Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Surgery and Anesthesia > Surgery Lecture Final > Flashcards

Surgery Lecture Final Flashcards

1
Q

Pain results when nerve cells in the skin or deep tissues detect _____ _____

A

Noxious stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Nerve cells in the skin or deep tissues are called?

A

Nociceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Sensory neurons are located in the ____ _____

A

Peripheral tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the chemicals in the CNS are similar to morphine released by neurons?

These chemicals bind to opioid receptors and provide some analgesia

A

Beta endorphin

Leu-enkephalin

Dynorphinare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the principle of analgesia?

A

Preemptive use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does tapering dosages of steroids prevent?

A

Cushings (iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of glucocorticoids are short acting (<12 hours)

A

Hydrocortisone

Cortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of glucocortocoids are intermediate acting (12-36 hours)?

A

Prednisone, Prednisolone, Triamcinolone, Methylprednisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of glucocortoids are long acting (>48 hours)?

A

Dexamethasone, Betamethasone, Flumethazone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is normally present in the stomach mucosa and helps reduce gastric acid secretion and promote mucus production?

A

Prostacyclin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Surgical removal of all or part of an organ

A

-ectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

An incision made into an organ or portion of a body

A

-otomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

term for reconstruction

A

-plasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

term for creating a permanent opening

A

-ostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a celiotomy?

A

Opening of the abdominal cavity

Ventral midline is most common approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

At what age can spays be done safely?

A

8 weeks (some clinics wait until 4 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What type of suture is used for spays?

A

Absorbable suture = PDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the 3 layer closure for spays include?

A

Linea alba, SQ, subcuticular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the primary indication for C-section?

A

dystocia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the secondary indication for C-section?

A

To prevent dystocia and ensure healthier offspring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Stage of labor that can last 6-12 hours, includes nesting and begins at onset of contractions

A

Stage 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What stage of labor can bull dogs not achieve?

A

Stage 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Stage of labor that includes full dilation, fetus entry into birth canal, can last up to 4 hours for first fetus and 2-3 hours for subsequent fetuses.

A

Stage 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Stage of labor that includes the passage of placenta (sometimes eaten by mother)

A

Stage 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is closed castration?

A

When tuinic is not incised and the spermatic cord and testicular blood vessels are ligated together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is open castration?

A

When the tunic is opened and the spermatic cord and testicular blood vessels are ligated separately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are two main post operative considerations for castration?

A

Bleeding or scrotal hematoma and self inflicted trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is an en bloc resection?

A

Removal of entire uterus with the fetuses inside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Who is responsible for neonates in the surgery room?

A

Circulating nurse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

_______ ______ open the uterus and remove fetuses if they are deemed viable

A

Non-sterile personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What can be given to neonates for slow HR?

A

Dilute Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Linear foreign bodies are ____ or ____

A

string or thread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What do linear FB’s cause?

A

Plication of intestines (pleating of)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Linear FB’s are more common in ___ and may be attached under the tongue

A

cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Gastrotomies may be done to perform a full ____ ____

A

thickness biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Tricobezoars (hairballs) may be dissolved with _____ _____

A

Pineapple juice

37
Q

What is the most common sign of FBs?

A

Vomiting

38
Q

What are gastric FB’s diagnosed by?

A

Radiographs, contrast studies, ultrasound

39
Q

What may be used instead of surgery for FBs?

A

Endoscopy

40
Q

Endoscopy is less invasive than abdominal surgery but still requires _____

A

anesthesia

41
Q

How is patient prepped for FB surgeries?

A

Clip from above xiphoid to pubis

42
Q

Where is the incision made for FB’s?

A

Between lesser and greater curvature of the stomach

43
Q

What suture is used to close gastrotomies?

A

2-0 or 3-0

44
Q

What is an enterotomy?

A

Incision into the intestines

45
Q

FB’s are also referred to as an intestinal obstruction and may be _____ or _____ obstruction

A

partial or complete

46
Q

Which form of intestinal foreign bodies cause worse symptoms?

A

Complete obstruction

47
Q

What are the pre-op diagnostics?

A

CBC and full panel with electrolytes

48
Q

What special instruments are used for intestinal FB’s and why are they used?

A

Doyen Intestinal forceps, they are atraumatic to intestines and will not damage blood supply, keep intestinal contents from leaking out

49
Q

What procedure requires you to “milk” intestinal contents away in both directions?

A

Enterotomy for FB

50
Q

What type of sutures are used for enterotomy?

A

Monofilament absorabable

51
Q

What is anastamosis?

A

The excision of a segment of bowel followed by connecting the remaining free ends

52
Q

What diagnostic test is used for intestinal resection and anastamosis if peritonitis is suspected?

A

Abdominocentesis

53
Q

For internal resection and anastomosis surgeries, ______ forceps are used to clamp diseased tissue, while ______ forceps are used to clamp healthy bowel.

A

Carmalt- diseased tissue

Doyen- Healthy bowel

54
Q

After intestinal transection is complete, the ends are sutured with ______ _____ suture

A

Monofilament absorbable

55
Q

What suture size/needle is used for intestinal resection?

A

3-0, 4-0 on a taper needle

56
Q

What suture pattern is used for intestinal resection?

A

Interrupted pattern

57
Q

Where should sutures start for intestinal resection?

A

anti-mesenteric border and then mesenteric

58
Q

What is the supportive care for intestinal resection?

A

Fluids, anti-inflammatory, antibiotics

59
Q

What is essential for recovery from intestinal resection/anastamosis?

A

Nutritional support

60
Q

Signs of GDV (4 signs)

A

Abdominal distension

Hyper salivation

Dry heaving, no vomit, only phlegm

Abdominal pain

61
Q

What is an onchyectomy?

A

Removal of third phalange

62
Q

What is Modified Zepp?

A

Lateral Ear Canal Resection involving the removal of lateral wall of vertical canal

63
Q

What is TECA?

A

Total Ear Canal Ablation

64
Q

TECA is removal of entire ear canal: ______ and _____

A

Lateral and horizontal

65
Q

What is the Hotz-Celsus procedure?

A

Excisiton of crescent shaped section of skin and muscle from the affected portion of the eyelid

66
Q

Why is removal of the gland of the third eyelid controversial?

A

Removal causes KCS

67
Q

What is the Morgan Pocket Technique?

A

Creates a conjunctival pocket where the third eyelid is secured

68
Q

Canine eyelid masses are usually _____ whereas feline eyelid masses are usually ______

A

Canine- benign

Feline- malignant

69
Q

Protrusion of tissue from its normal cavity through a congenital or acquired defect in the wall of that cavity

A

Hernia

70
Q

What are the three types of hernia?

A

Umbilical

Inguinal

Diaphragmatic

71
Q

What does LASER stand for?

A

Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

72
Q

Laser light wavelength and frequency determine what?

A

Color and interaction with target surface

73
Q

What happens when laser hits target? (RAST)

A

Reflected

Absorbed

Scattered

Transmitted through tissues

74
Q

What are the two types of lasers most commonly used?

A

CO2 laser

Diode laser

75
Q

Where is ground electrode placed for electrocautery?

A

Skin surface

76
Q

Elective orthopedic surgeries

A

Medial luxating patella

ACL Rupture

Femoral head osteotomies

77
Q

Non-elective non-life threatening orthopedic surgeries

A

Dislocated hip

Open Fracture

78
Q

Non-elective life-threatening surgeries

A

Skull fracture

Severe hemorrhage associated with fracture

79
Q

What sling type is used for hips?

A

Ehmer sling

80
Q

What type of sling is used for shoulder?

A

Velpeau

81
Q

What are the 5 classifcation of fractures

(hint: BOLT-Re-Non)

A
  1. Bone location
  2. Open or Closed
  3. Location of fracture on bone
  4. Type of fracture
  5. Reducible/non-reducible
82
Q

Physeal fractures are also referred to as?

A

Salter Harris Fractures

83
Q

What are the 5 types of fractures?

(Hint: TOSCC)

A

Transverse

Oblique

Spiral

Comminuted

Comminuted-Non reducible

84
Q

Casts/splints are only applicable below the _____ and ____

A

Stifle and elbow

85
Q

Forelimb amputation can be achieved at _____ or complete removal of _____

(Even if only the foot needs removed the entire limb is removed)

A

shoulder, or complete removal of scapula

86
Q

Hindlimb amputation occurs at ____ ____ or midshaft of ____

A

hip joint or midshaft of femur

87
Q

A distinctive forward movement called a “drawer” sign is present in most cases of what?

A

ACL rupture

88
Q

What is TPLO?

A

Tibial Platuea Leveling Osteotomy

89
Q

How often should surgical sites be monitored?

A

At least twice a day

Surgery and Anesthesia (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions