Surgery Principles Flashcards

1
Q

PreOp:

When to stop aspirin and NSAIDs

A

Aspirin (irrev COX)- need to stop 7-10 days before

NSAIDS are reversible- can stop 2 days before

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2
Q

PreOP:

Patient’s ECG shows previous MI, but he has no knownledge of it and is chest pain freee

A

previous MI increases risk of post op MI

workup with cardiac consult, exercise stress test to detect ischemia

if signs of ischemia are present, then cardiac cath may be necessary prior to surgery

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3
Q

Pre OP:

Patient has diabetes

A

patient will be NPO after midnight, should be given IV fluids with dextrose

patients who are taking oral hypoglycemic agents should not recieve their medication the morning of surgery

if patient has glucose level greater than 250 in type 1, give 2/3 dose of NPH and regular insulin. if less than 250, then one half the morning dose given

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4
Q

Pre Op:

Patients with low hematrocrit

A

surgery should be POSTPONED, and cause of anemia should be discovered (colorectal cancer most common cause, look for other GI blood loss)

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5
Q

Pre Op:

Patient with high hematocrit

A

Patient may be dehydrated- postpone surgery and hydrate patient (to figure out dehydration look for poor skin turgor and dry mouth)

Polycythemia also possible (PCV, EPO secretion, COPD) -should be diagnosed and treated before surgery

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6
Q

Preop:

Patient is 100lbs overweight

A

complete evaluation with ABGs, pulmonary function

if elective surgery can be postponed, otherwise epidural anesthesia and aggresive post op pulm care to avoid **atelectasis **

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7
Q

perioperative blood glucose levels

A

100-250 mg/dL

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8
Q

Periop:

Patient with high blood pressure (180/110)

A

diastolic pressure greater than or equal to 110 is a risk factor for malignant HTN, acute MI, CHF

B blockers should be used won day of surgery

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9
Q

PreOP Pulm:

how long should a patient abstain from smoking before an elective surgery to decrease risk of post op complications

A

6-8 weeks

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10
Q

What does an ABG of :

PaO2 less than 60 indicate

PaCO2 more than 45 indicate

A

pulm HTN

assoc with increased perioperative morbidity

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11
Q

what to do in a case of patient with severe COPD with acute cholecysitis

A

Patient has high risk of acute pulmonary failure with surgery

CXR to check for pneumonia

If surgery necessary- minimize duration of anesthesia. Prevent atelectasis by immedicte mobilization post-op

choice of operation- CHOLECYSTOSTOMY- where large drainage to resolve acute sepsis may be preferred

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12
Q

Five factors used to predict risk for cardiac complications after vascular surgery

A

Q waves on ECG

history of ventricular ectopy

history of angina

diabetes mellitus

older than 70

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13
Q

Patient with diabetes, older than 70 with resting pain in right foot. ischemia of leg will be managed with a bypass from femoral artery to distal tibial vessels.

a) assessment?
b) if he had an MI 3 years ago
c) 3 weeks ago?
d) LBBB
e) had CABG 2 y ago

A

a) cant do stress test, so use persantine thallium stress test or dobutamine ECG
b) reinfarction with prior history of MI can be high. Pt should be given a stress test. If ischemia is present- cardiac cath
c) surgery shoul d be delayed if acute MI was within 30 days!
d) suggests unederlying ischemia
e) may be beneficial- reduce cardiac complications in pts unergoing non cardiac surgery

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14
Q

Major abdominal surgery effect oon VC and FRC

A

Vital capacity reduced by 50%, FRC reduced by 30%

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15
Q

what to give patient with asthma who must undergo operation during acute exacerbation

A

twice usual dose of PO steroids, or 1mg/kg methyl prednisone preop and then q6h

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16
Q

postoperative risk of respiratory failure in COPD pt

A

PCO2>50

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17
Q

prophylaxis for high risk DVT

A

perioperative subcutaneous heparin reduces risk of DVT and PE

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18
Q

Post Op:

PaO2/FiO2 <200

PCWP <19, no CHF

Bilateral infiltrates and acute lung injury

A

ARDS

Management:

PEEP

Pressure limited ventilation

permissive hypercapnia (g

Prone position

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19
Q

highest morbidity and mortality of all pulmonary complications

A

pneumonia

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20
Q

patient ECG shows 6 PVCs per minute…cardiac risk?

A

indicates ventricular dysfunction, increased cardiac mortality associated wit risk of arrhythmia

use stress test or echo to evaluate left ventricular function

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21
Q

cardiac risk in pt with loud carotid bruit

A

carotid duplex study needed

likely severe internal carotid stenosis

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22
Q

PreOp end organ assessment in patient with diabetes

A

1) Nephropathy- poor response to hypovolemia, risk of contrast induced renal damage
2) autonomic neuropathy- risk of gastroparesis- increased risk of aspiration during intubation

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23
Q

what procedure may be needed for pts with high grade carotid stenosis prior to surgery

A

carotid endarterectomy

surgical procedure used to prevent stroke, by correcting stenosis (narrowing) in the common carotid artery. Endarterectomy is the removal of material on the inside (end-) of an artery.

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24
Q

which oral hypoglycemic needs to be stopped 2-3 days prior to surgery unlike most others which can be stopped the night before?

A

chlorpropamide (1st gen SU)

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25
Q

Ankle Brachial index (ABI)

is 0.2

A

ABI is systolic BP in legs/systolic in ARMS

a low number indicates peripheral vascular disease

higher risk of ulcers, gangrene

NEED PERIPHERAL REVASCULARIZATION, esp with coronary hx.

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26
Q

Child’s classicication of cirrhosis

A

A B C

using ascites, total bilirubin, encephalopathy, nutrition, albumin

operative mortality

A= 2%

B= 10%

C= 50%

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27
Q

preop control of ascites

A

potassium sparing diuretics, sodium and water restriction

need pt in compensated state

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28
Q

What liver factors would delay surgery?

A

classification in child group C, presence of acute alcoholic hepatitis

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29
Q

pt needing a hernia repair has ascites. You notice ascites fluid leaking from the umbilical hernia

A

higher risk of bacterial peritonitis, mortality rate high due to infection.

IV antibiotics and emergent hernia repair

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30
Q

Estmating preoperative creatinine clearance

A

(140-age) * wt / 72* creatinine

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31
Q

most common complication in dialysis patients

Tx

A

hyperkalemia (renal failure)

Tx: IV calcim, d50, insulin, bicarbonate, albuterol, kayexalate

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32
Q

lab value for intrinsic renal damage

for ATN

Pre-renal damage

A

Intrinsic= FeNa > 1

ATN- specific gravity1.010

Pre-renal: UNa<10

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33
Q

intraoperative bleeding in CKD patient

A

platelet dysfunction due to uremia can contribute, so transfusion with platelets wont help

ddAVP used acutely, but may have loss of action (increase vWF, increased aggregation)

FFP

post op hemodialysis to reduce uremia

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34
Q

possible reason for hypotension in renal failure patients

A

glucocorticoid deficiency due to previously taken steroids

tx with hydrocortisone intraoperatively

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35
Q

managing hyperkalemia in renal failure pt

A

will see peaked T waves

give calcium gluconate to stabilize cardiac membranes

insulin and glucose to reduce protassium levels

hemodialysis likely needed

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36
Q

management for pts with valvular heart disease or cardiomyopathy

A

perioperative monitoring with pulmonary artery catheter, arterial line, and transesophageal echo

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37
Q

What is a bowel prep and its complications

A

preop bowel preparation before colectom= decrease fecal mass and bacterial content in colon

along with a clear liquid diet

nonabsorbable antibiotics (neomycin, erythromycin) also used

complication-

golytely (polyethylene glycol)- causes no net absrption or secretion- have volume washout. safe. May have dehydration

phospho-soda: contraindicated in diabetics (has sugar) and in pts with salt restricted diets. hypertonic sodium phosphate draws fluid, also loss of bicarb= metabolic acidosis

magnesium citrate- poorly absorbed,. Patients with renal disease may not be ale to clear mg.,

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38
Q

order of return of bowel function

A

small intestine, then stomach, then colon

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39
Q

Measurable and Unmeasurable Intraoperative fluid losses

A

Measurable: estimated blood loss (EBL), amount of fluid given intraoperatively, and urine output

assuming patient did not get blood in OR, need to replace every 1mL of EBL with 3mL of isotonic fluid

(because about 2/3 of IV fluid given leaves the intravascular space)

Unmeasurable: evaporation (long procedures)- must be estimated

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40
Q

Maintenance fluid measurement post-op

A

Based on body weight

First 10 kg— 100 mL/kg/24h

Next 10—-50 mL/kg/24h

Beyond 20—-20 per kg

ex: 70kg patient= (100*10) + (50*20) + (20ml/g* 50)= 2500 ml/24h

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41
Q

what type of fluids replaced in 1st 24 h after large intraoperative blood loss

A

lactated ringers solution of 0.9 normal saline

since loss is isotonic, replace with isotonic solution

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42
Q

why do IV fluid requirement decrease with recovery post-op

A

more and more fluid from third space accumulation comes back into intravascular space with recovery of normal fluid movement

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43
Q

Normal urine output per hour

what if devpt of 400ml/hr and develops BP of 80/60

A

Normal- 0.5-1ml/kg/hr

Now has either renal disease with inability to concentrate urine, DI,

postobstructive diuresis- usually self limited, and returns to normal 1-2 days

urine with low osm indicates pathologic conc defect, urine with higher osm suggests osmotic diuresis

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44
Q

post op fever with :

a) bilateral crackles
b) burning on urination, wbcs in UA
c) pus on venipuncture site

A

a) atelectasis- most common source of fever in immediate post op. CXR- need to use incentive spirometry (patient breathes in deeply from device and holds breath- increased pressure pops open the alveoli)

cxr may also show pneumonia, pulmonary edema (usually nnot with fever)

B) UTI

c) SUPPURATIVE PHLEBITIS- infected thrombus in the vein around the catheter. remove catheter and surgically excising infected vein. IV abx

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45
Q

pt has a segment of necrotic bowel resected. on the 5th day post-op, u notice intestinal contents draining from the wound. Why?

A

could be a leak at the jejunostomy site, breakdown of anastomoses, or missed enterotomy

surgical reexploration with signs of peritonitis. CT to rule out intra-abdominal collection- can be drained.

if fistula present, can be maintained non-op- NPO and giving TPN, measure fistula output daily.

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46
Q

factors associated with failure of fistula to heal

A

Foreign body in wound

Radiation damage to the area

Infection or IBD

Epithelialization of fistulous tract

Neoplasm

Dstal Bowel Obstruction

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47
Q

patient should not lift heavy weights until which week post op

A

about 6 weeks

collagen and crosslinking occuring, need final tensile strength

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48
Q

patient with a small, sore, red area on wound , draining small amounts of pus

A

stitch abscess- infection of suture

can explore area under local anesthesia

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49
Q

patient has raised, hypertrophic wound

A

usually stabilizes, and does not enlarge- reassure patient, and can use steroid injections and local pressure dressings

if spreading outside area of incision= keloid. same tx as above

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50
Q

split thickness skin graft

A

with a second intention wound, can use skin (epidermis and part of dermis) from a remote site. this graft can revascularize from the granulation tissue

are more susceptible to trauma than normal skin

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51
Q

peak of collagen production in wound healing

A

starts at 10 hours, peaking at 5-7 days

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52
Q

type of cells present in wounds that heal by secondary intention

A

myofibroblasts- contraction of wound, and increased scarring

53
Q

wound classification examples

a) uncomplicated hernia repair with no mesh
b) elective colectomy
c) perforated colon requiring emergent colectomy

A

a) no mesh= clean
b) clean-contaminated (low probability of infection with stool, but still involving the alimentary tract

(clean contaminated- clean but involving respiratory, alimentary, genital, or urinary)

c) contaminated wound (leave wound open and once granulation has occured, close wound and monitor)

54
Q

when to give antibiotics with operations?

A

not everyone gets them!

used in cases involving brief, predictable exposure to bacteria

implantation of device or prostheses

impaired host defenses

poor blood supply

single dose 1 hr preop and single dose post op

55
Q

which mass accounts for most of ICF

A

skeletal muscle mass (slightly lower intracellular fluid in females for this reason)

56
Q

degrees of dehydration

A

Mild= 3% adults, 5% kids

Moderate, and severe

Moderate deficit- sleepiness, apathy, slow responses, decreased food consumption, hypotension, tachycardia, collapsed veins,

soft small tongue with wrinkling, mild temp decrease

severe deficit- decreased reflexes, stupor, ileus, hypotension, cold extremities, sunken eyes. marked temp decrease

57
Q

how may a patient with severe sepsis with peritonitis may be missed?

A

if he is volume depleted- will be afebrile and have normal WBC

sx will manifest dramitically when ECF restored

58
Q

colloid vs crysalloid

A

crystalloid- used in most cases for initial bolus (20mg/kg) for volume expansion of intravascular space

with equilibration, 2/3 of any volume will stay intravascularly

colloid- used to STIMULATE LIVER FOR ALBUMIN RELEASE

stays mainly in intravascular space

indicated if hypovolemia persists after 2L of crystalloid given, or patients with excess na and water are hypovolemic (CHF, ascites), patients with liver disease, severe hemorrhage

59
Q

causes of hypotonic volume excess

A

inappropiate NaCl depleted solution given

third spacing (shift of ECF from plasma to interstitial/transcellular spaces)

increased ADH with surgical stress or SIADH

60
Q

CNS signs of volume excess

GI

CV

Tissue Signs

A

No CNS SIGNS!

GI- edema

CV- increased pressures, CO, loud heart sounds, functional murmurs, gallops, pulmonary edema

Tissue- putting edema, rales, vomiting, diarrhea

Tx: furosemide (10-50 mg), with K replacement as needed

61
Q

causes and how to replace ongoing fluid loss

A

replace one half of the usual ongoing losses allong with assumed maintenance and rehydration fluid

causes:

-fever- (each C above 37 add about 2-3 ml/kg/day loss)

vomiting, NG tube, fistulas

hird space

burns

osmotic diuresis due to urea, mannitol, glucose

62
Q

most common cause of normovolemic hyponatremia

A

SIADH

inappropriately concentrated urine (>100 mOSm/kg)

euvolemia

glucocorticoid def (addisons) can cause ADH hypersecretion

hypothyroidism cuases decreased CO and GFR= leadin to increased ADH release

63
Q

changes in calcium fractions based on pH

A

overall 50% non ionized (plasma protein binding),

5% non ionized (binding other things)

45% ionized

Acidosis increases ionized fraction while alkalosis decreases it

64
Q

estimating basal energy expenditure in patients with swan-ganz catheters

A

(SaO2-SvO2) * CO* Hb* 95

Males usually at 25kcal/kg//day

Females at 22

Multiply this by desired goal

  • Nonstressed: 1.2
  • Postop: 1.5
  • Trauma, sepsis, burns: 1..6-2
  • Fever: 12% increase per C
65
Q

Enteral feeding complications

A

Diarrhea (exclude infections, dilue hypertonic formulas)

Aspiration (add methylene blue to resp secretions for color, check with glucose strips, keep HEAD ELEVATED AT 45deg)

Obstruction of feeding tube (improper flushing, inappropriate meds- suucralfate, psyllium)

High gastric residual volumes

Obstruction

gastoparesis, ileus (esp with opiates and anti-cholinergics)

esophagitis (NG tubes)

66
Q

causes of NORMAL GAP anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

HARD UP

Hyperparathyroidism

Adrenal insufficiency, anhydrase inhibitors

Renal tubular acidosis

Diarrhea

Ureteroenteric fistula

Pancreatic fistula

67
Q

Rules of thumb for acute acid-base disorders

A

MAcid: PCO2 drops about 1.5

Malk: PCO2 rises about 1.0

Respacid: HCO3 rises 0.1

respalk: HCO3 drops 0.3

68
Q

which organ should be monitored closely in “cold” shocks

A

cold= cardiogenic or hypovolemic shock. svr increases, and clamps down vessels including renal arteries, so look for renal failure

69
Q

Classification of Hypovolemic Shock

A

Class 1

<20% of circulating blood volume lost. slight tachycardia, normal BP and UO

Class 2

20-40% loss, have tachycardia, increased capillary refull, orthostasis, hypotension, agitation

Class 3

all of the above + LETHARGY AND DECREASED UO

70
Q

distinguishing hypovolemic vs cardiogenic shock

A

both have decreased CO, cold skin

Hypovolemia: low PCWP (low fluids overall), with increased SVR due to hypotension

Cardiogenic: high PCWP (fluid buildup due to pump failure), with also increased SVR

71
Q

Intermittent Mandatory ventilation

A

when patient initiates a breath= vent gives pressure support, with TV determined by the patients inspiratory effort

if patients doesnt initiate, hten a set TV is given (like assist controlled ventilation)

72
Q

diagnostic criteria for ARDS

A

1) Bilateral, fluffy infiltrates on chest xray
2) Refractory hypoxemia
3) no evidence of heart failure (PCWP <18)

73
Q

ratio for FFP: PRBC for transfusion

A

1: 1.5

74
Q

admission to burn center for

a) pts under 10 or over 50
b) pts of other ages
c) key sites

A

a) more than 10% body surgace area
b) more than 20% BSA
c) significant burns to face, hands, feet, genitalia, skin over major joints, perineum

full thickness burns of >5% BSA at any age, also significant electrical or chemical injury

75
Q

An adult male is brought in with second degree burns of chest, abdominal wall, anterior right leg and perineum.

estimate TBSA burned

A

rule of nines used

ADULT

Trunk/Chest- 18 (anterior and posterior)

Each leg- 9 (anterior and posterior)

each arm- 4.5 (anterior and posterior)

head- 4.5% ant and post each

child- 10% trunk, 7% head, 8% legs

76
Q

when to apply cold saline soaks for burns

A

for analgesia if less than 25% BSA

watch for hypothermia

77
Q

How mmuch fluid should a 60kg female with 25% TBSA burn recieve during the first 24h

change for next 24h?

A

Parkland formula

lactated ringers solution at 4ml/kg/%BSA burn

= 4 *60*25= 6000ml

1/2 given in first 8 hr

rest over next 16 h

next 24h: use D51/2NS and give albumin if pt is hypotensive

78
Q

under 15- parkland values

A

Lactated ringers first 24 h at 3Ml (instead of 4)/kg/%BSA

as in adults give 1st half in 8hrs

79
Q

Initiail assessment = AMPLE

A

Allergies

Medications

Previous illnesses

Last Meal

Events surrounding injury

80
Q

what glasgow score indicated coma

A

8 or less

81
Q

what should be done for trauma with rib fracture resulting in a simple pneumothorax

A

insert a finger into pleural space to assure that its not the peritoneal cavity and then insert a large diameter chest tube

place a water seal with suction and do serial CXRs

82
Q

pt with a simple pneumothorax also has

what is a laceration on the chest wall that penetrates through to the lung and sucks air

A

sucking chest wound- should be sealed with an occlusiive dressing

insert chest tube at a different location

83
Q

after insertion of a chest tube, a large amount of air continues to leak into the chest tube over the next 6 hours. `

A

major airway injury with disruption of a bronchus or trachea. need bronchoscopy, thoracotomy, partial lung resection

84
Q

next step after patient continues to remain hypotensive and unstable despite adequate fluid resuscitation

A

the most important priority is search for underlying cause—-urgent laparotomy or thoracotomy

invasive monitoring (central line and peripheral line) delays definitive therapy—only do it if it was fast

85
Q

Classification of shock

A

1- <15% blood loss, normal BP and HR

2- 15-30%, normal BP, increasing HR

3- 30-40%, low BP, high HR

4-

86
Q

how should a pregnant woman presenting with hypotension be examined

A

on her left side, to relieve the compression of the IVC which can show a non hemodynamic cause of hypotension and reflex tachycardia

87
Q

next step if find blood when trying to put an urinary catheter in

A

possible urethral injury

in male: do a rectal exam searching for prostatic injury before catheterization

for finding injury: retrograde cystourethrogram

88
Q

how to evaluate cervical spine in a comatose, disoriented, or combative patient

A

MRI

89
Q

How to assess cervical spine

A

1) neck immobilization
2) palpate along posterior aspect of neck
3) assess motor and sensory function of arms and legs
4) lateral cervical spine radiograph

90
Q

18yo male in MVA has priapism

A

indicate fresh spinal cord injury

other signs: loss of anal sphincter tone, loss of vasomotor tone, bradycardia (lose SNS), intestinal ileus

91
Q

indication to perform emergent thoractomy in patient with a lateral stab wound

A

if close to vital structures and if 1500ml blood evacuated via tube thoracostomy in a small amount of time

also if rate of blood loss is greater than 200ml/hr for 3 hours

92
Q

thoracic stab wount below nipple on left side

A

diaphragmatic injuries maybe missed on initial survey

if suspect- explore throughout abdomen

93
Q

next step after finding a widened mediastinum on portable anteroposterior film

what is the gold standard?

A

need a posteroanterior CXR

gold std: aortic angiography (also dynamic CT of chest)

94
Q

assessment of a gunshot wound

A

need to have a preop radiograph to determine location of bullet.

mark entrance and exit wound with radio-opaque marker.

abdominal exploration for gunshot wound to abdomen is mandatory

95
Q

diagnostic peritoneal lavage useful in which case of abdominal injury?

A

when dx is not clear and hemodynamic instability present

DPL can miss injuries to retroperitoneal structures such as duodenum and pancreas

96
Q

what is considered a postive diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL) and what is it an indication for?

A

if 10ml or more of gross blood present on opening the peritoneum= + = exploration

also positive DPL with high number of WBC, appearance of bile

97
Q

patient develops hypotension with a fractured pelvis

A

assess rapidly with FAST

-if fluid/blood present—do abdominal exploration

if note, risk of pelvic bleeding which may not be detected.

-PELVIC ANGIOGRAM, control by EMBOLIZATIOn

98
Q

managment of splenic laceration-

A
  • try to preserve spleen to avoid post-splenectomy sepsis
  • avoid blood transfusions if it can be avoided
  • FOR grade 3 or lesser=observe

others need exploration

99
Q

why is infarction a rare problem when embolizing a portion of the spleen after a splenic laceration

A

rich collaterals from short gastric vessels

100
Q

rupture of left kidney with associated retroperitoneal hematoma in an unstable patient

A

operative intervention required

for stable- go by stage of the laceration

101
Q

a central hematoma in area of SMA associated with potential injury to which structures

A

abdominal aorta and branches

pancreas

duodenum

102
Q

initial step if there is moderate amount of blood on entering the peritoneum in a patient who had an automabile crash

A

stop bleeding by packing all four quadrants of abdomen with gauze packs

103
Q

three types of hematomas and management

A

1) central= retroperitonea, can involve major vasculature, surgically explored
2) flank hematoma (secondary to renal parenchymal injury)- observed in stable patients
3) pelvic hematoma- bleeding located with angiography and embolized

104
Q

when is general hyperventilation reserved for in head injuries

A

usually not used, unless patient has signs of impending brain herniation like blown pupil

hyperventilation can reduce ICP by inducign vasoconstriction (lesser CO2) but prolonged is dangerous because decreased flow can lead to more ischemia

105
Q

head injury with sodium level of 125 meq/L

A

brain injury can lead to secretion of ADH (SIADH)

extracellular hypotonicity leads to intracellular edema - can cause severe cerebral edema

tx: water restriction

106
Q

what does hypothermia lead to in post op patient

A

coagulopathy from platelet dysfunction and prolonged PT and PTT

107
Q

man who sustained liver injury from MVA develops abdominal distension and oliguria

A

continued hemorrhage and collection of blood in abdomen, with decreased renal blood flow

abdominal compartment syndrome

108
Q

what is the next step if a hypovolemic patient is given a fluid bolus and no response in urine output or BP is seen

A

measure CVP which gives index of preload of right heart

109
Q

how may a normal CVP still indicate a hypovolemic patient

A

1) CO is problem
2) CVP which measure right heart assumes that left ventricle also is getting that preload. this may not be true in sick patients, where even with a normal CVP, left heart filling isnt adequate

110
Q

25yo man comes in with acute SOB. PMH includes a stab wound 5 years ago. current exam: hr 125, bilateral rales, JVD, S3 gallop

A

high output cardiac failure which could have resulted from an undiagnosed AV fistula from the prior injury

111
Q

patient with respiratory distress fails to improve oxygenation after increasing FIo2

A

worsening ARDS

mucous plug

malposition of endotracheal tube

PE

112
Q

what happens to BP with addition of PEEP to Fio2 in a patient who is having problems with ventilation

A

PEEP decreases venous return to heart, thus impairing CO, and thus BP

a pulmonary artery catheter may be needed to monitor preload and CO

113
Q

how to rule out airway injury when patient underwent neck trauma

A

bronchoscopy and laryngoscopy

114
Q

pt with neck trauma has hemiparesis

A

consider carotid injury/thrombosis.

do an angiogram and then proceed with vascular repair if necessary

115
Q

First

Second

Third

Degree Burns

A

first- micro injury to superficial epidermis, pain main symptom, resolve in 48-72 hours

second- damage extends through epidermis into dermis. epithelial regneration can still occur, BLISTERS may be present

white= non viable, seen in deeper dermis burns

third- full thickness of skin- white, lack of capillary refill, leathery. need skin graft for repair

116
Q

what should be given in the next 24 hours after initial lactated ringers for fluid replacement for burns

A

D5W to replace evaporative water loss

0.5ml plasma/% BSA to maintain colloid oncotic pressure

117
Q

why is colloid not given in the first 24 hours of burn

A

capillaries are leaky, and colloid will leak into extracellular space. colloid is most effective at returning intravascular/plasma volume

118
Q

topical tx of burns

A

silver sulfadiazine for deeper wounds, occlusive dressings

debridement for third degree

prophylactic abx are not used as they select for resistant organisms. exception: S.aureus, psuedomonas, streptococcus, candida

119
Q

consequence fo circumferential third degree burn of chest

A

can impair ventilation

120
Q

protein requirement for non depleted patients on TPN

total calories

A

1.0g/kg/day

total calories 20% above basal energy expenditure

121
Q

measuring daily energy expenditure

A

indirect calorimetry which involves calcularion of produced O2 and CO2. not really used.

assumption (70kg male)- 30kcal/kg/day * 70= 2100 kcal/day

122
Q

standard TPN

A

calories given mainly 70% of dextrose and 30% as fat

(given as 50% dextrose solution)

(fat as 10% or 20% emulsion separate from TPN bag)

protein not for calories,but to replace amino acids being used up

123
Q

most common cause of coma in patients on TPN

A

hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar non ketotic coma. secondary dehydration following excessive diuresis due to hyperglycemia

124
Q

dry scaly skin on patient with TPN

A

free fatty acid def

125
Q

at what carboxy-hemoglobin level can significant CNS dysfunction occur

A

30%

126
Q

when should steroids not be used in burns

A

in patients with burn GREATER than 10% TBSA

because a burn site can become infectied

steroids can be topically used for first degree burns which heal quickly

127
Q

most appropriate wound management for 30 yo man with second degree burns about 20% tbsa

A

NEED ro do earlt excision of entire burn wound with autologous skin graft presentation

128
Q

signs of necrotizing surgical wound

A
  • fever, hypotension, tachycardia
  • intense pain
  • decreased sensitivity around edges
  • cloudy gray discharge
  • subcutaneous gas (crepitus)