat therapy?

A

can cause burns especially if has reduced sensation

408
Q

what are the benefits of massage?

A

increased blood flow and oxygen supply
removes waste products
muscle works more efficiently and less painful
calming
aid venous and lymphatic return
mobilises adhesions
prepare for exercise and physio
recovery after exercise

409
Q

list assisted exercises

A

standing
weight shifting
balance boards
swiss ball
muscle stimulation
slow walks
stairs
sit to stand to sit
wheel barrowing
dancing
hydro

410
Q

why is communication needed for rehabilitation of patients?

A

details of progression and treatment
make sure everyone involved knows whats going on

411
Q

define incision

A

clean sharp cut through full thickness skin

412
Q

define laceration

A

jagged cut/tear to the skin, damages deeper tissues

413
Q

define abrasion

A

superficial skin damage caused by friction parallel to the skin surface, doesnt extend deep into the dermis

414
Q

define avulsion

A

injury where tissue is separated from underlying tissues such as ligaments, muscle or skin

415
Q

define contusion

A

bruising
underlying damage to capillaries

416
Q

define crush injury

A

tissue has been compressed causing direct tissue injury or secondary injury from damage to blood supply

417
Q

define haematoma

A

blood vessel damage underneath the skin causing blood accumulation

418
Q

define puncture

A

deep penetrating wound

419
Q

list possible causes of puncture wounds

A

bites
gunshot
stabbing
grass seed
insect bites

420
Q

define shearing injury

A

when tissue is damaged as layers move over each other

421
Q

what can cause bite injuries

A

cat
dog
adder

422
Q

what are the consequences of adder bites?

A

rapid inflammation and tissue necrosis

423
Q

list types of burns

A

thermal
chemical
electrical
radiation

424
Q

define degloving injuries

A

skin is removed from a limb or tail like a glove

425
Q

what are the two types of degloving injuries?

A

mechanical
physiological

426
Q

how does mechanical degloving occur?

A

skin is pulled from subdermal attachments

427
Q

how does physiological degloving occur?

A

skin necroses and sloughs due to damage to blood supply

428
Q

define desiccation

A

dried out

429
Q

define eschar

A

scab

430
Q

define excoriated

A

skin has been abraded/is raw/irritated

431
Q

define exudate

A

fluid full of inflammatory cells

432
Q

define hygroma

A

soft fluid filled mass on bony prominences

433
Q

define maceration

A

breakdown of skin due to prolonged exposure to moisture

434
Q

define seroma

A

fluid filled swelling often associated with dead space after surgery

435
Q

define debridement

A

removal of necrotic or damaged tissues

436
Q

define defect (in terms of wounds)

A

missing skin

437
Q

what is a class 1 wound?

A

0-6hours
minimal contamination

438
Q

what is a class 2 wound?

A

6-12 hours
microbial burden not reached critical level but are increasing

439
Q

what is a class 3 wound?

A

more than 12 hours
wound infection present

440
Q

what can wounds be contaminated with?

A

micro-organisms or debris

441
Q

how can you describe the degree of wound infection?

A

superficial
deep
systemic

442
Q

what determines treatment of wounds?

A

class of the wound

443
Q

list considerations for patients presentingwith open wounds

A

full clinical exam
history
pre-existing conditions
meds
signalment - breed, species, age, sex
wound position
type of wound
class of wound
cause of wound
infection
temperament
client funds and expectations

444
Q

how can steroids impact wound healing?

A

delay inflammatory cells, fibroblasts, collagen formation, scar contraction and epithelial migration

445
Q

how does age affect patients with wounds?

A

older have reduced dermal thickness and lower microcirculation

446
Q

how do cats and dogs differ in wound healing?

A

dogs have higher density of collateral sc trunk vessels
primary closure incisions have breaking strength 50% less in cats by day 7
cats have decreased skin perfusion in first week of healing
cats have less granulation tissue and slower epithelialisation

447
Q

describe initial assessment done for patients with wounds

A

general exam and history
any trauma
vital signs
analgesia
first aid
monitoring
stabilisation

448
Q

what happens in the inflammatory stage of wound healing?

A

haemorrhage
vasoconstriction for haemostasis and wound closure
vasodilation for increased vascular permeability and inflammatory cells to area

449
Q

what stage of wound healing occurs at 0-5 days?

A

inflammatory

450
Q

when does the debridement stage of wound healing occur?

A

day 0 onwards

451
Q

what happens in the debridement stage of wound healing?

A

phagocytosis
migration of WBC
removal of cellular debris

452
Q

when does the proliferative stage of wound healing occur?

A

day 3 to 4 weeks

453
Q

what happens in the proliferative stage of wound healing?

A

fibroblasts proliferate
collagen synthesis
granulation
epithelialisation
contraction

454
Q

what happens in the remodelling stage of wound healing?

A

wound contraction
remodelling of collagen fibres
scar formation

455
Q

when does the remodelling stage of wound healing occur?

A

day 20 onwards

456
Q

when is wound lavage done?

A

all wounds

457
Q

what are the benefits of wound lavage?

A

reduce bacterial load - every hour earlier done bacterial load lower by half
visualise underlying tissues
rehydrate necrotic tissue
remove foreign material
remove toxins and cytokines

458
Q

list considerations for wound lavage?

A

volume - 100-150ml/cm, 19g needle on 40ml syringe
pressure
isotonic warmed saline
sedate
analgesia

459
Q

why would you not apply too much pressure for wound lavage?

A

may further penetrate debris

460
Q

what steps are taken before wound lavage?

A

aseptic approach
clip and sterile prep, gel on wound to trap fur

461
Q

list options for wound healing

A

primary closure/first intention healing
delayed primary closure/third intention healing/secondary closure
second intention healing/contraction and epithelialisation

462
Q

what is primary closure of wounds?

A

immediate surgical repair

463
Q

how is delayed primary closure done?

A

closed surgically when appropriate

464
Q

what is secondary closure of wounds?

A

closure after long term treatment

465
Q

how do you manage non-healing wounds?

A

keep monitoring, photos
swab for infection
consider patient factors and client compliance
assess dressings

466
Q

what are proposed benefits of laser for wound healing?

A

pain relief
increased vascular activity
anti-inflammatory action
faster wound healing
nerve regeneration
rapid cell growth

467
Q

why may laser not be used for wound healing?

A

not enough evidence for efficacy

468
Q

list considerations for managing second intention healing

A

topical agents
dressings
bandage material
client compliance
cost
expertise

469
Q

list general principles of managing second intention healing

A

non-introduction of anything harmful
tissue rest - movement restriction, minimal dressing changes
wound drainage
keep good circulation
cleanliness

470
Q

what topical agents can be used in second intention healing?

A

honey
hydrocolloids
silver
negative pressure wound healing

471
Q

why may clients not want to go through with second intention healing?

A

can be very expensive
painful
contractures may need revision surgery

472
Q

what are the benefits of negative pressure wound healing?

A

reduces oedema and exudate accumulation so eliminates strike through
increased central wound perfusion and vascularisation to aid inflammatory phase and wbcs and enzymes to area
rapid contraction and wound healing
reduced dressing changes

473
Q

what are the benefits of menuka honey for wound healing?

A

honey makes wounds more acidic which increases oxygen supressing proteases
better granulation as a result
shorter inflammatory phase

474
Q

how do proteases impair wound healing?

A

destroy growth factors and proteins so excess amounts at wounds cause protein fibre and fibrin breakdown
fibroblasts and epithelial cells struggle to migrate across the wound leading to prolonged inflammatory phase

475
Q

list considerations when using honey on wounds

A

higher exudate due to high sugar content causing osmolality effect
keep on for 3-4 days
consider cellular damage in healthy granulating wounds and epithelialisation

476
Q

when do you stop putting honey on wounds and why?

A

after granulation has occurred to avoid over granulation

477
Q

what could you use on granulated wounds and why?

A

hydrogel to aid healing and epithelialisation

478
Q

what is over granulation?

A

excess scar tissue formation which limits epithelialisation

479
Q

how is silver used for wounds?

A

not commonly
topical
antimicrobial effects so used in inflammatory phase

480
Q

how do wet to dry dressings work?

A

overhydrate then completely dry wound bed
when removed debride the wound

481
Q

what are the disadvantages of wet to dry dressings?

A

drying of the wound bed compromises healing
debridement is non-specific so can remove helpful cells and tissues
bacteria can penetrate
uncomfortable to remove
can leave fibres behind

482
Q

what are the benefits of moisture retentive dressings?

A

allow healing as wound doesnt dry out
removes exudate
promote optimal function of cells for healing
lower infection rates
less frequent bandage change
lower overall cost

483
Q

when should hydrogel dressings be used?

A

aid end stage of healing
applied to wound bed and covered with secondary non-absorbent dressing

484
Q

list examples of hydrogel

A

intrasite
granugel

485
Q

what is a hydrogel?

A

water based amorphous cohesive application

486
Q

list examples of hydrocolloid dressings?

A

aquagel
granuflex

487
Q

what are hydrocolloid dressings and how are they used?

A

carboxymethylated cellulose, pectin and gelatine that forms non-adherant gel
placed in contact with the wound

488
Q

list examples of vapour permeable films and membrane dressings

A

primapore
melolin

489
Q

what is the composition of vapour permeable films and membrane dressings?

A

sheet of absorbant material between two thin layers of film with small pores for movement of gas and fluid

490
Q

why are vapour permeable membranes and films used at the end of wound healing?

