Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

eMRCS > Surgical Microbiology > Flashcards

Surgical Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Relation of oxygen with staphylococcus aureus

A

Facultative anaerobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Gram test of staphylococcus aureus

A

Gram positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

blood agar plates test for staphylococcus aureus

A

Haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Catalase test for staphylococcus aureus

A

positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

carriers state of staphylococcus aureus

A

20% of populations are long term carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Result of exotoxin of staphylococcus aureus

A

toxic shock syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

entero toxin of staphylococcus may cause

A

gastroenteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Does staphylococcus have any toxins

A

Yes
Exotoxin and enterotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment of infection with staphylococcus aureus

A

Ideally treated with penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do many strains of staphylococcus aureus now resistant

A

through beta Lactamase production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why penicillin may be ineffective in case of infection with staphylococcus aureus

A

many strains now resistant and in the UK less than 5% of isolates are sensitive to penicillin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the mec operon gene do?

A

mecA is a gene found in bacterial cells which allows them to be resistant to antibiotics such as methicillin, penicillin and other penicillin-like antibiotics. The bacteria strain most commonly known to carry mecA is methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are Penicillin-binding proteins

A

Penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) are bacterial enzymes that play a key role in the biosynthesis of cell walls.
PBPs are membrane-associated proteins that bind to penicillin and other β-lactam antibiotics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Importance of Penicillin-binding proteins

A

PBPs are inhibited by β-lactam antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Common cause of cutaneous infections and abscesses and why

A

Staphylococcus aureus because 20% population are long term carriers on skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Gram test of streptococcus pyogens

A

Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

colonies of streptococcus pyogens

A

forms chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Lancefield grouping

A

Lancefield grouping is a method for classifying streptococci based on the antigens in their cell walls. The system is named after Rebecca C. Lancefield, who initially divided streptococci into groups A and B in 1928. Today, the system includes groups A through H and K through V.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

types of hemolysis in blood agar media

A

Alpha-hemolysis: Partial hemolysis that produces a wide zone of complete hemolysis with blurred edges

Beta-hemolysis is complete hemolysis. It is characterized by a clear (transparent) zone surrounding the colonies

Gamma-hemolysis: Non-hemolysis, where there is no lysis or clearing

Delta-hemolysis: A narrow zone of incomplete hemolysis with blurred edges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hemolysis by streptococcus pyogens in blood agar

A

Beta/complete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Is streptococcus pyogens a? part of normal skin microflora

A

Rarely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Catalase test of streptococcus pyogens

A

negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Releases a number of proteins/ virulence factors into host and their effect

A

hyaluronidase, streptokinase which allow rapid tissue destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

superantigen of streptococcus pyogens

A

pyogenic exotoxin A which results in scarlet fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Treatment of streptococcus pyogens

A

Remains sensitive to penicillin, macrolides may be used as an alternative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Mechanism of macrolides

A

Macrolides are antibiotics that inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the bacterial 50S ribosomal subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which drugs are macrolides and their use

A

Macrolides are a class of drugs used to manage and treat various bacterial infections. Azithromycin, clarithromycin, and erythromycin are commonly used to treat infections like pneumonia, sinusitis, pharyngitis, and tonsillitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Escherichia coli type

A

rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Gram test for E coli

A

Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Relation of oxygen with E coli

A

Facultative anaerobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Due Escherichia coli produce spores

A

non sporing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Location of E coli

A

Wide range of subtypes and some are normal gut commensals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

lethal toxins of E coli with effect

A

O157 subtype may produce lethal toxins resulting in haemolytic-uraemic syndrome IN CHILDREN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Early symptoms of HUS (Haemolytic–uraemic syndrome)

A

vomiting, bloody diarrhea (loose stool/poop), stomach pain, fever, chills, and headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Late symptoms of Hemolytic–uremic syndrome

