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Equine Clinics > Surgery Practice Questions > Flashcards

Surgery Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q 
Which of the following suture materials is not appropriate for closure of subQ tissues?
A. Polypropylene
B. Polyglactin 910
C. Poliglecaprone (monocryl)
D. Polydiaxanone (PDS)
A

A - Polypropylene

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2
Q

Which tools will be most useful for localizing a subsolar abscess?
A. Hoof pick, hoof knife, hoof testers
B. hoof pick, rasp, radiographs
C. hoof knife, hoof testers, ultrasound
D. Clinch clutters, hoof testers, hoof pick

A

A. Hoof pick, hoof knife, hoof testers

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3
Q 
Which of the following is not an appropriate method of post-operative analgesia in a horse that has had a small intestinal resection and anastamosis?
A. IV acepromazine
B. CRI lidocaine
C. IV flunixin meglumie
D. CRI butorphanol
A

A. IV acepromazine

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4
Q

True/False: a small portion of the tracheal rings must be cut to provide adequate access for a tracheotomy tube

A

False

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5
Q 
Which of the following products is available and FDA approved for IV injection?
A. Polysulfated glycosaminoglycan
B. GLucosamine
C. Sodium hyaluronate
D. Chondroitan sulfate
A

C. Sodium hyaluronate

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6
Q 
Which of the following clinical conditions is most likely to cause lameness?
A. Ringbone
B. Sidebone
C. Thrush
D. White line disease
A

A. Ringbone

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7
Q 
Which of the following would be inappropriate for skin closure of laceration of dorsal aspect of the metacarpus?
A. Vertical mattress suture pattern
B. Use of a reverse cutting needle
C. 3-0 suture size
D. Use of prolene suture material
A

C. 3-0 suture size

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8
Q

The radial carpal bone articulates with which of the following?

A

2nd and 3rd carpal bones

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9
Q 
Which fracture is most likely to be open?
A. Compression vertebral fracture
B. Spiral femoral fracture
C. Long oblique radial fracture
D. Sagittal navicular bone fracture
A

C. long oblique radial fracture

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10
Q 
Which of the following wounds would you expect to heal in the shortest time period?
A. Heel bulb laceration
B. Facial laceration
C. Carpal laceration
D. Tracheal laceration
A

B. Facial laceration

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11
Q 
Which of the following joints is arthroscopy not performed in?
A. Carpometacarpal
B. Radiocarpal
C. Femoropatellar
D. Femorotibial
A

A. carpometacarpal

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12
Q

rank the suture materials from earliest to longest absorption: polydiaxanone, polyglactin 910, polyglecoaprone 25

A

Polyglecaprone 25, polyglactin 910, polydiaxanone

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13
Q

Rank suture materials from earliest to longest absorption: Vicryl, PDS, Monocryl

A

Monocryl, vicryl, PDS

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14
Q

The osteoclastic layer of the periosteum is the:

A

cambial layer

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15
Q

There are 3 parts associated with a bone sequestrum: the sequestrum and the cloaca and the involucrum. New bone formation on the parent bone surrounding the osteolytic zone can be defined as the ______.

A

involucrum

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16
Q

How should a fracture be treated for transport to an emergency facility?

A

robert jones bandage, plus a lateral splint long enough to reach to or above the withers or the rump

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17
Q

T/F: Robert jones bandages should never be used alone as external coaptation in horses.

A

True

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18
Q

The two most common pressure points associated with half-limb cast application in the horse:

A

dorsoproximal cannon bone and the back of the fetlock

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19
Q

Incisive bone fractures are best treated by:
A. Bone plates and screws
B. Treatment will not improve the long term results
C. intramedullary pinning
D. orthopedic wiring

A

orthopedic wiring

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20
Q 
The most common scapular fracture involves the:
A. Supraglenoid tubercle
B. glenoid tubercle
C. Scapular spin
D. Olecranon
A

A. Supraglenoid tubercle

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21
Q

Which muscles originate and attach to the supraglenoid tubercle?

A

Biceps brachii and coracobrachialis

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22
Q

C/S associated with a horse with a fracture of the supraglenoid tubercle include:

A

weight bearing and shortened cranial phase of stride; swelling over the point of the shoulder

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23
Q

What fractures are associated with the disruption of the triceps apparatus?

A

Olecranon and humerus

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24
Q 
What is the size limitations for repair of humeral or femoral fracture in a foal?
A. 250kg
B. 100kg
C. 600kg
D. 500kg
A

A. 250kg

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25
Q 
Which is the most common fracture of MC3 in race horse?
A. Lateral condylar
B. Oblique or midshaft
C. Proximodorsal slab fracture
D. Medial condylar
A

lateral condylar

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26
Q

fractures of the proximal palmar cortex of MC3 are commonly associated with the origin of the:

A

suspensory ligament

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27
Q 
Bucked shins most commonly occur in what type of horse:
A. 8 y/o hunter/jumper
B. 12 y/o race horse
C. 3 y/o western pleasure horse
D. 2 y/o race horse
A

D. 2 y/o race horse

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28
Q 
What is the limiting factor in prognosis of the distal splint bone fracture?
A. digital tendon sheath problems
B. DDF tendinitis
C. Suspensory desmitis
D. SF tendinitis
A

C. suspensory desmitis

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29
Q 
What is the most critical structure to evaluate in order to determine the prognosis after proximal sesamoid bone fracture?
A. Suspensory ligament
B. DDFT
C. SDFT
D. CHeck ligament
A

A. suspensory ligament

30
Q

What is the most likely etiology of a fracture of the distal 1/3 of the medial splint bone of the left forelimb in a 5 y/o standardbred gelding?
A. Direct trauma from the opposite foreleg
B. Hyperextension of the fetlock during a race or training session
C. Shot with a BB gun
D. Direct trauma from ipsilateral rear leg
E. Separate ossification center

A

B. Hyperextension of teh fetlock during a race or training session

31
Q 
The ddx for a horse presented for a "dropped" elbow that is unable to fix the carpus in extension includes which of the following:
A. Fractured olecranon
B. fractured ulna
C. fractured distal humerus
D. radial nerve paralysis
E. All of the above
A

all of the above

32
Q

A true splint results from:

A

tearing of the interosseous tissue between MC2 or MC4 and MC3

33
Q

Bucked shins are common problem in young thoroughbreds. What is the proper name for this condition?

A

Periostitis of the dorsolateral aspect of MC3

34
Q

total body water is approximately what percent of body weight in the adult horse?

A

60%

35
Q

What is the normal volume of a horse’s stomach?

A

10 L

36
Q

What is the recommended dosage for potassium penicillin in the horse?

A

22,000 IU/kg IG qid

37
Q

What is the mechanism of action of penicillin G?

A

inhibits cell wall synthesis

38
Q

How is penicillin eliminated?

A

urine

39
Q

T/F: Penicillin is more effective against rapidly growing bacteria than slowly growing bacteria.

A

True

40
Q 
Which is most likely to be effective against Pseudomonas spp.?
A. Rifampin
B. Penicillin
C. Ticarcillin
D. TMS
A

C. ticarcillin

41
Q

Disadvantage of using oral chloramphenicol therapy in horses:

A

short half life requires frequent administration

42
Q

MC used dosage for ceftiofur

A

2.2-4.4 mg/kg

43
Q

What is the most sensitive indicator of renal pathology secondary to aminoglycoside toxicity?

A

urinary to serum GGT ratio

44
Q

Mechanism of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMS)?

A

inhibits folic acid synthesis

45
Q

Ceftiofur can be administered IM. T/F?

A

True

46
Q

Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HyPP) is primarily seen in what kind of horses?

A

Quarter horses

47
Q 
Which nsaids are least expensive:
A. flunixin meglumine
B. ketoprofen
C. phenylbutazone
D. carprofen
A

C. phenylbutazone

48
Q

extracellular fluid volume is greater in foals than adult horses. T/F?

A

true

49
Q 
Which one of the following antibiotics will likely penetrate the CNS?
A. trimethoprim
B. Gentamicin
C. erythromycin
D. ampicillin
A

A. trimethoprim

50
Q

A potentially serious post-op complication of the streetnail procedure is…

A

rupture of the deep digital flexor tendon

51
Q

Presented with yearling QH with club foot. Most likely etiology is…

A

DDFT contracture

52
Q

SSFT is not a biomechanical force acting on the coffin bone in normal static equilibrium T/F

A

True

53
Q

DDF tenotomy is a surgical tx option for a horse with laminitis and P3 rotation. T/F

A

True

54
Q

WHat is quittor?

A

Infection and necrosis of the collateral cartilage of P3.

55
Q

What is a keratoma?

A

Tumor of the hoof wall.

56
Q

Degenerative joint dz of the pastern is aka…

A

high ringbone

57
Q

stall rest for 8 weeks is recommended as a therapy for navicular syndrome. T/F

A

False

58
Q

Midcarpal and carpometacarpal joints communicate. T/F

A

True

59
Q 
What suture material is most reactive when burried?
A. vicryl
B. supramid
C. PDS
D. Prolene
A

B. Supramid

60
Q

Mepivicaine affects A-delta and non-myelinated nerve fibers. T/F

A

True

61
Q

The primary muscle involved in fibrotic myopathy is _____.

A

Semitendinosus muscle

62
Q 
What suture material has the highest strength immediately post-op?
A. silk
B. vicryl
C. prolene
D. Chromic gut
A

B. vicryl

63
Q 
Which of the following is least appropriate for skin closer?
A. vicryl
B. nylon
C. stainless steel staples
D. PDS
A

A. vicryl

64
Q

T/F: collapse of the 2nd carpal and radial carpal bones can be seen in carpal valgus deformities

A

False

65
Q

Which band of the cecum is used to locate the right ventral colon?

A

lateral band of the cecum

66
Q

Which is the appropriate surgical scrub?

Chlorhex followed by saline rinse or alcohol rinse

A

saline rinse!!

67
Q

Tissue adhesives is an effective method for management of dead space. T/F

A

False

68
Q

IM injection with legend is recommended. T/F

A

False

69
Q

Adequan is a form of sodium hyalurnate. T/F

A

False

70
Q

T/F: chondroitin sulfate is necessary for the synthesis of hyaluronate

A

False

Equine Clinics (1 decks)

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