A

not highly absorbent so used when less exudate

491
Q

name a type of foam dressing

A

allyven

492
Q

when are foam dressings used and why?

A

well absorbant for initial stages of healing

493
Q

what is the composition of foam dressings?

A

hydrophillic dressings made of polyurethane foam
can be adhesive or non-adhesive
breathable film backing

494
Q

what are considerations for applying bandages?

A

patient interference
comfort
secondary bandage concerns
changing
positioning

495
Q

list issues associated with bandages

A

tightness
inadequate padding
dirty
wet
not resting

496
Q

when are tie over dressings used?

A

hard to bandage areas

497
Q

what are issues associated with tie over dressings?

A

strike through
contamination

498
Q

how do you decide which surgical wound reconstruction option to do?

A

simplest choice possible

499
Q

list surgical wound reconstruction options from most simple to most difficult

A

simple closure
subdermal plexus/pedicle flap
axial pattern flap
free skin graft

500
Q

list pros of simple wound closure

A

simple
quick
easy

501
Q

list disadvantages to simple wound closure

A

relies on accurate wound assessment
cant do if infected
cant do if non-viable tissue present
can have excess tension
breakdown occurs if inappropriately assessed

502
Q

list cases most appropriate for simple wound closure

A

primary or delayed primary closure
full thickness defects
incisions
fresh, clean or clean contaminated wounds
little defects
little debridement needed

503
Q

what are advantages of subdermal plexus flap for wound reconstruction?

A

simple and versatile
good for medium sized wounds
reduces tension on wound healing

504
Q

list disadvantages of subdermal plexus flap for wound reconstruction

A

relies on accurate assessment
size limitations
can damage plexus
too big flaps can cause vascular necrosis due to inadequate blood supply
poor technique can cause vascular necrosis and plexus damage

505
Q

what wounds are suitable for subdermal plexus flap wound reconstruction?

A

primary, delayed primary or secondary closure
fresh clean wounds
bandaged or being treated for a while and clean at point of surgery
any location
medium sized wounds
may have had prior debridement

506
Q

what are advantages of axial pattern flap for wound reconstruction?

A

flap comes with good blood supply
longer and wider flaps possible than subdermal
rapid healing of chronic wounds possible

507
Q

list disadvantages of axial pattern flap for wound reconstruction

A

complex procedure
flap necrosis could be catastrophic
good post op care vital
can have poor cosmetic results

508
Q

what wounds are suitable for reconstruction with axial pattern flap?

A

secondary closure
clean at time of surgery
large defect areas

509
Q

what are the two types of skin grafts?

A

sheet graft
punch graft

510
Q

what are advantages of skin grafts for wound reconstruction?

A

punch grafts simple
sheet grafts good for large deficits
rapid healing of chronic wounds
when it fails the body is often triggered to heal without graft

511
Q

what are disadvantages of skin grafts for wound reconstruction?

A

lower success rates
sheet grafts complex and need committed team and owners
needs healthy granulation bed
good post-op care vital
partial and complete failure not uncommon

512
Q

what wounds are appropriate for skin grafts for reconstruction?

A

secondary wounds
limb wounds or areas flaps arent an option

513
Q

how is simple closure of wounds done?

A

under GA or sedation using basic kit or staples
may need bandaging

514
Q

describe how a subdermal plexus flap is performed

A

skin is elevated and dissected away from underlying muscles to preserve vessels
skins elasticity means skin can be moved to cover larger defecit, rotated or advanced depending on wound site and tension

515
Q

what makes a subdermal flap possible?

A

there is a generous plex of small arteries and veins in subdermal tissues under the skin

516
Q

list some specific subdermal flaps used

A

flank fold flap - inguinal wounds
elbow fold flap - axillary wounds

517
Q

how does an axial pattern flap work?

A

flap of tissue used incorporates direct cutaneous artery and vein that supplies large areas of skin
is raised and moved to cover large defects

518
Q

what are the advantages of axial pattern flap compared to subdermal plexus flap?

A

less chance of breakdown due to vascular necrosis

519
Q

what needs to happen before skin grafts can be done?

A

healthy bed of granulation tissue present

520
Q

how do skin grafts work?

A

skin grows to fill any gaps left by the graft

521
Q

describe how sheet grafts are performed

A

skin is taken from other site, which is closed as primary wound, and holes made in graft before applying to wound and suturing in

522
Q

how are punch grafts performed?

A

small punches of skin taken from other site on the body then applied to the wound and sutured in

523
Q

list questions to ask before planning wound treatment

A

defect size
will it get bigger after debridement
how easy is healing going to be
any other issues
how much viable tissue
cause and type of wound
patient health
temperament
signalment
factors affecting healing
when is it going to surgery
how mobile is the area
how much spare skin

524
Q

what are some patient factors that affect wound healing?

A

immunosupressive cases
steroids
poor nutrition

525
Q

list considerations for wound treatment

A

what is the wound
cause of wound
patient
closure options
other treatments
location of the wound

526
Q

how do you manage unstable patients with wounds?

A

protect wound from further damage while assessing and stabilising

527
Q

what is the goals of wound healing?

A

minimise healing time
maximise function
consider cost

528
Q

list client considerations for surgical wound healing

A

cost - surgery may be cheaper than bandaging
compliance for revisits and home management
practicalities of treatment

529
Q

what are the 4 factors you are monitoring in wounds?

A

tissue
infection/inflammation
moisture
epithelialisation

530
Q

what are you monitoring in terms of tissues in wound management?

A

viability

531
Q

what are the types of viable tissue and what do they look like?

A

epithelial - healthy pale pink
granulation - red and moist, bleeds easily

532
Q

what are the types of non-viable tissue and what do they look like?

A

sloughing - yellow/grey/brown
necrotic - black, hard and dry

533
Q

what makes assessing viability of tissues in wound challenging?

A

hard to know whats viable
some may not present until few days later

534
Q

why does necrotic tissue need to be removed?

A

promotes infection

535
Q

when can you perform tissue debridement?

A

on presentation in stable patients and those undergoing primary repair
delayed in unstable patient, those with large wound management and bandages and undergoing delayed primary repair

536
Q

how and when can you do wound debridement?

A

all at once if stable
gradually with surgery or bandages

537
Q

what are the benefits of debridement?

A

remove necrotic tissue
promote healthy tissue granulation
remove contamination

538
Q

what are the methods of wound debridement?

A

surgical
bandages
chemical

539
Q

how do you prevent and manage infections in wounds?

A

clean if contaminated
debride if colonisation
topical antibiotics if local infection
systemic antibiotics if systemic infection

540
Q

what indicates a wound has pre-existing infection?

A

age of wound
smell
discharge

541
Q

what can affect risk of infection of wounds?

A

site of wound
wound aetiology
degree of contamination
wound lavage

542
Q

when is inflammation good and bad during wound healing?

A

good if its granulation and healing
bad if its infection

543
Q

how do you manage optimal moisture balance of wounds?

A

too moist if macerated or excoriated so dry out
too dry if dessiccated or or eschar present, moisten

544
Q

what is wound discharge?

A

maceration or pus

545
Q

what do you monitor for wound epithelialisation?

A

healing or not progressing

546
Q

what is monitored when looking at epithelialisation of wound healing?

A

wound edges
measurements
photos
tissue around wound
progression

547
Q

what can be seen for wound edges in epithelialisation?

A

pink and smooth is healing
dark, red or uneven are not healing

548
Q

what are you observing when assessing tissue around the wound?

A

cellulitis
oedema
skin

549
Q

how can you promote epitelialisation?

A

manage tissues, moisture and infection/inflammation
protect new epithelial tissue as prone to rub away
care with bandages as can compromise

550
Q

how do you surgically debride?

A

sharp dissection to removal all contaminated necrotic tissue

551
Q

how can you physically debride wounds?

A

adherent dressings that remove tissue when removed such as wet to dry

552
Q

how can you chemically debride?

A

chemical substances such as intrasite to remove dead tissue

553
Q

what are the key considerations when bandaging open wounds?

A

protect - self trauma, contamination, infection, dessication
provide - analgesia, immobilisation, pressure for swelling and haemorrhage, give topical meds
debride
moisture - maintain optimum moisture balance

554
Q

list nurses roles in wound management

A

continuity
advocacy
nurse clinics
clinical audits

555
Q

what do you need to advocate for in wound management cases?

A

client - cost, practicality, emotional support
patient - boredom, best treatments, complications
antimicrobial stewardship

556
Q

define surgical site infection

A

type of hospital acquired infection, can present up to 30 days after leaving hospital

557
Q

what affects risk of SSI?

A

patient
surgery

558
Q

list consequences of SSI

A

poor healing
delayed healing
increased cost
revision surgery needed
not meeting expectations
compromise to patient welfare
pain
increased antibiotic use

559
Q

what should you do if you suspect an SSI?

A

identify infection
assess extent
culture based antibiotics
good wound management
good infection control

560
Q

how do you identify infections following surgery?

A

usually source is the wound
may be other source

561
Q

what are the different extent of SSI?

A

incision site
deep into tissues
internally
systemically

562
Q

why should antibiotics be culture based?

A

allows appropriate and effective antibiotics to be used

563
Q

what makes good wound handling?

A

aseptic handling
keeping wound clean

564
Q

when should you carry out good infection control?

A

pre, peri and post op

565
Q

what are sources of introduction of SSI?

A

exogenous
endogenous
poor prep of equipment, patient and surgical staff

566
Q

what are exogenous sources of infection?

A

sources from outside the body

567
Q

how do endogenous sources cause infections?

A

from skins flora, normally not an issue but surgery or other disease can affect the immune system so can opportunistically cause infection

568
Q

what predisposes patients to infection?

A

patient factors
environmental factors
treatment factors

569
Q

what patient factors predispose for infection?

A

body condition
age - over 10 years have poor immune response, under 1 year have underdeveloped immune system
malnutrition - lower albumin so poorer response
immunosupression
endocrinopathies
remote infection - seeding in blood
opportunistic skin disease
recent op - foreign material such as sutures can develop bacteria

570
Q

how can environmental factors increase risk of infection?

A

patient prep - clipper rash increases risk, hair in site, incorrect prep solutions
contamination
poor handwashing
non-aseptic handling
theatre - poor cleaning, inadequate ventilation (high temp good for bacteria

571
Q

how can treatment affect risk of SSI?

A

time - infection rate doubles per hour of surgery
surgeon experience
poor antibiotic prophylaxis
emergency procedure - may not be ideal but die without
implants - FB, may not be sterile or contaminated
suture material choice

572
Q

what is the most important part of infection control?

A

handwashing

573
Q

when should you do handwashing?

A

before and after touching patients or surrounding
before aseptic tasks
before gloving
after exposure to contaminated materials

574
Q

what is a clean surgical wound?

A

non-traumatic surgical wound
no opening to resp, GI, genitourinary or oropharyngeal tracts

575
Q

what is infection rate for clean surgical wounds?

A

0-4.4%

576
Q

when is infection likely to occur in clean surgical wounds?

A

over 90 min surgery
implants
inexperienced surgeon

577
Q

what is a clean contaminated surgical wound?

A

surgical wounds involving entry to the resp, GI, genitourinary or oropharyngeal tracts
when drains are placed

578
Q

what is infection rate for clean contaminated surgical wounds?

A

4.5-9.3%

579
Q

what should you do in surgery for clean contaminated wounds?

A

antibiotic prophylaxis

580
Q

what is a contaminated surgical wound?

A

open wounds
spillage of GI contents or infected urine
breakage of asepsis

581
Q

what is infection rate for contaminated surgical wounds?

A

5.8-28.6%

582
Q

how can you try to prevent infection in contaminated surgical wounds?

A

lavage
debridement
antibiotic therapy

583
Q

what are dirty surgical wounds?

A

old purulent wounds
FB
faecal contamination
infected skin at surgical site

584
Q

what surgeries should antibiotics be used for?

A

implants
surgery over 90 mins
clean contaminated, contaminated or dirty procedures

585
Q

how do you choose antibiotics for surgical wounds?

A

culture
while waiting for culture can assume contamination is by staph or ecoli

586
Q

how do you give antibiotics through surgery?

A

30-60 mins pre op
every 90 mins
stop within 24 hrs for clean surgery

587
Q

what is the normal cause of hip dysplasia?

A

inherited developmental disease

588
Q

list characteristics of hip dysplasia

A

laxity of hip joint
development of OA

589
Q

describe common signalment for hip dysplasia

A

large and giant breed dogs
4-12months with hip laxity
adult with secondary OA
history of hindlimb stiffness

590
Q

why is limping uncommonly seen in hip dysplasia?

A

often both hips effected

591
Q

describe how dip dysplasia occurs

A

laxity develops in the joint capsule as 4-5 months allowing subluxation of the hip due to the round or teres ligament stretching/rupturing

592
Q

what factors other than genetics can influence hip dysplasia occuring?

A

size of dog
rate of growth
diet
exercise

593
Q

what are the consequences of laxity associated with hip dysplasia?

A

inflammation
increased joint fluid from inflammation
thickened joint capsule from inflammation
pain
femoral head flattens
new bone produced at margins of head and around neck

594
Q

how do changes assoicated with hip dysplasia occur?

A

rapidly in first year while growing
OA and remoddleing occurs slowly

595
Q

describe typical presentation for hip dysplasia

A

short stride - adduction more comfortable
lateral sway - movement without full movement of hip
bunny hopping - share load
stiffness
exercise intolerance
clunking hips
crepitus
pain on extension
muscle atrophy

596
Q

list investigations done for diagnosing hip dysplasia

A

imaging - VD extended and lateral views to see femoral head position, subluxation and OA, can do frog leg
ortolani test
bardens hip lift test

597
Q

when would you do frog leg x-rays for hip dysplasia and what is the disadvantage of this?

A

to determine if can use double/triple pelvic osteotomy
disadv - masks laxity

598
Q

what is the benefits and negatives of ortolani hip testing for hip dysplasia?

A

assesses severity

not useful if have arthritis or full luxation

599
Q

describe how ortoliani test determines if subluxation is present when testing for hip dysplasia

A

pushing down subluxates the hip and moving the femurs laterally relocates them and bringing back medially subluxates them again

600
Q

what can be measured on ortolani test?

A

angle of reduction and subluxation

601
Q

how is bardens hip test performed?

A

in lateral, trying to lever hip out of socket

602
Q

what are the downsides of bardens hip test?

A

painful

603
Q

list treatment options for hip dysplasia

A

conservative
pectineal myectomy
growth plate fusion/juvenile pubic symphysiodesis
osteotomies - double or triple
THR
femoral head and neck excision
denervation of the dorsal acetabulum

604
Q

what is a pectineal myectomy for treating hip dysplasia?

A

cutting of a small muscle that puts pressure on the hip joint

605
Q

what are the downsides for treating hip dysplasia with pectineal myectomy?

A

doesnt stabilise hip joint
OA will continue to progress
pain is likely to return

606
Q

which surgeries for hip dysplasia can only be done in young dogs diagnosed under the age of 4 months old?

A

growth plate fusion
osteotomies

607
Q

which surgical treatments are most commonly used to treat hip dysplasia?

A

THR
FHNE

608
Q

when is conservative treatment done for hip dysplasia?

A

first line of treatment (unless very young going straight to surgery)

609
Q

why is conservative treatment for hip dysplasia used in first line for most cases?

A

if young dog can allow joint to stabilise by fibrosis and bone remodelling
dogs likely to manage very well on this option

610
Q

describe conservative management for hip dysplasia

A

short regular lead walks
hydrotherapy to maintain muscle mass
controlled food intake to restrict weight and growth
NSAIDs (or other meds)

611
Q

when is surgical management indicated for patients with hip dysplasia?

A

significant clinical signs
fail on conservative treatment

612
Q

name the prophylactic procedures for hip dysplasia

A

growth plate fusion
osteotomies

613
Q

name the salvage procedures for hip dysplasia

A

THR
FHNE

614
Q

describe the process of a growth plate fusion/juvinile pubic symphisiodesis for hip dysplasia treatment

A

closure of the pubic symphysis with electrocautery which creates thermal necrosis
must be done before 4 months of age

615
Q

how does growth plate fusion/juvenile pubic symphisiodesis manage hip dysplasia?

A

causes acetabular ventroversion which increases dorsal cover of femoral head by acetabulum
improves hip congruency and decreases OA progression

616
Q

what procedure is normally done at the same time as growth plate fusion/juvenile pubic symphisiodesis for hip dysplasia and why?

A

neutering
have genetic tendency for hip dysplasia

617
Q

what are the benefits of growth plate fusion/juvenile pubic symphisiodesis?

A

minimally invasive
inexpensive

618
Q

when is triple or double pelvic osteotomy suitable to be performed for hip dysplasia?

A

young animals 4-8 months old
no DJD
good clunk on ortolani
angle of reduction 25-35
angle of subluxation 5-10

619
Q

how doe osteotomies treat hip dysplasia?

A

increases dorsal coverage of femoral head
corrects subluxation
restores weight bearing surface area

620
Q

how is osteotomies performed for hip dysplasia?

A

pelvis cut/osteotomised into two or three pieces (pubis, ischium, ileum)
acetabulum is rotated and stabilised with bone plates and screws

621
Q

what are complications associated with pelvic osteotomies?

A

screw pullout or breakage

622
Q

why are revision surgeries with pelvic osteotomies uncommon even with complications?

A

maintain acetabular coverage

623
Q

what are disadvantages of pelvic osteotomies in treating hip dysplasia?

A

doesnt prevent OA so may need salvage surgery later

624
Q

when is FHNE performed for hip dysplasia?

A

end stage hips
arthritic hips not suitable for other procedures
small animals ideally

625
Q

how does FHNE manage hip dysplasia?

A

prevents pain caused by rubbing

626
Q

how does FHNE work?

A

removal of femoral head and neck causes pseudoarthrosis of fibrous tissue and bone filling the space

627
Q

why is exercise and physio so important after FHNE?

A

to form mobile pseudoarthritis
maintain muscle mass
maintain ROM

628
Q

what is denervation of dorsal acetabulum for hip dysplasia?

A

removal of nerves for pain relief

629
Q

what happens in a THR?

A

femoral head and acetabulum replaced

630
Q

what are the aims of THR?

A

pain relief
high level of function

631
Q

list indications for THR

A

hip arthritis
hip dysplasia

632
Q

what is a cemented THR?

A

cobalt chrome implants held in femur with cement
ultra high molecular weight polyethylene socket cemented in
cobalt femoral head attached

633
Q

why is accurate placement so important for cemented THR?

A

revision difficult having to chip out cement or osteotomise femur to remove

634
Q

describe uncemented THR

A

biological fusion
stem hammered into femoral diaphysis, bone grows into stem
acetabulum reamed out and implant hammered in

635
Q

what is an important consideration for uncemented THR?

A

must have tight fit

636
Q

what can determine use of cemented vs uncemented THR?

A

patient
preference
equipment availavle

637
Q

what are the benefits of THR systems being interchangeable?

A

all can fit on common head

638
Q

why may an uncemented acetabular THR system be prefered?

A

easier to place

639
Q

why may a cemented femoral stem be prefered in THR?

A

less complications

640
Q

how is implant size determined for THR?

A

templates on imaging
adjust as needed for patient in surgery

641
Q

describe the surgical procedure for THR

A

craniolateral hip approach
femoral head excision
ream acetabulum
ream femur
cement acetabular
cement femur
place femoral head
reduce hip
bacterial swab
suture joint capsule
routine closure
post-op x-rays

642
Q

why should you do bacterial swabs after THR?

A

ensure no infection present from surgery

643
Q

what is the benefit of suturing the joint capsule following THR?

A

reduce chance of dislocation

644
Q

why is it so important THR is kept completely sterile?

A

if implant is infected it needs to be removed and can be hard to then manage

645
Q

how long does THR take for the bone/cement/implants to heal?

A

at least 6 weeks

646
Q

list complications following THR?

A

5-15% incidence
fracture
loosening
dislocation
infection
subsidence
cement granuloma
neurological issues

647
Q

state post op care for THR

A

6 weeks strict cage rest
lead walks only
no jumping
no slippery surfaces
must have x-rays before cleared to return to normal gradually

648
Q

what is another name for elbow dysplasia?

A

developmental elbow disease

649
Q

what is the most common cause of elbow lameness?

A

elbow dysplasia

650
Q

list problems that can cause elbow dysplasia

A

ununited anconeal process of the ulna
OCD of medial humeral condyle
fragmented medial coronoid process of the ulna
asynchronous growth of the radius and ulna causing joint incongruity

651
Q

describe typical signalment for elbow dysplasia

A

large breeds
6 months old
older if presenting with OA as secondary disease
males

652
Q

why is it thought males are more prone to elbow dysplasia?

A

grow faster and bigger

653
Q

describe typical history for elbow dysplasia

A

low grade lameness
bilateral
stiffness

654
Q

what can be seen on physical exam in cases of elbow dysplasia?

A

elbow effusion
decreased ROM
pain on flexion and extension
lameness
pain

655
Q

what x-rays can be used to help diagnose elbow dysplasia and lesions?

A

flexed mediolateral
cranio-caudal
neutral lateral for incongruency

656
Q

why is CT more useful than x-rays for elbow dysplasia?

A

gold standard
x-rays may not be able to see primary lesions
more useful for FCP

657
Q

which x-rays veiws are best for viewing the anconeous and osteocyte veiws in the elbow?

A

fully flexed mediolateral

658
Q

which x-ray veiws are best for diagnosing OCD?

A

craniocaudal

659
Q

what does the x-ray veiw cranio-caudal-caudomedial oblique show when looking at elbow dysplasia?

A

coronoid fragmentation

660
Q

what x-ray veiws show the coronoids when looking at the elbow?

A

distomedial-proximolateral oblique views

661
Q

what causes DJD of the elbow?

A

degenerative elbow disease/elbow dysplasia

662
Q

what is effected in DJD of the elbow?

A

dorsal anconeal process and radial head
sclerosis of the ulna notch
flattened or burred FCP
increased humeroradial joint space

663
Q

which breed is most prone to ununited anconeal process?

A

german sheperds

664
Q

how does ununited anconeal process occur?

A

anconeal process should fuse at 4-5 months but when it doesnt elbow stability is compromised and OA begins

665
Q

how is ununited anconeal process diagnosed?

A

fully flexed mediolateral radiographs
CT

666
Q

why does ununited anconeal process occur?

A

short ulna relative to radius
pressure causes anconeal process to separate from the ulna

667
Q

how is ununited anconeal process treated?

A

conservative
removal of anconeal process
proximal dynamic ulna osteotomy
lag screw fixation

668
Q

how is beth so beautiful?

A

so pretty

669
Q

how is treatment for ununited anconeal process decided?

A

age
displacement of anconeus

670
Q

when is removal of the anconeus carried out for ununited anconeal process?

A

older dogs

671
Q

what two treatments are done together with ununited anconeal process?

A

proximal dynamic ulna osteotomy
lag screw fixation

672
Q

how does proximal dynamic ulna osteotomy treat ununited anconeal process?

A

relieves pressure on the anconeal process
allows lengthening of the ulna as the radius grows
removes shear stress on the anconeal process so can reunite with ulna metaphysis

673
Q

what is the aim of lag screw fixation?

A

aim to heal

674
Q

which treatment is gold standard for ununited anconeal procces?

A

lag screw fixation

675
Q

what is the consequence of elbow incongruity?

A

cartilage wear
fragmentation of medial coronoid process

676
Q

how can elbow incongruity be treated?

A

dynamic partial ulna ostectomy to lengthen or shorten ulna depending on relative length to radius
small portion of ulna excised for improved mediohumeral contact

677
Q

what is the benefits of IM pin in dynamic partial ulna ostectomy and why is it not being fully stabilised beneficial?

A

pin provides some stability and pain relief
allows shifting over time to find best fit

678
Q

what is OCD?

A

osteochondritis dissecans

679
Q

what area of the elbow is affected by OCD?

A

medial condyle

680
Q

what can be seen on imaging that indicates OCD?

A

subchondral bone defect on CC view
flattening of the medial humeral condyle
thickening partially detached flap of cartilage overlying subchondral bone defect

681
Q

what disease can occur with OCD?

A

FCP/fragmented coronoid process

682
Q

describe typical presentation of OCD?

A

young dogs 4-6m
lameness
effusion on elbow

683
Q

how can OCD be treated?

A

conservative
surgical

684
Q

what indicates the type of treatment for OCD?

A

size of lesion
degree of lameness

685
Q

describe conservative management for OCD

A

restricted exercise for 4-6 weeks
NSAIDs

686
Q

when is surgery done for OCD?

A

no improvement on conservative
very bad case

687
Q

how is OCD surgically treated?

A

arthroscopy or arthrotomy and debridement of OCD flap
abrasion arthroplasty of subchondral bone to stimulate healing

688
Q

what is the most common disease in dogs with elbow disease?

A

fragmented coronoid process/FCP

689
Q

what can cause FCP?

A

hereditary
shallow ulna notch
short ulna leading to pressure on coronoid

690
Q

describe typical presentation of FCP?

A

6-10 months
medium to large dogs
bilateral disease
stance abnormalities
other elbow diseases

691
Q

how is FCP diagnosed?

A

x-ray to see secondary OA and osteophyte formation
CT - gold standard

692
Q

how is FCP treated?

A

arthroscopic debridement in young dogs with little OA
medical management if OA well estabilshed

693
Q

what determines treatment option for FCP?

A

size of lesion
severity of lameness

694
Q

where is the most common location for FCP?

A

craniolateral aspect of medial coronoid process of the ulna adjacent to radial head

695
Q

what do bone fragments in FCP often look like compared to healthy bone?

A

dead and yellow compared to well vascularised red live bone

696
Q

what is the incidence of developing OA in dogs with elbow dysplasia?

A

all dogs

697
Q

what determines if treatment is needed for elbow OA?

A

severity
clinical signs

698
Q

what medical management can be done for OA?

A

NSAIDs
weight loss
hydro
physio

699
Q

why is arthroscopy useful for cases with elbow OA?

A

assess severity and treatment

700
Q

list goals of OA treatment

A

debride necrotic cartilage
remove sclerotic bone
neovascularisation
recruitment of pluripotent mesenchymal cells

701
Q

how is debridement done is OA?

A

hand burr
hand currete
motorised shaver

702
Q

how is cartilage replenishment encouraged in OA treatment?

A

exposed subchondral bone is treated with abrasion arthroplasty or microfracture

703
Q

what is abrasion arthroplasty?

A

removal of loose cartilage down to subchondral bone with burr until bleeding
joint lavaged to remove fragments

704
Q

how is microfracture done during arthroscopy?

A

angled micro pick pressed into subchondral bone until bleeding observed, joint then lavaged

705
Q

where are problems usually in dogs with elbow dysplasia?

A

medial side compared to lateral

706
Q

how are the two types of long bone osteotomy performed?

A

sliding humeral osteotomy to transfer weight to lateral aspect
abducting ulna osteotomy provides similar results as does proximal dynamic ulna osteotomy

707
Q

what are the benefits of long bone osteotomy for elbow dysplasia?

A

shifting weight allows medial cartilage loss to heal
decreases medial compartment load

708
Q

when are elbow replacements done?

A

too much cartilage loss or OA

709
Q

what can be the result of complications from elbow replacement?

A

more surgery
arthrodesis
amputation

710
Q

what has lowered complication rates for elbow replacements?

A

newer implants

711
Q

what is elbow arthrodesis?

A

elbow fusion

712
Q

when is arthrodesis performed?

A

final salvage procedure for end stage painful joints with unilateral lameness

713
Q

what is the positive and negative result of elbow arthrodesis?

A

relieves pain
gait abnormality

714
Q

what is the work up before elbow arthroscopy?

A

CT

715
Q

when is elbow arthroscopy indicated?

A

explore joints
debridement
surface treatment
lavage for septic arthritis
assisted repair
minimise damage to surrounding tissues and structures

716
Q

list advantages of arthroscopy compared to arthrotomy

A

decreased morbidity
more rapid recovery
decreased complications
improved outcomes
decreased surgical and hospitalisation times

717
Q

list disadvantages of arthroscopy compared to arthrotomy

A

high level of skill needed
long learning curve
high cost equipment
increased client cost

718
Q

what are the dimensions on an arthroscope?

A

1.9,2.4 or 2.7mm external diameter
lens angle 30 degrees
working length 8.5 or 13 cm

719
Q

why do you use a camera not directly look down the arthroscope in surgery?

A

maintain sterility

720
Q

what light is used on arthroscopes?

A

xenon or halogen

721
Q

list equipment needed for arthroscopy

A

camera
camera mount
monitor
light post
canula
irrigation
egress system
hand instruments
power tools
electrocautery
fluid system
syringes for sampling
waterproof drapes

722
Q

what is a canula for in an arthroscope?

A

for scope and instruments to pass through
protect equipment
maintain portals

723
Q

what is the purpose of irrigation during scopes?

A

continuous flushing to inflate joint and keep blood free

724
Q

how is irrigation performed in arthroscopes?

A

60mmHg of saline continuously flushed

725
Q

what does the egress system do in arthroscope?

A

removal of fluid

726
Q

how do you prep and position a patient for elbow arthroscopy?

A

full clip and prep in case need to convert to open
hang legs
waterproof drapes
dorsal for bilateral
lateral with elbow abducted and pronated for unilateral

727
Q

describe how to carry out arthroscopy

A

white balance scope
aspirate joint fluid for sample and check positioning
inflate joint with saline
insert second needle for arthroscope canula, enlarge with scalpel
insert canula and arthroscope
connect egress tube
turn on fluids
inspect joint
insert instrument portal

728
Q

how is instrument portal inserted for arthroscopy?

A

similar to putting in scope

729
Q

what are the benefits of using an instrument portal in arthroscopy?

A

patent route for instruments
rubber stopper prevents fluid leaving

730
Q

list different cutting instruments used in arthroscopy

A

knives
hooks
cutting forceps
burrs
osteotomes
crocodile forceps

731
Q

what species does cruciate disease occur in?

A

common in dogs
can occur in cats

732
Q

when is bilateral cruciate disease common?

A

after the first one has ruptured

733
Q

describe forces in the stifle

A

gastrocnemius at fixed length
tibial plateau slopes caudally
tibia slopes forwards unless restrained by CCL
compressive forces by tibia and femur from weight and muscular forces are stopped by CCL
forces are proportional to slope of tibial plateau

734
Q

what is average tibial slope angle?

A

24 degrees

735
Q

how can you measure tibial slope angle?

A

on x-rays

736
Q

what is common signalment for cruciate disease?

A

middle aged females
can affect any dog

737
Q

what are causes of cruciate disease?

A

traumatic is rare
degenerative most common
inflammation such as rheumatoid arthritis

738
Q

describe the purpose of the CCL

A

resist stifle extension
resist internal rotation
prevent tibia moving cranially

739
Q

how is cruciate rupture diagnosed?

A

cranial drawer test
tibial thrust test
imaging

740
Q

what is seen on cranial drawer test if the CCL is ruptures?

A

tibia moves cranially

741
Q

what is seen on tibial thrust test if CCL is ruptured?

A

on flexion of the hock tibia moves cranially

742
Q

what imaging is done for cruciate disease diagnosis?

A

orthoganol views
both stifles

743
Q

what can be seen on imaging in cruciate disease?

A

joint effusion
increased fluid opacity
compressed fat pad
peri-articular osteophytes

744
Q

what are the ways of treating cruciate disease?

A

conservative
intra articular replacement of ligament
extra articular replicate function of ligament
combination of two above
alteration of joint angle - TPLO, TTA, CCW

745
Q

describe conservative management for cruciate disease

A

strict exercise restriction for 6-8 weeks
pain management

746
Q

when is conservative management not appropriate for managing cruciate disease?

A

if over 15kg
meniscal lesions
no improvement in conservative management

747
Q

why is intra articular replacement of ligament not commonly done for cruciate repair?

A

doesnt last very long

748
Q

what is a extra articular replicate function of ligament?

A

lateral suture

749
Q

describe the process of extra articular replicate function of ligament

A

arthrotomy
confirm diagnosis
debride cruciate rupture
check meniscus for tears
suture around femorofabella ligament, under patella ligament and through bone tunnel in tibial tuberosity - thick nylon secured with metal crimps
fascia lata repaired with modified mayo mattress suture

750
Q

how does crimp clamp suture system work?

A

progressively increase tension and check for cranial drawer
placed in 3 places

751
Q

list complications of extra articular replicate function of ligament for cruciate repair

A

suture failure
instability
infection
meniscal tear
anchor pullout

752
Q

how does altering tibial slope angle treat cruciate disease?

A

removes need for CrCL

753
Q

how does TPLO treat cruciate disease?

A

slope of tibial plateau prevents tibial thrust as femur cant slide down tibial plateau

754
Q

describe the process of a TPLO

A

medial parapatellar approach
torn meniscus removed
tplo performed
round saw cuts proximal tibia, rotated on TPLO jig to keep in place with rotation and plated to make slope of 5-7 degrees
post op radiographs immediately after

755
Q

how is patient positioned for TPLO surgery?

A

in dorsal
foot wrapped
body draped around leg

756
Q

what equipment is used for TPLO?

A

stifle distractor
meniscal probe
osscilating TPLO saw
TPLO jig
pin driver
plate
screws

757
Q

what happens to the steps created in the bone in tplo surgery?

A

remodel on healing
dont cause issue

758
Q

list possible tplo complications

A

fibula fracture
peroneal nerve damage
popliteal artery trauma
tibial tuberosity avulsion fracture
patella ligament desmitis
pivot shift causing twisted leg gait
osteomyelitis
DJD

759
Q

what is post op care for TPLO?

A

6 weeks strict cage rest
controlled return to normal exercise over 3 months
physio
hydro
6 week x-rays

760
Q

when and why is cranial closing wedge used for cruciate disease?

A

small dogs as have small bones and steeper tibial angle

761
Q

how is tibial tuberosity advancement done?

A

patella ligament taken to 90 degrees of tibial plataeu to eliminate tibial thrust

762
Q

what is the medial meniscus important for?

A

stability

763
Q

why is the medial meniscus prone to injury in cruciate rupture?

A

is attached to medial collateral ligament so is less mobile and gets crushed when cruciate is ruptured
occurs in 50% CCL ruptures

764
Q

how are meniscal injuries treated?

A

remove ruptured portion

765
Q

what is a common complication of cruciate surgery and why?

A

meniscal injury as can occur later after treatment for cruciate

766
Q

what makes prognosis following cruciate rupture poorer?

A

older
meniscal tears

767
Q

what are hematopoietic tumours?

A

liquid tumours
lymphoma
leukaemia

768
Q

how are hematopoietic tumours treated?

A

chemotherapy

769
Q

how is acute hematopoietic tumours recognised?

A

clinical signs directly relating to disease

770
Q

how are chronic hematopoietic tumours found normally?

A

incidentally

771
Q

what is leukaemia?

A

cancer of blood forming tissues
acute or chronic

772
Q

what is lymphoma?

A

cancer of cells that make up any part of the immune system, b and t cells

773
Q

what are the types of solid tumours?

A

sarcoma
carcinoma

774
Q

what is a sarcoma and how is it classifed?

A

cancer of skeletal or connective tissue
classified according to parental tissue

775
Q

where is osteosarcoma commonly found?

A

distal radius
top of femur

776
Q

why is surgery for osteosarcoma normally palliative?

A

metastasis has normally occurred before presentation even if not detectable

777
Q

what are the benefits of treating osteosarcoma even though its most likely palliative?

A

tumours are very painful
can extend life

778
Q

what are palliative treatment options for osteosarcoma?

A

chemo
radiation
bisphosphonates
surgery to remove limb/tumour

779
Q

what is a hemangiosarcoma?

A

cancer of the spleen, heart or blood vessels

780
Q

how can hemangiosarcoma be treated?

A

chemo
surgery

781
Q

what part of the body is effected by soft tissue sarcomas?

A

connective tissue

782
Q

how are soft tissue sarcomas treated?

A

chemo
surgery

783
Q

what parts of the body are effected in carcinomas?

A

tissue covering the body surface
tissue lining body cavity
tissue making up organs

784
Q

what does adeno mean in naming tumours?

A

arises from a gland

785
Q

what species is squamous cell carcinoma common in?

A

cats

786
Q

where is squamous cell carcinomas normally found?

A

mouth
ears
nose

787
Q

which area of squamous cell carcinomas are normally more invasive and can metastasis?

A

mouth

788
Q

how can squamous cell carcinomas be treated?

A

surgery depending on location
radiation
chemo

789
Q

what can induce squamous cell carcinoma?

A

sun

790
Q

list types of round cell tumours

A

MCT
melanoma

791
Q

list features of MCT

A

most malignant skin tumour in dogs
mast cells are involved in inflammatory and allergic mechanisms
manifests anywhere in the body in many ways
from benign to highly malignant
high rate of spread
in skin is hard and firm
under skin is mobile and soft

792
Q

how may cats with MCT present?

A

splenic or GI presentation

793
Q

how are MCT treated?

A

surgical removal, curative if not malignant and get good margins
chemo
radiation

794
Q

how do melanomas typically present?

A

usually black
benign in skin
malignant in mouth or toes
painful and bleeding

795
Q

what treatments can be done for melanoma?

A

surgery to improve quality of life
immunotherapy

796
Q

how does immunotherapy hopefully slow the spread of melanoma?

A

melanoma vaccine contains human melanoma protiens, in the hope antibiodies will be produced to destroy future melanoma cells

797
Q

define benign tumour

A

wont spread
slow growing

798
Q

define malignant tumour

A

risk of spreading

799
Q

define metastatic tumour

A

secondary tumour that grows in different location to primary

800
Q

what are common locations for metastatic tumours to spread to?

A

liver
lungs
lymphnodes

801
Q

what is PNS?

A

cancer associated alterations of structure or function not directly related to tumour or mets

802
Q

how can you get rid of PNS?

A

treatment of the tumour

803
Q

what can be the consequence of PNS?

A

mortality more than the tumour itself

804
Q

what can the presence of PNS indicate?

A

return of the tumour
malignancy

805
Q

list some of the PNS associated with lymphoma

A

hypercalcaemia
anaemia
neutrophillic leucocytosis
thrombocytopenia

806
Q

what determines treatment choice of tumours?

A

type of tumour
staging of tumour
location
owner expectations
patient temperament

807
Q

how is tumour sensitivity to chemo graded?

A

high
moderate
low

808
Q

what does high sensitivity to chemo mean?

A

no surgical options

809
Q

what types of tumours have high sensitivity to chemo?

A

lymphoma
leukemias

810
Q

what types of tumours have moderate sensitivity to chemo?

A

high grade sarcoma
MCT

811
Q

what is a moderate sensitivity to chemo?

A

possibly surgical tumour

812
Q

what is a low sensitivity to chemo?

A

surgical or other treatment more appropriate

813
Q
A
814
Q

what tumour types are low sensitivity to chemo?

A

carcinoma
melanoma

815
Q

how can location of a tumour affect treatment?

A

may not be resectable

816
Q

how can owner expectation affect treatment of tumours?

A

cost
outcomes
disfiguring surgery

817
Q

how can temperament affect choice of cancer treatment?

A

ability to cope with surgery
ability to cope with chemo and repeated treatments

818
Q

when can chemo be used for cancer treatment?

A

sole treatment
with other therapy
before surgery to shrink tumour
after surgery for any remaining cells

819
Q

what determines efficacy of chemo for tumours?

A

sensitivity to chemo

820
Q

how does radiation treat cancer?

A

causes radiation induced cellular injury, dividing cells are more susceptible

821
Q

what are alternate therapies that can be used for treating cancer?

A

cyrotherapy
hyperthermic therapy
photodynamic therapy
immunotherapy

822
Q

what are the different surgical options for tumours?

A

complete excision
excisional biopsy
incisional biopsy
trucut biopsy
FNA

823
Q

what does complete excision of tumors achieve?

A

remove mass and locally invading cells

824
Q

what does excisional biopsy achive?

A

debulking of mass but may leave local invasion

825
Q

what are the purpose of incisional biopsy, trucut biopsy and FNA for masses?

A

diagnosis

826
Q

what can be the results of surgery for tumours?

A

curative
debulking
palliative
preventative

827
Q

what are examples of preventative surgery for tumours?

A

retained testicles
skin changes from sun damage

828
Q

what are reasons for oncologic emergency surgery?

A

bleeding
pathological fracture
infection
bowel perforation
bowel obstruction

829
Q

why are tumours staged?

A

find out how much tumour is present in the body
assess overall health
concurrent conditions
PNS present
inform likely treatment and prognosis

830
Q

what system is used for tumour staging?

A

TNM

831
Q

what does the t stand for in tumour staging?

A

primary tumour size

832
Q

what does the n stand for in tumour staging?

A

lymph node involvement

833
Q

what does the m stand for in tumour staging?

A

metastasis

834
Q

what tests are done in tumour staging?

A

clinical exam
history
urinalysis
bloods - CBC, biochem, specialised bloods for patient specific
chest x-rays or CT - mets
abdo US - organ changes and mets
liver spleen and lymphnode aspirate as appropriate
echo - before doxyrubicin
MRI if neuro tumour

835
Q

how are tumours graded?

A

histological findings
appearance under the microscope
mitotic index
level of cell organisation
evidence of invading blood vessels

836
Q

why is tumour grading important?

A

determines prognosis

837
Q

what is important to remember when treating cancer patients?

A

holistic approach

838
Q

what is important when planning care for cancer patients?

A

ability model useful
assess pain
collect relavent information from obs and owner
assess and adapt care as needed
document everything
manage medical and nursing needs

839
Q

what are general patient considerations for cancer patientsin hospital?

A

enrichment
may be hospitalised long time
manage anorexia cause
avoid food aversions
reverese barrier nurse as impaired immune function
care for infections
caution with chemo drugs and excretions

840
Q

what is meant by acute abdomen?

A

any intra-abdominal disease that leads to acute onset of clinical signs due to inflammation of an organ, leakage of fluid from damaged organ or organ entrapment

841
Q

how serious is an acute abdomen?

A

often life threatening

842
Q

list clinical signs of an acute abdomen

A

increased RR and effort
tachycardia
thready and poor peripheral pulses
pale, tacky MMs, long CRT if shocked
injected MMs, rapid CRT if septic
hypotension
hypothermia
collpased or obtunded
hypersalivation
nausea
regurg
retching/vomiting
abdo pain
distended abdo
arrhythmia

843
Q

list common differentials for acute abdomen

A

GDV
FB
gastric ulceration
perforation
intusucception
septic peritonitis
abdo trauma
mesenteric volvulus
acute hepatitis
billiary obstruction/rupture
neoplasia
pancreatitis
splenic mass
splenic torsion
AKI
pylonephritis
urethral tear
uroabdomen
pyometra
prostatitis

844
Q

what can help determine likely cause of acute abdomen?

A

signalment

845
Q

what is GDV?

A

gastric dilation volvulus
stomach dilates and rotates
lifethreatening and high mortality

846
Q

list the effects of GDV

A

reduced blood flow to GI tract and spleen leading to necrosis and septic peritonitis
vena cava compression so reduced venous return, reduced CO and hypotension
CV effects
respiratory effects
GI effects
hypovolaemic shock

847
Q

what type of shock is most commonly seen in GDV?

A

hypovolaemic

848
Q

what is hypovolaemic shock?

A

low circulating volume so low venous return, SV and CO

849
Q

what is distributive shock?

A

vasodilation, leaky vessels and activation of coagulation by cytokine release leading to reduced venous return, SV and CO

850
Q

what can prevent GDV progressing to distributive shock?

A

fast treatment

851
Q

what can be the consequences of distributive shock?

A

SIRS/systemic inflammatory response syndrome
sepsis

852
Q

what is cardiogenic shock?

A

heart cant pump due to reduced preload or pressure on thorax, leads to low cardiac contractility and CO

853
Q

what is obstructive shock?

A

increased pressure on vessels in the abdomen leading to low venous return, SV and CO

854
Q

how do you stabilise GDV patients?

A

oxygen
IV catheter
pain relief
fluids
blood samples
catecholamines may be used

855
Q

what are considerations for IV catheters for GDV patients?

A

big as possible
ideally 2
front legs if possible as peripheral vasoconstriction means reduced delivery from saphenous
consider central lines

856
Q

what are considerations for analgesia in triage for GDV patients?

A

painful conditions
opioids good
care with NSAIDs for ulcer risk

857
Q

how do you manage IVFT for stabilising GDV patients?

A

shock rate bolus, care of haemodilution
if very sick hypertonic saline for resus but not if dehydrated

858
Q

what bloods are good for initial management of GDV patients?

A

blood gas for electrolytes, oxygenation, metabolic status - arterial better
PVC
TS
urea and creatinine
blood type
coags in case of DIC

859
Q

what is DIC?

A

disseminated intravascular coagulation

860
Q

when are catecholamines (noradrenaline, dobutamine) used for acute abdo patients?

A

severe hypotension
fluids not enough
restore perfusion in septic patients

861
Q

list useful diagnostics for acute abdomen patients

A

POCUS - confirm gas, haemoabdomen
x-ray for GD vs GDV
thoracic x-ray - aspriration

862
Q

when is gastric decompression not possible?

A

twisted stomach

863
Q

what can be negatives of gastric decompression?

A

can damage oesophagus or gastric wall
must be in fluid resus
can become shocky afterwards due to sudden release of endotoxins and inflammatory markers - do slowly

864
Q

why is gastric decompression done?

A

relieve gastric contents and pressure

865
Q

what are the two types of gastric decompression?

A

percutaneous decompression for gas
orogastric decompression for gas and fluid

866
Q

what should you prepare for surgery for GDV?

A

crash kit, drugs calculated and drawn up
stomach tube for after untwisting
suction
IV fluids
lots of flush
warmed fluid for lavage
monitoring
lap swabs
surgical kit
self retaining retractors
tilt table
scrub and float nurse

867
Q

why cant you use oesophageal stethoscope for GDV surgery?

A

need oesophageal access

868
Q

list patient considerations for GDV surgery

A

hypotension - drugs ready, midaz, diaz, opiods, lidocaine, fentanyl
hypoxia
hypoxaemia
metabolic acidosis - get baselines for bicarb, base excess, pH , lactate, normally fluid corrected by may need to spike fluids
hypothermia
arrhythmias
regurg

869
Q

what arrythmias are common in GDV?

A

VPC
VT

870
Q

how do you manage arrhythmias in GDV surgery?

A

only treat VT
lidocaine bolus, CRI if effective
likely to resolve when untwisted

871
Q

list anaesthetic protocols for GDV

A

pre-oxygenate
methadone and midaz premed, otherwise can cause too much CVS compromise
co induce with midaz and propofol/alfax to reduce post induction apnoea, VT, bradycardia
CRIs to reduce maintenance VAs or TIVA

872
Q

what are peri-op considerations for GDV surgery?

A

keep bp above 60mmHg to prevent ischemia to organs
fluids for volume related hypotension
anticholinergics for bradycardia, atropine if under 40bpm, glycopyrulate in milder bradycardia
bradycardia likely vagally mediated due to pressure
more likely to see AV blocks

873
Q

list post op monitoring and care for GDV

A

HR
MM
CRT
RR
hydration
bloods
ecg
BP
arrhythmias
IVFT
analgesia - CRI, paracetamol
stress management
UOP
signs of sepsis/sirs/DIC
aspiration pneumonia
nutrition

874
Q

how do you manage nutrition in GDV patients post op?

A

tube feeding to control amount of food and frequency/volumes at one time
prevent over feeding
consider TPN or PPN if has central line

875
Q

what is recurrence for GDV?

A

70-80% without gastropexy
4-10% with gastropexy

876
Q

how can you educate clients on GDV?

A

warn of risks of recurrance
alter feeding to small meals
slow feeders
avoid stress
discuss prophylactic gastropexy during neutering for at risk breeds
educate on signs

877
Q

what is the likely cause of sepsis in acute abdomen patients?

A

septic peritonitis

878
Q

how do you manage septic peritonitis cases?

A

collect fluid samples and culture and sensitivity
broad spectrum antibiotics until culture back
early antibioitics to reduce risk of endotoxaemia

879
Q

what is sepsis?

A

release of chemicals in bloodstream to fight infection, inappropriate and unregulated response to these chemicals triggers chnages that can damage multiple organ systems

880
Q

describe anatomy of the thyroid gland

A

paired bilobed gland
isthmus between each side in humans, may or may not be in dogs and cats
caudal to the larynx
between 5th and 8th tracheal rings
ventrolateral to the trachea
right gland typically more cranial than the left

881
Q

why is iatrogenic damage possible in thyroid surgery?

A

well vascularised
lots of neurological structures in the area

882
Q

what is ectopic thyroid tissue?

A

thyroid tissue along the midline from the tongue to the abdomen resulting from path the tissue takes in embryonic development

883
Q

list important nerve structures involved with the thyroid

A

caudal laryngeal nerve
recurrent laryngeal nerve
right vasosympathetic trunk

884
Q

list important arteries involved with the thyroid

A

cranial thyroid artery
right common carotid artery
left cranial thryoid artery
left common carotid artery
left caudal thryoid artery

885
Q

list surgical masses of the thyroid

A

(benign) adenomas
(benign) adenomatous hyperplasia
(benign) cysts
(malignant) carcinoma
(malignant) adenocarcinoma

886
Q

what is meant by a functional thyroid mass?

A

actively produces thyroid hormone

887
Q

why do cats with benign thyroid masses typically become hyperthryoid?

A

masses are normally functional

888
Q

when are non-functional thyroid masses normally seen?

A

dogs
malignant masses

889
Q

why are patients with non-functional thyroid masses normally presented with?

A

mass not tumour symptoms

890
Q

which species are more prone to malignant thyroid masses?

A

dogs

891
Q

list considerations for cats pre thyroidectomy

A

ASA status
systemic effects of hyperthyroidism
BCS
metastasis
CV
renal
occular
co morbidities
medical stabilisation
complications

892
Q

why is BCS an important consideration for cats before thyroidectomy?

A

likely have muscle and weight loss due to hypermetabolism

893
Q

how likely are metastasis to be seen in cats with thyroid tumours?

A

5% malignancy
71% adenocarcinomas have metastasis

894
Q

what are concerns for CV system in cats before thyroidectomy?

A

hypertension
tachycardia

895
Q

what can be effects of hypertension caused by hyperthyroid in cats?

A

pre-renal azotemia
retinal detachment

896
Q

what is the result of an overactive thyroid?

A

increased metabolism

897
Q

why are co morbidities common in thyroid patients?

A

likely older patients

898
Q

list common co morbidities in hyperthyroid cats

A

CV
renal
increased GA risk
cachexia
arthritis

899
Q

why is medical stability before thyroidectomy important?

A

improved ASA status, GA higher risk if unmanaged

900
Q

how can you stabilise cats before thyroidectomy?

A

anti-thyroid meds to decrease HR
manage hypertension and stabilise heart rhythm with atenol
support renal function - diet, supplements, fluids
increase BW

901
Q

list pre op thyroidectomy considerations for a dog?

A

ASA status
BCS
metastasis
co morbidities
stabilisation
complications

902
Q

why do dogs have less systemic effects from thyroid tumours than cats?

A

normally are non-functional in dogs

903
Q

what is more likely to cause effects in dogs who have thyroid tumours than the mass itself?

A

malignancy

904
Q

how may BCS be effected in dogs with thyroid masses?

A

reduced due to effects of cancer

905
Q

how common is metastasis in dogs with thyroid masses?

A

40% have mets

906
Q

why is medical stabilisation not normally needed for dogs with thyroid masses?

A

masses are non-functional so have little systemic effects

907
Q

which species has more invasive thyroid masses?

A

dogs

908
Q

describe patient prep for thyroidectomy

A

wide clip from jaw to thoracic inlet and across neck
dorsal recumbency with sandbag under to elevate neck
stabilise straight

909
Q

describe surgical approach for thyroidectomy

A

ventral midline approach
range of surgical techniques
may have parathyroidectomy
bilateral vs unilateral
may reimplant parathyroid tissue

910
Q

list the different surgical techniques for thyroidectomy

A

modified intracapsular
modified extracapsular

911
Q

what is the benefit of reimplanting parathyroid tissue?

A

allows neovascularisation so can become functional in 95% cases

912
Q

what is the risk of reimplanting parathyroid tissue?

A

can seed tumour

913
Q

list complications of thyroidectomy unrelated to surgical technique

A

GA
unmasking CKD in cats with functional masses
hypothyroidism

914
Q

how can treating hyperthyroidism unmask CKD?

A

hyperthyroid increases BP which can maintain kidney function
once treated BP drops which can impair renal function

915
Q

when is hypothyroidism prone post-op?

A

bilateral thyroidectomy
20% radioactive iodine treatment

916
Q

list complications of thyroidectomy related to surgical technique

A

technique and skill
haemorrhage
seroma
laryngeal paralysis
horners
hypocalcaemia
recurrence

917
Q

how does technique and skill effect thyroidectomy surgery?

A

unilateral vs bilateral vs bilateral staged
halsteads technique

918
Q

why is haemorrhage common in thyroidectomy?

A

lots of vessels in area
dog masses are typically invasive

919
Q

what can effect seroma formation after thyroidectomy?

A

size of mass

920
Q

why is laryngeal paralysis a possible complication in thyroidectomy?

A

may damage recurrent laryngeal nerve

921
Q

why is horners (neurological disorder of eyes and facial muscles) a possibel complication following thyroidectomy?

A

damage to sympathetic trunk

922
Q

why is hypocalcaemia a potential consequence following thyroidectomy?

A

results from iatrogenic hypoparathyroidism as in thyroidectomy can damage or remove parathyroid tissue

923
Q

how can you minimise chance of hypocalcaemia following thyroidectomy?

A

avoid parathyroids
give pre-op vitamin d and calcium

924
Q

when is recurrence of thyroid disease common post op?

A

ectopic tissue present
intracapsular technique
malignant neoplasia
cats more common

925
Q

what is the anatomy of the parathyroid glands?

A

2 pairs
cranial extracapsulars
caudal intracapsulars

926
Q

what is the purpose of PTH?

A

increase blood calcium

927
Q

when is primary hyperparathyroidism more commonly seen?

A

in dogs

928
Q

what causes primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

mass signalling to increase PTH and calcium levels

929
Q

how can primary hyperparathyroidism be medically treated?

A

ethanol injection
heat ablation

930
Q

how is primary hyperparathyroidism surgically treated?

A

parathyroidectomy

931
Q

what should you monitor post- parathyroidectomy?

A

monitor for hypocalcaemia

932
Q

how does hypocalcaemia occur following parathyroidectomy?

A

parathyroid with the mass is overactive so other glands stop producing
when mass and parathyroid is removed low PTH so calcium is produced from the other glands

933
Q

what type of masses are normally parathyroid masses?

A

benign functional adenomas

934
Q

list considerations pre-op for parathyroidectomy

A

ASA status
systemic effects of hyperparathyroidism
comorbidities
medical stabilisation
complications

935
Q

list systemic effects of hyperparathyroidism

A

hypercalcaemia
effects renal function

936
Q

why are co morbidities common in hyperparathyroid pateints?

A

typically older animals presenting

937
Q

what medical stabilisation is needed before parathyroidectomy?

A

improve asa status
reduce blood calcium if possible
support renal function

938
Q

what can be done to try to reduce blood calcium?

A

high IVFT to dilute - careful management needed

939
Q

how do you prep patients for parathyroidectomy?

A

same as thyroidectomy

940
Q

describe surgical approach for parathyroidectomy

A

same as thyroidectomy
likely only removing one
magnification as tiny mass
intracapsular parathyroids may cause thyroid to be removed with it

941
Q

why are parathyroid masses usually diagnosed on bloods?

A

too small to see on imaging

942
Q

list complications of parathyroidectomy unrelated to surgical technique

A

GA
hypothyroidism post-op

943
Q

complications of parathyroidectomy related to surgical technique

A

haemorrhage
seroma
laryngeal paralysis
horners
(all above are the same as thyroidectomy)
hypoparathyroidism
hypocalcaemia

944
Q

list post-op care for parathyroidectomy

A

IVFT
analgesia - avoid opioids due to likely renal issues
monitor complications - renal, calcium

945
Q

what is prognosis for parathyroidectomy?

A

usually good
transient hypocalcaemia can take days, weeks or months to resolve

946
Q

list causes of iatrogenic hypoparathyroidism

A

unilateral thyroidectomy, bilateral thyroidectomy
unilateral parathyroidectomy

947
Q

when is unilateral or bilateral thyroidectomy performed?

A

cat hyperthyroidism
dog thyroid malignancy

948
Q

what are levels of thyroid hormones in hyperthyroid cats?

A

high T4
normal PTH

949
Q

what are levels of thyroid hormone in dogs with thyroid masses?

A

normal T4
normal PTH

950
Q

why is risk of hypocalcaemia and hypothyroidism low in unilateral thyroidectomy?

A

one thyroid and caudal parathyroid removed
may damage cranial parathyroids

951
Q

why is risk of hypocalcaemia and hypothyroid higher in bilateral thyroidectomy than unilateral?

A

both thyroid and caudal parathyroids removed
cranial parathyroids may be damaged

952
Q

when is unilateral parathyroidectomy performed?

A

primary hyperparathyroidism
dogs

953
Q

what thyroid hormone levels are normally seen in dogs with primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

normal t4
high PTH

954
Q

why is risk of hypocalcaemia high and hypothyroid low in unilateral parathyroidectomy?

A

remove 1 thyroid and 1 caudal parathyroid
cranials may be damaged or supressed

955
Q

list signs of iatrogenic hypoparathyroidism

A

weakness
inappetence
lethargy
pytalism
pawing face
tremors
tetany
seizures
coma
death

956
Q

when should you treat low calcium?

A

if see clinical signs

957
Q

how can you manage low calcium?

A

vitamin D
monitor blood calcium
clinical signs
calcium admin

958
Q

how can vitamin D increase calcium in the blood?

A

increases absorption from the GI tract
reduces loss through the kidneys

959
Q

why should you give vitamin d 24-48hrs before parathyroidectomy?

A

takes that long to work

960
Q

how do you monitor blood calcium levels?

A

ionised calcium not total
check 2-3 days post op

961
Q

why is it important to only supplement calcium when very low or if clinical signs?

A

need to allow homeostatic mechanisms to work out, need some low calcium to encourage other parathyroids to start producing PTH

962
Q

how can you give oral calcium?

A

elemental calcium divided into doses
gradually weaned off

963
Q

how do you give IV calcium?

A

10% calcium gluconate slowly
bolus then CRI
careful as too much can lead to slow recovery of remaining parathyroids
monitor for arrythmias and bradycardia
avoid barcarb, lactate and phosphate in fluids - precipitates calcium

964
Q

why can IV calcium not go SC?

A

sloughs skin

965
Q

describe anatomy of the pancreas

A

right limb runs down the duodenum
lift limb next to the spleen
body close to pancreatic ducts and common bile duct
extensive blood supply
cats have accessory pancreatic duct

966
Q

list surgical pancreatic conditions

A

insulinoma - endocrine
exocrine pancreatic neoplasia - exocrine
pancreatic abscessation and cysts - rare

967
Q

list non-surgical pancreatic conditions

A

DM
exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
pancreatitis

968
Q

what type of tumour is an insulinoma?

A

malignant carcinoma

969
Q

where does insulinoma commonly metastasise to?

A

liver and LN

970
Q

list clinical signs of insulinoma

A

lethargy
tremors
seizures
collapse
peripheral neuropathy due to hypoglycaemia
very low BG but not collapsed - occurs over time

971
Q

how is insulinoma diagnosed?

A

bloods - glucose:insulin ratio
imaging

972
Q

how do you manage insulinoma patients pre-op?

A

stabilise
feed q4-6 to maintain glucose
diabetic food
care for starving times
gentle exercise and regular
manage hypoglycaemia with feeding if coping
if crisis give sugar

973
Q

why should you be careful in giving IV glucose to patients with insulinomas?

A

encourages insulin production so can push glucose even lower

974
Q

how should you manage hypoglycaemic crisis in a veterinary setting?

A

oral glucose first
one off IV - 0.5-1ml/kg 50% dextrose diluted
glucose infusion - 2.5% solution
monitor BG
titrate as needed
stop glucose when improving

975
Q

what are peri-op considertaions for partial pancreatectomy for insulinoma?

A

5% dextrose infusion in surgery
monitor glucose
gentle handling - reduce risk of pancreatitis
can be hard to find nodule
check liver for micrometastasis

976
Q

what is the result of partial pancreatectomy for insulinoma?

A

removes source of insulin as long as all insulinoma tissue is removed

977
Q

list post-op considerations for insulinomas

A

feeding
exercise
hypoglycaemia
drugs
complications

978
Q

how do you manage feeding for insulinoma patients post-op?

A

same as pre-op
may need feeding tube

979
Q

how do you manage exercise for insulinoma patients post-op?

A

same as pre-op

980
Q

what can cause hypoglycaemia following partial pancreatectomy?

A

micrometastasis still causing insulin over-production

981
Q

what drugs should be considered post pancreatectomy?

A

IVFT
analgesia
steroids to increase glucose
glucose
octreotide
chemo for residual tumour and mets

982
Q

list possible complications following partial pancreatectomy

A

persistent hypoglycaemia
transient hyperglycaemia
pancreatitis
DM

983
Q

list prognoses for insulinoma patients following partial pancreatectomy

A

stage 1 - survive 2+ years
stage 3 - survive 6 months
better than medical management alone

984
Q

describe anatomy of adrenal glands

A

close to kidneys, caudal vena cava, renal vessels
outer cortex and inner medulla

985
Q

which masses are found in adrenal cortex and what does this effect?

A

adenoma
adenocarcinoma
androgens, mineralocorticoid, glucocorticoid

986
Q

what is a common medullary adrenal mass and what does this effect?

A

phaeochromocytoma
catecholamines - norepinephrine and adrenaline/epinephrine

987
Q

list surgical adrenal conditions

A

adrenal mass
secondary adrenal enlargement

988
Q

what types of masses can be present in the adrenals?

A

benign or malignant
primary
secondary to renal tumours

989
Q

what causes secondary renal enlargement?

A

pituitary tumours

990
Q

list clinical signs of adrenal gland disease

A

none - incidental finding
functional
haemoabdomen

991
Q

what is the effect of functional adrenal masses?

A

likely have complex medical needs for stabilisation
surgery may not be best option
cover production from cortex in conns syndrome (aldosterone), cushings (cortisol), masculinising syndrome (testosterone)
over production from medulla in phaeochromocytoma (catecholamines)

992
Q

what are the effects of phaeochromocytoma on the body?

A

throws out adrenaline
intermittent hypertension
other consequences

993
Q

why can adrenal masses cause haemoabdomen?

A

spontaneous bleeding from mass
near lots of vessels

994
Q

what are the different adrenal gland masses?

A

benign enlargements - adenoma
malignancy - adenocarcinoma, phaeochromocytoma - benign or malignant
malignant tumours can invade vena cava

995
Q

list considerations pre-op for adrenalectomy

A

ASA status
systemic effects of adrenal mass
co morbidities
medical stabilisation
unilateral or bilateral disease
complications

996
Q

list possible systemic effects of adrenal masses

A

conns syndrome causing hypokalaemia
cushings causing endogenous steroids, poor candidate for surgery due to impaired healing
phaeochromocytoma are unstable due to adrenaline releases

997
Q

list medical stabilisation for adrenal surgery

A

manage potassium
meds to stabilise
phenoxybenzamine for phaeo to reduce HR and stabilise BP 2-3 before

998
Q

what is the normal outcome for bilateral adrenal disease?

A

palliative care
euthanasia

999
Q

why are adrenalectomies not commonly performed surgeries?

A

very challenging
haemorrhage common
thromboembolisms can develop post op
challenging recovery
20% mortality rate

1000
Q

list general considerations for adrenalectomy

A

functional vs non-functional disease
monitoring
intra-op complications
post-op complications

1001
Q

what monitoring is done in adrenalectomy surgery?

A

CV function
ECG for arrhythmias
BP
electrolytes

1002
Q

list potential intra op complications for adrenalectomy

A

tumour rupture
haemorrhage - blood type
tachycardia
arrhythmias
high or low BP
need to supplement mineralo or glucocorticoids in surgery
need for sodium or potassium supplements

1003
Q

list possible post-op complications following adrenalectomy

A

electrolyte abnormalities
high or low BP
adrenal insufficiency/iatrogenic addisons
delayed healing
pulmonary thromboembolism
sepsis
sirs

1004
Q
A