A

(HUS) is a group of blood disorders characterized by low red blood cells, acute kidney injury (previously called acute renal failure), and low platelets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Effect of Enterotoxigenic E-Coli

A

produces an enterotoxin (ST enterotoxin) that results in large volume fluid secretion into the gut lumen (Via cGMP activation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

moderate invasive Vs significant invasive
E coli to intestinal cells and cause structural damage

A

Enteropathogenic- moderate
Enteroinvasive- significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Feature of invasion of gut by E coli

A

enteritis and large volume diarrhoea together with fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Antibiotics for E coli

A

Fluoroquinolones: Such as ciprofloxacin
Macrolides: Such as azithromycin

40
Q

Why penicillin may not work against
E coli

A

They are resistant to many antibiotics used to treat gram positive infections and acquire resistance rapidly and are recognised as producing beta lactamases

41
Q

Shape of Campylobacter jejuni

A

Curved

42
Q

gram test for campylobacter jejuni

A

Negative

43
Q

Does campylobacter jejuni produce spore

A

non sporulating

44
Q

Relation of campylobacter jejuni with diarrhoea

A

One of the commonest causes of diarrhoea worldwide

45
Q

What is enteritis

A

Enteritis is inflammation of the small intestine

46
Q

How campylobacter jejuni is related to appendicitis

A

Remains a differential for right iliac fossa pain with diarrhoea

47
Q

Good thing about treatment of campylobacter jejuni

A

Self limiting infection so antibiotics are not usually advised. However, the QUINOLONES (cipro/moxi) are often rapidly effective

48
Q

What are quinolone drugs

A

Currently there are four quinolone generations: nalidixic acid, ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin and moxifloxacin

49
Q

Shape of Helicobacter pylori

A

helix shaped rod

50
Q

Gram test of Helicobacter pylori

A

Negative

51
Q

Relation of oxygen with Helicobacter pylori

A

microaerophillic

52
Q

How hydrogen can be a source of energy for Helicobacter pylori

A

Produces hydrogenase that can derive energy from hydrogen released by intestinal bacteria

53
Q

Can Helicobacter pylori move

A

Flagellated and mobile

54
Q

Which Helicobacter pylori may cause ulcers

A

Those carrying the cag A gene may cause ulcers

55
Q

Dual effect on gastric acid by Helicobacter pylori

A

1.Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) uses urease to neutralize gastric acid and colonize the stomach:
2.H. pylori infection has been found to consistently elevate plasma gastrin concentrations.

56
Q

How does Helicobacter pylori neutralise the gastric acid and why?

A

It secretes urease that breaks down gastric urea> Carbon dioxide and ammonia> ammonium>bicarbonate (simplified!) The bicarbonate can neutralise the gastric acid.
To save itself

57
Q

How does Helicobacter pylori increase gastric acid production and result

A

colonises the gastric antrum and irritates
These patients will develop DUODENAL ulcers

58
Q

When and what will happen with the acid neutralising ability suppresses the acid producing ability of Helicobacter pylori

A

In those with more DIFFUSE H-Pylori infection gastric acid levels are lower and ulcers develop by local tissue damage from H-Pylori- these patients get GASTRIC ulcers.

59
Q

Tests to diagnose helicopter pylori

A

1.Serology (approx. 75% sensitive).
2.Biopsy urease test during endoscopy probably the most sensitive.

60
Q

Risk of Helicobacter pylori

A

In patients who are colonised 10-20% risk of peptic ulcer, 1-2% risk gastric cancer, <1% risk MALT lymphoma.

61
Q

illness phases of fasciola hepatica

A

two

62
Q

symptoms of acute phase is fasciitis hepatica

A

immature worms begin penetrating the gut, causing
fever
nausea,
swollen liver,
skin rashes and
extreme abdominal pain

63
Q

Symptoms of chronic phase of fasciola hepatica

A

occurs when the worms mature in the bile duct, and can cause
intermittent pain,
jaundice and
anemia.

64
Q

Treatment of fasciola hepatica

A

with triclabendazole. Some patients may need ERCP

65
Q

Which pus has a pungent aroma

A

Bacteroides fragilis

66
Q

ENT feature of glandular fever

A

combination of pharyngitis and tonsillitis is often seen in glandular fever

67
Q

Kigella age group

A

children aged 6 months to 4 years

68
Q

Disease caused by Kigella kingae

A

infectious discitis (D) and infectious spondylodiscitis (SD)

69
Q

risk of wound infection in case of uncomplicated surgery

A

around 3-5% (Pasquali et al and Matsui et al).

70
Q

indicative of quinsy

A

Unilateral swelling and fever

71
Q

Microscopic colitis

A

Microscopic colitis is a common condition characterised by normal endoscopic appearances, microscopic features of colonic inflammation and thickening of the sub epithelial collagen layer.

72
Q

Why Yersinia enterocolitica is DD of appendicitis

A

Yersinia can be mistaken for acute appendicitis due to mesenteric lymphadenitis and ileitis.

73
Q

Cause of plague

A

Yersinia pestis

74
Q

most common organism affecting previously abnormal heart valves.

A

Streptococcus viridans

75
Q

most common cause of bacterial tonsillitis

A

streptococcal organisms.

76
Q

Which organism tends to colonise plastic devices

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

77
Q

What is melanosis coli

A

Melanosis coli is a benign pigment disorder in which the lining of the large intestine, or colon, turns black or brown, usually as a result of laxative use.
This may occur as a result of laxative abuse and consists of lipofuschin laden macrophages that appear brown.

78
Q

Which diarrhea/septicemia is associated with carcinoma of the colon

A

Streptococcus bovis

79
Q

most common cause of bladder calcification by infection worldwide

A

Schistosomiasis

80
Q

Location is Schistosoma mansoni infection

A

typically resided in the colon from where it is excreted.

81
Q

Disease causing bulls neck appearance

A

Infection with diphtheria

82
Q

In which infection the oropharynx is covered with a thick grey membrane which bleeds following attempted removal.

A

Infection with diphtheria

83
Q

Organism containing sulphur granules

A

actinomycosis

84
Q

Ototoxicity is a recognised adverse reaction with which antibiotics

A

the aminoglycoside

85
Q

Best treatment of infective dislocation of total hip replacement

A

Removal of metal work implantation of gentamicin beads and delayed revision is the mainstay of managing this complication after 4 weeks. In earlier infections, linear exchanges covered by prolonged courses of antibiotics can be used.

86
Q

Birds are a recognised reservoir of which organism causing painful diarrhea

A

campylobacter jejuni

87
Q

Which drugs are aminoglycosides?

A

gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin, plazomicin, streptomycin, neomycin, and paromomycin

88
Q

Use of Chloramphenicol

A

superficial eye infections such as bacterial conjunctivitis, and otitis externa

89
Q

Causes of Discitis in children

A

Staphylococcus aureus,
Kingella kingae(6 months to 4 years), Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Brucella

90
Q

Treatment of Discitis in children

A

Initial treatment is with broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics that cover s aureus, children aged 4 months to 6 years need cover for Kigella.

91
Q

ESR & WCC in septic arthritis

A

The WCC should ideally be > 12 and the ESR > 40 to suggest septic arthritis.

92
Q

Relation of virus with synovitis

A

Viral illnesses can be associated with transient synovitis

93
Q

Shenton’s line

A

Shenton’s line should be a smooth, continuous arc that connects the femoral neck to the superior margin of the obturator foramen.

94
Q

Why prophylactic use of antibiotics is not appropriate for Mayo repair

A

As the Mayo repair does not involve implantation of prosthetic mesh the use of antibiotics is not appropriate.

95
Q

Solution for skin preparation before incision

A

Alcoholic chlorhexidine

eMRCS (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions