Surgery Questions - Kenz Flashcards

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1
Q

When should anesthesia be consulted for procedural sedation?

A
  • CPS: Recommendations for Procedural Sedation in Infants, Children and Adolescents
  • Anesthesia consultation should be considered for patients who:
    • have symptoms of acute illness (ie. upper resp tract infection) or who have active chronic conditions (ie recent asthma exacerbation).
      • at higher risk of respiratory complications: bronchospasm/laryngospasm, oxygen desaturations.
        infants <6 months (higher risk of adverse events).
  • Other patients who should prompt involvement of anesthesia include:
    • those with potentially difficult airway (history of difficult intubation/phenotypic features), resp distress (including reduced pulmonary function tests), cardiac disease (including pulmonary hypertension).
    • preterm infants -> at risk of post-anesthetic apneas until 60 weeks post-conceptual age (ie 5 months corrected)
    • obese patients and those with OSA
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2
Q

What are the requirements for procedural sedation? (specifically, things that the hospital can provide)

A
  • Immediate availability of a clinician with advanced airway skills and competent in resuscitation and stabilization of the critically ill paediatric patient.
  • An additional health care provider (HCP) to assist the clinician administering sedation. If the clinician is also performing the procedure and delegating continuous monitoring and directed administration of medications, the assistant must be a highly qualified HCP (e.g., another physician, nurse practitioner, anesthesia assistant, or a nurse with advanced resuscitation skills).
  • Continuous physiologic monitoring with pulse oximetry and non-invasive blood pressure measurements. ECG and end-tidal capnography should be available when using intravenous (IV) sedation.
  • Immediate availability of emergency equipment and rescue medications.
  • Adequate post-sedation monitoring capabilities, including overnight admission if necessary.
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3
Q

HCPs considering procedural sedation must ensure what?

A
  • The paediatric patient is an appropriate candidate (i.e., ASA Class I or II) based on a thorough history and focused physical examination.
  • The patient is fasted in accordance with institutional guidelines.
  • Consenting decision makers and assenting patients are informed of the indications for, alternatives to, and risks and benefits of, procedural sedation. Informed consent for the sedation itself is required.
  • Referral to anesthesia occurs when these criteria cannot be met or an increased level of complexity is predicted.
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4
Q

Clinicians providing procedural sedation should be what?

A
  • Appropriately credentialed and participate in maintenance of skills activities.
  • Fully cognizant of the indications, contraindications, and adverse effects of administered medications and experienced with their use.
  • Prepared to manage patients at any depth of sedation.
  • Competent in resuscitation and stabilization of the critically ill paediatric patient.
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5
Q

Hospitals should develop institutional policies and procedures for procedural sedation that include what?

A
  • Documentation of pre-sedation evaluation, informed consent, vital signs, medications administered, response to sedation, and unanticipated or emergency interventions.
  • A checklist of immediately available emergency equipment and rescue medications.
  • A process for reporting, monitoring, and reviewing adverse events.
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6
Q

Name 4 risk factors for anesthetic complications for kids with asthma?

A
  • hospital admission within the previous year
  • ED visit in the last 6 months
  • Previous ICU admission
  • previous IV steroids
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7
Q

What are good rules of thumb for kids with asthma and/or URTI symptoms around the time of anesthesia?

A
  • ideally, kids should be free of wheeze for (at least) several days before surgery - even if this necessitates increased controller meds. Active wheeze is an indication to delay elective surgery.
  • “Clear rhinorrhea without fever is not associated with increase anesthetic risk”

***Resp illness associated with fever, mucopurulent nasal discharnge, productive cough or lower resp symptoms (crackles/wheeze( are assoicated wit increase airway reactivity and anesthetic complications for up to 6 weeks after! (this is per Nelsons)

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8
Q

What are the ASA classifications?

A
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9
Q

Name 6 risk factors for apnea post-anesthetic

A
  • Prematurity
  • Multiple congenital anomalies
  • Hx of apnea/bradycardia
  • Chronic lung disease
  • Post-conceptual age < 60 weeks at time of surgery
  • Anemia
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10
Q

Which children need to be observed after anesthetic for a minimum of 12 hours (age requirements**)?

A
  • Term kiddos < 3 months
  • Preterm with postnatal age < 60 weeks
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11
Q

what are the associated risks of a current or recent URTI (WRT anesthesia complications)?

A

Higher risk for perioperative respiratory adverse events (airway hyperactivity- laryngospasm, bronchospasm, atelectasis, coughing,airway obstruction, hypoxia, stridor and breathholding) if current or recent URTI, most are mild and easily managed.

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12
Q

What is the COLDS score?

A

Use COLDS score to determine risk → decision is based on balancing the risk is based on local resources and individual experience

“For children who are found during preoperative screening prior to an elective procedure to have or have had a URI, we postpone the procedure until two to four weeks after symptoms subside” - If current and MILD may proceed, if fever or moderate to severe symptoms recommend postpone - CUTOFF SCORE 8

Patients score = 10-12/25

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13
Q

How do you diagnose appendicitis?

A

Acute appendicitis (not peritonic or septic to suggest perforation) - history + PE features + elevated WBC (>10,000)

Pediatric appendicitis score = 5 (up to 8 if hoping tenderness & anorexia)

Investigations: If the ultrasound study is unable to visualize the appendix, or the appendix is visualized but the findings inconclusive, the next options would include admission for a period of observation and planned reassessment, CT imaging, or diagnostic laparoscopy

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14
Q

How do you treat appendicitis?

A

An observation strategy seems most useful in patients who present with a brief history of illness (<12 hr) when advanced imaging studies predictably have lower sensitivity and specificity. A child may be observed with intravenous fluids, serial vital signs, and planned re-examinations is another strategy. At the end of a period of observation, typically 12-24 hr, the clinician decides on discharge based on reassuring clinical status, proceeds to diagnostic laparoscopy and appendectomy, or proceeds with advanced imaging evaluation

Score <4 = low risk → discharge no imaging

Score 4-7 = intermediate → observation or imaging

Score >7 = high risk → surgical consultation

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15
Q

What is the Pediatric Appendicitis Score?

A
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16
Q

What are the risk factors for a perforated appendix?

A

Highest risk for perforated appendicitis (40-59%) is delayed presentation (>48 hours), higher risk if insidious onset of symptoms (40-50%)

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17
Q

What is the management of a ruptured appie?

A
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18
Q

Management of a perf’d appie

A
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19
Q
A

Management: non-surgical (IV antibiotics (2 days - 7-10 days oral), percutaneous drainage of abscess) successful in >80% of patients. Failure to demonstrate recovery should prompt appendectomy, if recovery consider interval appendectomy in 4-6 weeks if no recurrence of symptoms

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20
Q

what is the most likely cause of a SBO (small bowel obstruction) in kids who have not had prior abdo surgery?

A

The most likely diagnosis in children who present with signs and symptoms of mechanical small bowel obstruction who have not had prior abdominal surgery is complicated appendicitis

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21
Q

What are complications/presenting features of a perf’d appie?

A

Complications:

  • Patients typically develop signs and symptoms evidencing advanced disease, including worsening and diffuse pain, abdominal distension, and bilious emesis suggestive of developing small bowel obstruction
  • The most likely diagnosis in children who present with signs and symptoms of mechanical small bowel obstruction who have not had prior abdominal surgery is complicated appendicitis
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22
Q

What is the most common complication of a perf’d appie?

A

“Intra-abdominal abscesses are the most common complication after perforated appendicitis and remain a significant problem ranging in incidence from 14 to 18%”

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23
Q

what are bowel adhesions? when do they develop? what are their symptoms?

A

Bowel Adhesions:

Adhesions are fibrous tissue bands that result from peritoneal injury -> can constrict hollow organs. Major cause of postop small bowel obstruction.

  • most remain asymptomatic, but problems can arise any time after the 2nd postop week to a year after surgery.
    • symptoms include: abdo pain, constipation, emeses and a history of intraperitoneal surgery.
    • Initially bowel sounds are hyperactive and abdo is flat → progress to loss of bowel sounds and abdo distension.
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24
Q

How are bowel adhesions managed?

A
  • Management includes: NG decompression, IV fluids and broad spectrum antibiotics in preparation for surgery.
    • Non-Operative intervention is contraindicated unless a patient is stable with obvious clinical improvement.
25
Q

What is the Parkland Formula? What is the fluid rate after a burn?

A

Parkland Formula: Fluid Resuscitation = (4ml) x (weight) x (%BSA burned) - ½ fluid given over the first 8 hours (calculated from the time of the onset of the injury), remaining given over the next 16 hours PLUS maintenance fluids .

26
Q

What is special about >30% BSA management? >60% BSA?

A
  • >30% BSA need central access
  • >60% needs multi-lumen central access and may need a specialized burn unit
27
Q

What outcomes (vitals) are you watching when employing the Parkland formula?

A

Should normalize HR and BP and goal UO of >1ml/kg/hr in children, 0.5-1ml/kg/hr in adolescents

28
Q

What BSA requires central access? What about multi-lumen central acces and burn unit?

A
  • >30% BSA need central access
  • >60% needs multi-lumen central access and may need a specialized burn unit
29
Q

What is the rule of 9’s?

A
30
Q

How are burns classified?

A

Burn Classification:

  • Superficial: epidermis only, painful, red and blanching (not included in TBSA)
  • Superficial partial thickness: epidermis and dermis, painful to temperature and air, blisters, may be weeping, red and blanching
  • Deep partial thickness: epidermis and dermis, non-painful, blisters can be weeping or dry, non-blanching
  • Full thickness: epidermis and full dermis, non-painful, appearance from waxy and taut to charred, non-blanching
31
Q

what do you have to consider when doing H/P for burns?

A
  • History/Physical: consider risks for other injuries
    • Closed space/flame burns, Hypoxemia/mental status change, Drooling, stridor, soot in mouth/nares, Tachypnea, grunting, retractions - airway compromise, parenchymal lung injury, CO/cyanide poisoning
    • Falls, abdominal pain, extremity pain/deformity - blunt trauma
    • Patterns/inconsistent history - ?NAT
32
Q

What are indications for hospitalization after a burn (12)

A
  • >10% BSA in kids, >10-20% BSA in adolescents
  • 3rd degree burns (full thickness)
  • Electrical burns with high tension wires or lightning
  • Chemical burns
  • Inhalational injury - regardless of %TBSA
  • Social supports
  • Suspected abuse
  • Burns to: dace, hands, feet, perineum, genitals, major joints
  • Pre-existing medical conditions impacting recovery
  • Associated injuries
  • Pregnancy
  • Pain control
33
Q

Management of burns (broad strokes)

A
  • Major Burns:
    • ABCDE
    • Pain control
    • Surgical consultation
    • Debride and dress wounds
    • Fluid resuscitation
  • Minor Burns
    • Remove all clothing and jewelry
    • Pain management (NSAIDS +/- opiates)
    • Cool skin (gauze, water, NO ice directly on skin)
    • Clean with soap and water, debride ruptured blisters
    • Dress with 3 layers: antimicrobial ointment, non adherent dressing, dry gauze (wet gauze predisposes to hypothermia)
    • Tetanus
34
Q

Management of minor burns

A
35
Q

What is diaphragmatic eventration? what causes it? what are its associations?

A

Diaphragmatic Eventration: abnormal elevation of the diaphragm, consisting of thinned diaphragmatic muscle that causes elevation of the entire hemidiaphragm or more often the anterior aspect of the hemidiaphragm → causes a paradoxical motion of the affected hemidiaphragm.

  • usually asymptomatic and don’t require repair.
  • congenital form is due to incomplete development of the muscular portion or central tendon or abnormal development of the phrenic nerves.

Eventration

  • Abnormal elevation of the diaphragm - paradoxical motion to the affected hemidiaphragm
  • Most do not need repair
  • Associated with pulmonary sequestration, CHD, SMA, T21/18/13
  • Large eventrations may need surgical repair
36
Q

What is the most common form of congenital diagphragmatic hernia? What are the other kinds?

A
  • Communication between abdominal and thoracic cavities
  • Congenital in most cases; rarely can be traumatic
  • Defect: hiatus, paraesophageal, retrosternal, or posterolateral portion of diaphragm - most common in CDH; mostly on L side
37
Q

what are commonly associated anomalies with congenital diaphragmatic hernia?

A
  • Associated findings: CNS, esophageal atresia, omphalocele, CVS lesions
  • Syndromes: T21/13/18, Fryns, Brachmann-de-Lange, Pallister-Killian, Turner syndrome
  • U/S - polyhydramnios, chest mass, mediastinal shift, fetal hydrops
  • Ddx: eventration, cystic lung lesions (CCAM, pulmonary sequestration)
38
Q

basic NICU approach to congenital diaphragmatic hernia?

A

At Delivery: ETT (avoid PPV), gentle ventilation with permissive hypercapnea (lung protective)

39
Q

Clinical findings of congenital diaphragmatic hernia?

A
  • Clinical Findings: tachypnea, scaphoid abdomen, decreased breath sounds, displacement of cardiac impulse (at birth), vomiting (older)
40
Q

What is epididymitis? How does it present?

What are the usual etiologies?

A

Epididymitis: acute bacterial inflammation ascending retrograde infection from the urethra through the vas into the epididymis.

Presentation: acute pain, erythema, and swelling; rare prior to puberty (consider congenital abnormality of the wolffian duct)

Etiology: E. coli (younger male), gonococcus or chlamydia in sexually active males > mediterranean fever, enterovirus, adenovirus

41
Q

how do you treat epidymitis?

A

Treatment: bed rest +/- antibiotics

42
Q

Gastroschisis: what is the pathogenesis? How big is it usually?

A
  • Abdominal wall defect 1-2cm to the right of the umbilicus, herniation of bowel without a membranous covering.
  • <5-cm wall defect
  • Typically only small bowel herniates, but can have other abdominal organs
  • Covered by thin inflammatory peel; has abnormal, matted appearance
43
Q

What are common associations with gastroschisis?

A

10% to 20% will also have associated intestinal anomalies such as atresia

  • Almost all will have malrotation
  • Commonly have intestinal dysmotility and gastroesophageal reflux

6-30% associated with intestinal atresia, not associated with congenital anomalies.

***not really associated with congenital anomalies - except for the atresia (which seems more like a sequence thing).

44
Q

Risk factors for gastroschisis:

A
  • Young maternal age
  • Maternal tobacco use
  • Recreational drug use
45
Q

What is the prenatal management of gastroschisis?

A

serial ultrasonography to monitor for bowel dilatation (worsening can indicate underlying atresia or ischemia), vaginal delivery unless other indications, no indication for premature delivery

46
Q

What is the postnatal management of gastroschisis?

A
  • Sterile bag around lower body with infant on their side
  • Early venous access for fluids and TPN
  • Inspect bowel for evidence of atresia before ANY reduction
  • Primary closure if possible - risk of abdominal compartment syndrome (rare)
  • Secondary closure with silo bag tightened 1-2 times daily with surgical closure once reduced
  • Complex Gastroschisis (atresia, perforation, necrosis) bowel resection 4-6 weeks after delivery with anastamosis
47
Q

What is the prognosis for gastroschisis (including how long does the ileus tend to last)?

A
  • Post correction - ileus and bowel dysmotility (avg 2-3 weeks)
  • Overall survival 90%
48
Q

how do omphalocoele and gastroschisis differ?

A

Omphalocele:

  • central through the umbilical ring
  • covered by thin membrane (but can be ruptured)

Gastroschisis:

  • lateral to the umbilicus (usually to the right).
  • no covering membrante
    • but there could be fibrous matter.
49
Q

Omphalocoele: Pathogenesis

A
  • herniation of the abdominal viscera through a midline abdo wall defect.
    • located at the base of the umbilical stalk
    • herniated viscera are covered by a 3-layer membrane of peritoneum, Wharton jelly and amnion.
  • thought to occur when the abdo viscera fail to return to the abdomen after normal physiologic herniation.
  • because there iss the overlying sac, the abdo contents (which can vary) are protected from the irritating effects of the amniotic fluid.
50
Q

what is the difference btn an umbilical hernia and an omphalocele and gastroschisis?

A

umbilical cord hernia: covered by intact skin (and only a small protrusion of abdominal contents)

omphalocele: herniated viscera covered by 3 layer membrane: peritoneum, Wharton jelly and amnion

Gastroschisis: no coverings at all and occurs to the right of the midline.

51
Q

what is the significance of the sac in omphalocele?

A
  • the sac protects the contents from the irritating amniotic fluid
  • infants generally have normal gastrointestinal motility.
  • ileus can be seen in the setting of a ruptured sac*
    • severity of ileus tends to correlate with the duration of exposure to amniotic fluid/external environment
52
Q

What are the main morbidities associated with omphalocele?

A

generally related to the associated congenital anomalies.

53
Q

risk of congenital anomaly with omphalocele?

A
  • 50-70& have other congenital defects
  • >50% of those will have CHD
  • often seen as part of a genetic disorder/syndrome - 10% will have Beckwith-Wiedemann.
  • ~⅓ will have genetic anomaly (including T12,18,21)
54
Q

What are the features of Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome?

A
  • macroglossia
  • gigantism
  • omphalocele
  • hypoglycemia
55
Q

what should you consider if there is an infraumbilical omphalocele?

A
  • genitourinary abnormalities, including pladder or cloacal exstrophy as part of OEIS association
  • OEIS: omphalocele, exstrophy of the bladder, imperforate anus, spinal defects
56
Q

what prenatal marker should raise suspicion for an abdominal wall defect?

A

serum alpha fetoprotein

57
Q

what analysis (prenatal) is indicated for all cases of suspected omphalocele?

A
  1. karyotype
  2. need to also evaluate the heart and the CNS system (these determine outcome).
    1. sometimes you will need a fetal MRI
  3. can be associated with pulmonary hypoplasia
    1. MRI can be helpful - especially to decide if you need ECMO (not not necessary)

**you can’t diagnose omphalocele before 12 weeks of gestation

58
Q
A