Surgery Pharm Pain Management Flashcards

1
Q

Goal of perioperative pain management

A

Goal of perioperative pain management is to have the patient comfortable when they awaken from anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Undertreated Perioperative pain Adverse Outcomes?

7

A
  1. Thromboembolic complications
  2. Pulmonary complications
  3. Increase length of hospitalization
  4. Hospital readmission for further pain management
  5. Needless suffering
  6. Impairment of quality of life
  7. Development of chronic pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Adverse Outcomes of Perioperative Pain Management

10

A
  1. Respiratory depression
  2. Brain injury
  3. Neurologic injury
  4. Sedation
  5. Circulatory depression
  6. Nausea and vomiting
  7. Pruritus
  8. Urinary retention
  9. Impairment of bowel function
  10. Sleep disruption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Perioperative pain management:

Must always document? 3

A
  1. Pain intensity
  2. The effects of pain therapy
  3. Side effects caused by the therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Approach to the patient: factors to consider

6

A
  1. Type of surgery
  2. Expected severity of postoperative pain
  3. Underlying medical conditions- CVD, Pulomonary, allergies, renal or liver failure
  4. Risk-benefit ratio for the available techniques
  5. Patient’s preferences
  6. Patient’s previous experience with pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Preoperative preparation of the patient

3

A
  1. History
  2. Physical
  3. Post operative pain control plan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Preoperative:
Prepare the patient
1. Adjust or continue meds that may provoke what?
2. Examples?

  1. Treatment to reduce what?
    - Consider initiation of post operative pain management
  2. Premedications before surgery?
  3. Patient and family education
    - Needs to include? 3
A
  1. a withdrawal syndrome
  2. preexisting pain and anxiety
    • Addiction
    • Adverse effects of meds
    • Optimal use of patient-controlled analgesia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Perioperative techniques for pain management

3

A
  1. Central regional opioid analgesia
  2. Patient controlled analgesia with systemic opioids
  3. Peripheral regional analgesia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Perioperative techniques for pain management: Peripheral regional analgesia? 3

A
  1. Intercostal blocks
  2. Plexus blocks
  3. Local anesthetic infiltration of incisions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Central regional opioid analgesia

  1. Epidural is what?
  2. Intrathecal administration of analgesia is what?
  3. Benefit?
  4. Risks? 2
A
  1. Epidural – injection outside the dura
  2. Intrathecal aka spinal anesthesia – injection through the dura directly into the CSF
  3. Improved pain relief when preincisional epidural or intrathecal morphine is administered compared with po, IV or IM morphine
    • Increased pruritus and
    • urinary retention in post operative epidural anesthesia compared to IM morphine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Intrathecal administration of opioids

1. Intrathecal: What drugs are used? 2

A
  1. morphine (0.1 to 0.2 mg) or fentanyl (10 to 20 mcg)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Intrathecal administration of opioids
1. A single dose of intrathecal opioid (morphine) can provide pain relief for up to _______ hours post operatively.

  1. Onset of action?
  2. Fentanyl provides pain relief for how long?
  3. Onset of action?
A
  1. 18-24
  2. 45 minutes
  3. 1 to 2 hours
  4. 5-10 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Patient controlled analgesia

  1. Used for?
  2. Benefits? 2
  3. Used for how long?
  4. Which drugs can be given this way? 3
  5. Fentanyl is less desirable due to what?
    - May be useful if what? 2
A
  1. For moderate to severe post op pain
  2. Benefits
    - Decreased delay in pt access to pain medication
    - Decreased likelihood of overdose
  3. Pump usually discontinued when able to take oral meds
    • Morphine,
    • hydromorphone and
    • fentanyl can be given via PCA
  4. Short DOA
    - morphine allergy,
    - easier to use in hepatic or renal insufficiency than others
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Multimodal techniques for pain management is what?
  2. Systemic meds used? 2
  3. Central and regional meds used? 2
  4. Advantage of Central or regional meds?
    - More of which SE? 2
A
  1. Using 2 or more drugs that act by different mechanisms for providing analgesia
  2. Systemic medications: Opioids + NSAIDs
    • Central and regional meds: epidural + local anesthetics (Ex: fentanyl + bupivocaine administered via epidural)
  3. Better pain control
    - but more muscle weakness and pruritus noted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Systemic analgesics

-Improved pain scores and reduced analgesic use when given IV morphine + what compared to IV morphine alone?

A

ketorolac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Systemic analgesics
1. What is more effective at decreasing pain vs. COX-2 or nonselective NSAIDs ?

  1. Lower pain scores when adding what to IV opioids? 2
  2. Unless contraindicated patients should receive scheduled regimen of what? 3
A
  1. Ketorolac along with the PCA opioid administration
  2. gabapentin or pregabalin
    • NSAIDs,
    • COXIBs or
    • acetaminophen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Peripheral regional techniques
1. What are they? 3

  1. Preoperative nerve blocks are effective at reducing what? 2
  2. Preoperative infiltration of the incision with local anesthetic decreases what?
    - Drug?
A
    • Peripheral nerve blocks,
    • intraarticular blocks, and
    • infiltration of the incisions
    • post operative pain and
    • decrease the need for opioid use (post operative blocks are not as helpful)
  1. decreases post operative pain scores
    - (ex. Bupivicaine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Patients at risk for inadequate pain control

5

A
  1. Pediatrics
  2. Geriatrics
  3. Critically ill
  4. Cognitively impaired
  5. Others who may have difficulty communicating
19
Q

What is the role of the PA in the management of the post surgical pt?
6

A
  1. Know the patient’s history
  2. Procedure performed and any complications
  3. Type of anesthesia used for the case
  4. Duration of the case and if that is normal for the procedure mentioned
  5. What has the pt received so far, did it work, any adverse reactions and what other modalities are in play? (Epidural pain management, nerve block, etc)
  6. Adjustment of opioid dose and/or initiation of acetaminophen, NSAIDs or gabapentin may be needed
20
Q

Most widely used medication for the treatment of postoperative pain?

A

Opiods

21
Q

Opiod drugs are?

3 most commonly used for post op IV pain management?

A
  1. Morphine
  2. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
  3. Fentanyl
    Three most common
  4. Meperidine
22
Q

Opioids:

  1. Bolus injections are often used
    - Given this way they fail to provide what?
  2. Continuous infusions: Risks? 2
A
  1. a steady state of the drug
    • May be dangerous due to the potential for drug build up and cause respiratory depression
    • Must be given in a highly supervised environment
23
Q

Opioid metabolism

  1. All opioids are metabolized how?
    - to what?
    - Eliminated how?
  2. Patients with severe liver disease will need what?
A
  1. hepatically metabolized
    - to active and inactive metabolites which
    - are eliminated in the urine
  2. dosage adjustments
24
Q

Morphine:
1._______ opioid

  1. Onset of analgesia is what?
  2. Peak when?
  3. Elimination half life is what?
  4. Analgesic duration of action is what?
  5. IV ____ mg
  6. Q ______ until pain relief or
    - adverse effects like what occur? 4
A
  1. Prototypical
  2. rapid
  3. 1-2 hours
  4. 2-3 hours
  5. 4-5 hours
  6. 1-3
  7. 5min
    - sedation,
    - hypotension,
    - respiratory depression and
    - hypoxemia
25
Q

Morphine
1. Active metabolites eliminated where?

  1. In renal insufficiency the active metabolites may accumulate and cause what?
    - This may manifest how? 4
  2. Relatively contraindicated in what?
  3. Describe its absorption?
A
  1. renally
  2. neurotoxicities
    - Myoclonus,
    - confusion,
    - coma,
    - death
  3. severe renal disease
  4. Erratic absorption from the GI tract
26
Q

Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
1. More rapid onset of analgesia reaching peak within ____ min?

  1. Half life ____ hours
  2. Approximately _____ times more potent than morphine
  3. Dosing?
A
  1. 30
  2. 2.4
  3. 4-6
  4. 0.2-1 mg q 2-3 hours
27
Q

Fentanyl:
1. Synthetic derivative of what?

  1. Approximately ____ times more potent than morphine
  2. More ______ soluble than morphine
  3. Onset of action?
  4. Improved penetration of the what?
  5. Half life?
  6. Elimination half life is what?
  7. Does not release histamine and may be preferred in the presence of what? 2
A
  1. morphine
  2. 100
  3. lipid
  4. More rapid onset of action than morphine
  5. blood-brain barrier
  6. Shorter half life
  7. 2-4 hours
    • hemodynamic instability or
    • bronchospasm
28
Q

Fentanyl

  1. Moderate pain dosing?
  2. Mderate to severe pain dosing?
  3. IV infusion for pain control in mechanically ventilated pts?
  4. Administration > 5 days may lead to what?
A
  1. Moderate pain: 25-50 mcg IV Q 5 min up to a max dose
  2. Moderate to severe pain 50-100 mcg Q 2-5 min until pain relief
  3. IV infusion for pain control in mechanically ventilated patients
    - 0.7-10 mcg/kg/hr
  4. deposition of the drug in adipose tissue and prolonged sedation
29
Q

Meperidine

  1. Indicated for what?
  2. Contraindicated in patients on what?
  3. Lowers what?
  4. Has a ________ effect
  5. Downsides? 2
  6. Not used for PCA pumps because of the risk for what?
A
  1. the short term management of acute pain
  2. MAOIs
  3. seizure threshold
  4. dysphoric
    • Not as effective as other drugs
    • Slower rate of metabolism in the elderly or if liver or renal failure
  5. accumulation of the active metabolite
30
Q

Opioid side effects

7

A
  1. Somnolence
  2. Depression of brainstem control of respiratory drive
  3. Hypotension
  4. Urinary retention
  5. N/V
  6. Slowing of GI transit
    - Constipation, ileus
  7. Histamine release (most common after morphine)
31
Q
Histamine release (most common after morphine) may cause what opioid SE?
5
A
  1. Flushing,
  2. tachycardia,
  3. hypotension,
  4. pruritus,
  5. bronchospasm
32
Q

Transitioning from IV to oral opioids

  1. Switch from IV to oral once the patient can tolerate PO
    - Calculate the what to determine the coverage needed?
  2. PO – analgesic effects take how long?
  3. Switch to one of the following? 4
A
  1. 24 hour opioid consumption
    - Consult equianalgesic charts
  2. 30-60 minutes
    • Oxycodone,
    • hydrocodone,
    • hydromorphone,
    • morphine

Ex: 40 mg of IV morphine given in 24 hours would require 20 mg oxycodone Q 4 hours or 5 mg of hydromorphone Q 4 hours

33
Q

Oral Opioids Classes?

4

A
  1. Oxycodone (Oxycontin)(Roxicodone)
  2. Hydrocodone (Hysingla ER) (Zohydro ER)
  3. Hydromorphone (Diluadid)
  4. Morphine (Avinza) (Duramorph) (Kadian) (MS Contin)
34
Q

Oral Opioids Classes

  • Oxycodone (Oxycontin)(Roxicodone)
    1. Drugs in this category? 2
    2. Schedule?
  • Hydrocodone (Hysingla ER) (Zohydro ER)
    3. Drugs in this category? 2
    4. Schedule?

Hydromorphone (Diluadid)
5. Schedule?

  1. Morphine (Avinza) (Duramorph) (Kadian) (MS Contin) schedule?
A
    • Oxycodone/acetaminophen (Percocet) *
    • Oxycodone/ibuprofen (Combunox)
  1. Schedule II
    • Hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Lortab) (Vicodin) (Norco) *
    • Hydrocodone/ibuprofen (Vicoprofen)
  2. Schedule III
  3. Schedule II
  4. Schedule II
35
Q

Duration of action
1. Short-acting opioids? 1

  1. Moderate Acting? 4
  2. How long is the DOA of moderate acting drugs?
  3. Long acting drugs? 2
A
  1. Short acting
    - Fentanyl
  2. Moderate acting
    - Morphine,
    - codeine,
    - hydromorphone,
    - oxycodone
  3. DOA 4-6 hours
  4. Long acting
    - Methadone
    - Long acting morphine preparations
36
Q

For patients with impaired renal function

3

A
  1. Hydromorphone and
  2. oxycodone have inactive metabolites
  3. Fentanyl

Safer than morphine for use in renal impairment

37
Q

Opioid Reversal agent?

A

Naloxone (Narcan)

38
Q

Naloxone (Narcan)
1. Reversal of what with therapeutic opioid doses?

  1. Administered how? 4
  2. Dose?
A
  1. respiratory depression
  2. IV, IM, SubQ. endotracheally
  3. Initial: 0.04 to 0.4 mg;
    may repeat until desired response achieved. (example 0.4 mg X 2) If desired response is not observed after 0.8 mg total, consider other causes of respiratory depression
39
Q

Non-opioid adjunctive medications

5

A
  1. NSAIDs
  2. Ketamine
  3. Lidocaine
  4. Magnesium
  5. IV acetaminophen
40
Q

Non-opioid adjunctive medications: NSAIDs
1. Advantage?

  1. Caution in who?
  2. Nonselective NSAIDS? 2
  3. Selective NSAIDS are only available how?
A
  1. Administration of NSAIDs can reduce the dose of opioid required
  2. Caution with kidney impairment
  3. Nonselective NSAIDs
    IV formulations: Ketorolac and ibuprofen
  4. Selective NSAIDs
    No IV formulation available
    Sometimes just a single dose might suffice
41
Q

Non-opioid adjunctive medications: Oral NSAIDs
1. Nonselective PO or PR? 3

  1. Selective? 1
A
    • Ibuprofen 400 mg Q 4-6 hours
    • Diclofenac 50mg Q 8 hours
    • Ketoprofen 50 mg QID
  1. Celecoxib (Celebrex) 400mg po X 1 then 12 hours later start 200mg po BID
42
Q

Non-opioid Adjunctive medications

  1. Ketamine is in what class of drug?
  2. Use limited due to?
  3. Reduces what? 2
A

Ketamine

  1. NMDA receptor inhibitor
  2. Use limited due to hallucinations
  3. Reduces
    - hyperalgesia and
    - opioid tolerance
43
Q

Acetaminophen

  1. First line administration is? 2
  2. Dosing?
  3. May be given in addition to what?
  4. Contraindicated in what?
A
  1. Oral or rectal first line then can give IV
  2. 325mg-1000mg PO or PR Q 4-6 hrs/max dose 4 g
  3. NSAIDs
  4. hepatic failure
44
Q

Non-opioid adjunctive medications

Lidocaine

  1. Class of drug?
  2. Administered how?
  3. Most effective for what?

Magnesium sulfate
4. Can reduce what?
5. Class of drug?
Not routinely used at this time despite many studies to show it’s effectiveness

A
  1. Class I antiarrhythmic
  2. IV infusion intra-op or post-op for control of pain
  3. analgesia following major abdominal surgery
  4. opioid requirements
  5. NMDA receptor antagonist