Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Surgery Reviewer > Surgery Final (Part 2) > Flashcards

Surgery Final (Part 2) Flashcards

1
Q

The treatment of choice in malignant lymphoma is/are:

A

B. Radiotherapy and/or chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The earliest sign of carcinoma of the larynx is

A

C. Hoarseness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The most common histologic type of carcinoma in the head and neck area is

A

C. Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The most commonly benign salivary gland tumor in children:

A

B. Hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Knowledge of the lymphatic drainage is important because it will:

A

B. Give an idea where the primary lesion is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A neoplasm that occurs primarily in the parotid gland, more commonly seen in males in the older age group and is also known as papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

A

C. Warthin’s tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Sudden facial paralysis associated with vesicles in the external audiotory canal and pinna:

A

C. Ramsay hunt syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The opening of the parotid duct is at level:

A

C. 2nd upper molar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In which of the following conditions is the cornea most opacified? MPL = 0.25

A

b. Leukoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A condition that gives painless blurring of vision is: MPL = 1.0

A

a. Central retinal vein occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The most important factor for developing diabetic retinopathy is: MPL = 0.25

A

a. Duration of the diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In hyperopia, the axial length is: MPL = 1.0

A

a. Too short

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The leading cause of avoidable and reversible blindness worldwide is/are … MPL = 0.5

A

a. …Cataracts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The most useful chart attractive to preschool illiterate children: MPL = 0.5

A

c. Allen Chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

One advantage of Direct Ophthalmoscopy over Indirect Ophthalmoscopy is: MPL = 1.0

A

b. Magnification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Flouresecin dye when viewed using a cobalt blue light will appear as: MPL = 0.5

A

d. Luminous green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Blind spot on a normal visual field is also known as: MPL = 1.0

A

a. Scotoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most accidental eye injuries can be prevented by… MPL = 0.5

A

a. …a good pair of protective goggles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The most important consideration in Testing Near Acuity: MPL = 0.25

A

a. Age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Determination of Visual Field Extent is best demonstrated by: MPL = 0.25

A

a. Octopus Perimetry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In performing Direct Ophthalmoscopy, the first element that must be observed: MPL = 0.5

A

b. Red reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In the three-part step-wise sequence in external eye examination, one procedure that is not usually included: MPL = 1.0

A

d. Percussion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The patient was not able to see hand movement. What is the next step to check his visual acuity?MPL= 0.5

A

a. Check light perception*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A patient is only able to read the first line of the Jaeger chart. His near visual acuity is recorded as…MPL=0.3

A

b. J16 -2 lines*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In assessing facial sensation, the three branches of the cranial nerve V that is being tested are…MPL=0.3

A

d. Ophthalmic n., maxillary n., mandibular n.*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following is/are true of the corneal blink reflex? MPL=0.3

A

b. The afferent arm of the reflex is the trigeminal nerve*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following is a term used to describe normal binocular eye movement in the same direction? MPL=0.5

A

b. Versions*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Giant papillary reaction is common in… MPL = 1.0

A

a. Contact lens overuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ophthalmia Neonatorum is usually a bacterial cause of conjunctivitis: MPL =0.3

A

a. True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The spread of epidemic viral conjunctivitis is best curtailed by: MPL =0.25

A

d. Frequent hand washing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which is not an anatomic locale description of the conjunctiva? MPL =0.5

A

c. Limbal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Adenoviral conjunctivitis may cause: MPL =0.3

A

a. a true membrane on the tarsal conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the use of steroid eye drops for red eyes is correct? MPL =0.3

A

c. The possible complications of steroid use include Glaucoma AND Cataract formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The medication specifically used against adenovirus conjunctivitis currently is: MPL =0.3

A

d. There is no specific medication against adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The definitive management of gonococcal conjunctivitis is: MPL =0.3

A

b. Ceftriaxone 1gram intramuscular injection once only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following conjunctivitides is almost always bilateral? MPL =0.5

A

d. Allergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Fusion of the bulbar and tarsal conjunctiva as a result of prolonged inflammation and scarring is termed: MPL =0.3

A

b. Symblepharon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Painful blurring of vision can be due to: MPL = 1.0

A

b. Acute angle closure glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Glaucoma is characterized by: MPL = 0.25

A

d. Damage to optic nerve head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Secondary glaucoma may occur in: MPL = 0.25

A

a. Hyphema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The hallmark of Grade IV hypertensive retinopathy associated with malignant hypertension is: MPL = 0.25

A

c.optic disc edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The systemic condition that presents with the most complications in the posterior pole of the eye: MPL = 0.25

A

b. Diabetes Mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In testing for strabismus, the corneal light reflex did not fall at the same relative position on each eye instead it was located at the temporal borders of the pupils, the patient has: MPL = 0.5

A

b. Esotropia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

In cover testing, the uncovered eye moves inward to fixate, the patient has: MPL = 0.5

A

c. Exotropia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A 5 year old child was brought to an ophthalmologist because his family had noticed a strange, white reflection that appeared in one of his eyes in photographs while the rest have red eyes due to the flash. Further examination disclosed Retinoblastoma.

A

b. leucocoria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Computed Tomogram of the above child showed a unilateral tumor filling the left eye. Nasal third of the tumor is calcified. Impression of Retinoblastoma is confirmed with the following histologic features: MPL=0.5

A

a. Islands of blue cells in a sea of pink necrosis / b. Cuboidal cells circled around a central luman: Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes/ c. Flower like grouping of tumor cells which look like photoreceptors: Fleurettes/ d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A 23/M consulted the OPD because anterior eyelid crusting of 3 days duration. The resident requested for a gram-stain which revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. Which statement is consistent with the impression of Staphylococcal blepharitis? MPL =

A

a. Coagulase production specifies etiologic agent to be Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which of the following viruses is transmissible even after medical instrumentation is cleaned with alcohol? MPL = 0.5

A

b. Adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A newborn was admitted to the NICU because of mucopurulent eye discharge at birth. The mother had a documented chlamydial genito-urinary tract infection. What bacterial features are consistent with the neonatal ocular finding? MPL = 0.5

A

c. The outer cell wall resembles the cell-wall of gram-negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A 50/M farmer consulted the OPD because of right corneal opacity of 3 weeks duration. He claimed his right eye was hit by a palay strand while harvesting. Clinical history alone leads to a strong suspicion of fungal keratitis. Which of the following st

A

b. The cell wall polysaccharides are uniquely stained by periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A 43/F consulted because of a sessile mass at the limbus. The excision biopsy revealed squamous papilloma. Which of the following is true about the association of the Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) with squamous papilloma? MPL = 0.5

A

c. HPV DNA induces cellular proliferation and can lead to malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A 30/M consulted the OPD because of foreign body sensation with mucopurulent discharge of 6 days duration. A detailed slit-lamp biomicroscopic examination demonstrated clinical features of trachoma. Which are features of an adult trachoma compared to a ne

A

d. Follicular response is greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Condition in which there is discoloration of the eyelashes MPL = 0.5

A

d. Poliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The condition in which an extra row of lashes exists is MPL =0.5

A

b. Distichiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A white pupillary reflex is called: MPL = 1.0

A

c. leukocoria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

An infant born less than 31 weeks, weighing less than 1500g (3 lb 5 oz) plus exposure to supplemental oxygen, one should screen the eyes for: MPL = 1.0

A

d. Retinopathy of Prematurity (ROP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

This is the second most common mode of presentation in Retinoblastoma which account for about 20 % of cases: MPL =0.5

A

d. strabismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The following are treatment options for Retinoblastoma except MPL = 1.0

A

d. Evisceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The following are correct in visual acuity testing in a child EXCEPT MPL=0.5

A

c. At 8 years old, test with an Amsler grid chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Leukocoria caused by the presence of red cells in the vitreous secondary to birth trauma MPL=0.5

A

c. Vitreous Hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

A biconves, avascular, colorless structure that focuses light rays to the retina, an opacity of which will cause leukocoria MPL=0.5

A

a. Lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Ophthalmological examination that would identify presence of an intraocular mass MPL=0.5

A

b. Indirect Ophthalmoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The most common presenting sign of retinoblastoma is MPL=1.0

A

c. White pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Due to the inheritance pattern of retinoblastoma, a vital part of treatment would incude: MPL=0.5

A

b. Genetic counseling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

A surgical procedure involving removal of intraocular contents: MPL=0.5

A

b. evisceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Management of CRAO includes MPL =0.5

A

a. “Brown bagging” / b. Alternate compression and decompression of the globe/ d. A and B only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Characteristic findings in Central Retinal Artery Occlusion MPL = 0.25

A

b. Cherry red spot in the macula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The TRUE statement regarding chemical burns MPL = 1.0

A

d. In copious irrigation of the eye, the fluid used need not be sterile, provided the chemical is diluted properly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

EOM movement of one eye is called MPL =0.5

A

a. Ductions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Absence of venous pulsations on funduscopy MPL =0.3

A

a. May indicate increase intracranial pressure/ b. May be normal / d. A and b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

To examine the optic nerve binocularly, use MPL = 0.3

A

a. Indirect ophthalmoscope/ b. Non contact fundus lens / d. A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What ancillary procedures should you do if suspecting optic nerve toxicity? MPL = 0.25

A

a. Visual field exam / b. Visual evoked potential / c. Color test / d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

One of the most common reasons for Neuroophtha referral … MPL = 1.0

A

a. …unexplained vision loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which of the following is true regarding viewing the fundus… MPL = 1.0

A

c. Direct ophthalmoscopy provides greater detail of the fundus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the most important adverse effect of local anesthetic overdosage? MPL = 0.25

A

c. convulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Cortocosteroid stops the inflammatory process by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis through the following mechanism: MPL = 1.0

A

b. blockage of the enzyme phospholipase A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which of the following statements regarding papilledema is not true? MPL =0.3

A

a. Loss of venous pulsation is always present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Most common visual field finding in papilledema MPL = 0.3

A

d. Enlargement of the blind spot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Typically the onset of visual loss in demyelinating optic neuritis is noted MPL = 0.25

A

a. Upon arising in the morning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

One of the following findings is not a characteristic of true disc edema MPL = 0.25

A

b. abnormal branching of vessels around the disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Most common cause of optic disc swelling in children MPL = 0.3

A

a. Infectious optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

One of the following is not a characteristic finding of optic neuritis in children MPL = 0.25

A

d. Always resistant to steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Most common condition associated with nonarteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy MPL = 0.5

A

d. Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Which of the following is the most common optic neuropathy in patients over the age of 50? MPL = 0.3

A

d. Nonarteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q
  1. An obese 26 year old woman presents with headaches and transient visual obscurations. Bilateral papilledema is documented. The next step should be which of the following MPL = 0.3
A

d. Do CT or MRI of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Exophthalmos is a term used specifically in which of the following conditions? MPL = 1.0

A

a. Thyroid disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The most commonly observed Cumulative Trauma disorder is

A

C. Carpal tunnel syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The ff. is an indirect cost of injury among workers

A

C. Training replacements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The ff. is an indication for surgical release of CTS

A

A. Severe causalgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The ff. is a feature of Impingement Syndrome

A

C. Limited active abduction of the shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

In Reflex sympathetic dystrophy the ff. is true

A

B. Autonomic changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

The most common lump on the hand is

A

B. Ganglion cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The Following can lead to Frozen Shoulder EXCEPT

A

D. Trigger finger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Avascular necrosis of the Lunate

A

B. Keinbocks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

A worker comes with a lump on the dorsal elbow, it is movable, soft with tenderness. He has a habit on putting his weight at the elbow , he has

A

D. Student’s elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The best thing to do in acute tendenitis is

A

B. To rest it in a splint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The grip strength of a dominant hand is usually stronger than the non dominant hand by

A

A. 10 lb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

A functional non organic sensation deficit is evident if there is

A

B. sensory deficit in the whole leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

To prevent overvaluation and subjection to potential risk of tests. The following will suggest a non organic findings in back pain

A

B. light pinch tenderness of skin on vast area of the back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

The most common type of muscular dystrophy is

A

A. Limb Girdle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Cramps is the usual complain of

A

B. Myotonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Spinal dysraphism can be detected in utero after 18 weeks by taking the

A

B. Amniotic Alpha feto protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

A positive Gowers sign is

A

B. Present in pelvic and proximal leg weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Ischemic Compression Test is for

A

D. McArdle’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

A dive bomber sound on EMG is seen in

A

B. Myotonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Fasciculation’s of the tongue and limb muscles is frequently seen in

A

D. SMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Most of children with this condition cannot reach adulthood except

A

B. Fascioscapulohumeral dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

The most common cause of death of children with myopathies is

A

C. Pulmonary problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

This reflex is integrated in the spinal cord

A

C. Flexor withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

This reflex develops mouth opening, helps find the breast and develops various tongue position

A

B. Rooting reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Asymmetric Tonic Neck reflex

A

B. Coordinates with tonic labyrinthine reflex for turning the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Patient with Spina bifida should be examined for

A

C. Presence of hip dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

This instrument is used to measure range of motion of joints:

A

B. goniometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Which of the following is considered as a deep heating modality:

A

C. ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

On stimulation the baby extend and abduct the limbs followed by flexion and adduction

A

A. If this is a normal baby he is less than four months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Stroke rehabilitation may be started:

A

A. as soon as the patient’s neurological and medical condition stabilizes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

This reflex is integrated in the spinal cord

A

C. Flexor withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

This reflex develops mouth opening, helps find the breast and develops various tongue position

A

B. Rooting reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Asymmetric Tonic Neck reflex

A

B. Coordinates with tonic labyrinthine reflex for turning the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

At four months of age the child is expected to

A

D. Rolls over from supine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

A child of 3 years is expected to

A

C. Walks up stairs alternating feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

A dyskenitic Cerebral palsy is frequently associated with

A

A. Bilirubin encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

True of a geriatric individual

A

· They prefer to be independent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Some of the changes in the elderly is

A

A. Decline in the number of motor units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Crystallized intelligence is preserved in elderly this is

A

C. comprehension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Elderly has tendency to fall. One reason is a sudden drop of blood pressure which can be due to

A

B. Sudden change in position or abrupt standing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Exercise prescription for an osteoporotic patient is

A

C. Walking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Osteoporosis has an earlier onset in women . And this is usually evident during

A

C. 5 to 7 years after menopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Elderly patient is prone to bed sore because of

A

A. Loss of subcutaneous fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Cardiorespiratory changes in elderly

A

A. Lower maximal heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

To prevent hypotension in elderly it is best to observe

A

C. Standing slowly while holding to a bar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

A spinal cord injury with weaker upper extremities than lower extremities is

A

C. A bilateral brachial plexus injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

An SCI patient states that he has intact sensation up to the umbilicus, without movement over his legs. This means

A

A. His sensory level is T10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

The most common site of heterotrophic ossification among burn patient is at the

A

C. Elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

A bedridden quadriplegic has painful inflamed thigh . The working diagnosis is DVT , it is best to differentiate this with

A

B. Heterotopic ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

The most common tumor of the bone

A

C. Metastatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

The most common cause of Traumatic brain injury is

A

A. Vehicular accident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

A C-curve scoliosis is common in

A

D. Paralytic scoliosis

139
Q

Physical finding in scoliosis on convexity side

A

D. Prominent scapula

140
Q

Physical finding in scoliosis on concavity side

A

B. Prominent front chest

141
Q

This syndrome of massive sympathetic discharge associated with the SCI patients with lesions at T6 level, characterized by headache, hypertension, diaphoresis and reflex bradycardia is known as:

A

C. autonomic dysreflexia

142
Q

This is the most important aspect to consider in the management of decubitus ulcer:

A

A. relief of pressure

143
Q

What is the key muscle for testing C7 myotome, according to the American Spinal Injury Association?

A

A. triceps

144
Q

This level is generally the highest level of injury at which spontaneous ventilation can be sustained. Injuries above this level generally require mechanical ventilation:

A

A. C4

145
Q

This is referred to as an ectopic bone formation occurring within 6 months after spinal cord injury:

A

A. heterotopic ossification

146
Q

This is generally considered the drug of choice for spasticity in SCI:

A

B. Baclofen

147
Q

The most commonly observed Cumulative Trauma disorder is

A

C. Carpal tunnel syndrome

148
Q

The ff. is an indirect cost of injury among workers

A

C. Training replacements

149
Q

The ff. is an indication for surgical release of CTS

A

A. Severe causalgia

150
Q

The ff. is a feature of Impingement Syndrome

A

C. Limited active abduction of the shoulder

151
Q

In Reflex sympathetic dystrophy the ff. is true

A

B. Autonomic changes

152
Q

The most common lump on the hand is

A

B. Ganglion cyst

153
Q

The Following can lead to Frozen Shoulder EXCEPT

A

D. Trigger finger

154
Q

Avascular necrosis of the Lunate

A

B. Keinbocks

155
Q

A worker comes with a lump on the dorsal elbow, it is movable, soft with tenderness. He has a habit on putting his weight at the elbow , he has

A

D. Student’s elbow

156
Q

The best thing to do in acute tendenitis is

A

B. To rest it in a splint

157
Q

The grip strength of a dominant hand is usually stronger than the non dominant hand by

A

A. 10 lb.

158
Q

A functional non organic sensation deficit is evident if there is

A

B. sensory deficit in the whole leg

159
Q

To prevent overvaluation and subjection to potential risk of tests. The following will suggest a non organic findings in back pain

A

B. light pinch tenderness of skin on vast area of the back

160
Q

The most common type of muscular dystrophy is

A

A. Limb Girdle

161
Q

Cramps is the usual complain of

A

B. Myotonic

162
Q

Spinal dysraphism can be detected in utero after 18 weeks by taking the

A

B. Amniotic Alpha feto protein

163
Q

A positive Gowers sign is

A

B. Present in pelvic and proximal leg weakness

164
Q

Ischemic Compression Test is for

A

D. McArdle’s Disease

165
Q

A dive bomber sound on EMG is seen in

A

B. Myotonia

166
Q

Fasciculation’s of the tongue and limb muscles is frequently seen in

A

D. SMA

167
Q

Most of children with this condition cannot reach adulthood except

A

B. Fascioscapulohumeral dystrophy

168
Q

The most common cause of death of children with myopathies is

A

B. C. Pulmonary problem

169
Q

This reflex is integrated in the spinal cord

A

C. Flexor withdrawal

170
Q

This reflex develops mouth opening, helps find the breast and develops various tongue position

A

B. Rooting reflex

171
Q

Asymmetric Tonic Neck reflex

A

B. Coordinates with tonic labyrinthine reflex for turning the body

172
Q

Patient with Spina bifida should be examined for

A

C. Presence of hip dislocation

173
Q

This instrument is used to measure range of motion of joints:

A

B. goniometer

174
Q

Which of the following is considered as a deep heating modality:

A

C. ultrasound

175
Q

On stimulation the baby extend and abduct the limbs followed by flexion and adduction

A

A. If this is a normal baby he is less than four months

176
Q

Stroke rehabilitation may be started:

A

A. as soon as the patient’s neurological and medical condition stabilizes

177
Q

This reflex is integrated in the spinal cord

A

C. Flexor withdrawal

178
Q

This reflex develops mouth opening, helps find the breast and develops various tongue position

A

B. Rooting reflex

179
Q

Asymmetric Tonic Neck reflex

A

B. Coordinates with tonic labyrinthine reflex for turning the body

180
Q

At four months of age the child is expected to

A

D. Rolls over from supine

181
Q

A child of 3 years is expected to

A

C. Walks up stairs alternating feet

182
Q

A dyskenitic Cerebral palsy is frequently associated with

A

A. Bilirubin encephalopathy

183
Q

True of a geriatric individual

A

C. They prefer to be independent

184
Q

Some of the changes in the elderly is

A

A. Decline in the number of motor units

185
Q

Crystallized intelligence is preserved in elderly this is

A

C. comprehension

186
Q

Elderly has tendency to fall. One reason is a sudden drop of blood pressure which can be due to

A

B. Sudden change in position or abrupt standing

187
Q

Exercise prescription for an osteoporotic patient is

A

C. Walking

188
Q

Osteoporosis has an earlier onset in women . And this is usually evident during

A

C. 5 to 7 years after menopause

189
Q

Elderly patient is prone to bed sore because of

A

A. Loss of subcutaneous fat

190
Q

Cardiorespiratory changes in elderly

A

A. Lower maximal heart rate

191
Q

To prevent hypotension in elderly it is best to observe

A

C. Standing slowly while holding to a bar

192
Q

A spinal cord injury with weaker upper extremities than lower extremities is

A

A. A posterior cord syndrome B. Central cord syndrome C. A bilateral brachial plexus injury D. A hemi section of the spinal cord

193
Q

An SCI patient states that he has intact sensation up to the umbilicus, without movement over his legs. This means

A

A. His sensory level is T10

194
Q

The most common site of heterotrophic ossification among burn patient is at the

A

C. Elbow

195
Q

A bedridden quadriplegic has painful inflamed thigh . The working diagnosis is DVT , it is best to differentiate this with

A

B. Heterotopic ossification

196
Q

The most common tumor of the bone

A

C. Metastatic

197
Q

The most common cause of Traumatic brain injury is

A

A. Vehicular accident

198
Q

A C-curve scoliosis is common in

A

D. Paralytic scoliosis

199
Q

Physical finding in scoliosis on convexity side

A

D. Prominent scapula

200
Q

Physical finding in scoliosis on concavity side

A

B. Prominent front chest

201
Q

This syndrome of massive sympathetic discharge associated with the SCI patients with lesions at T6 level, characterized by headache, hypertension, diaphoresis and reflex bradycardia is known as:

A

C. autonomic dysreflexia

202
Q

This is the most important aspect to consider in the management of decubitus ulcer:

A

A. relief of pressure

203
Q

What is the key muscle for testing C7 myotome, according to the American Spinal Injury Association?

A

A. triceps

204
Q

This level is generally the highest level of injury at which spontaneous ventilation can be sustained. Injuries above this level generally require mechanical ventilation:

A

A. C4

205
Q

This is referred to as an ectopic bone formation occurring within 6 months after spinal cord injury:

A

A. heterotopic ossification

206
Q

This is generally considered the drug of choice for spasticity in SCI:

A

B. Baclofen

207
Q

A female cancer patient is in constant pain which is severe, radiating, shooting and electric like in character. Most likely cause of her pain is:

A

B. Compression of a nerve by the enlarged mass

208
Q

Gate’s Control Theory of pain is the basis for all the following non pharmacologic pain management EXCEPT:

A

D. Biofeedback

209
Q

A peripheral type of pain:

A

A. Myofascial pain syndrome

210
Q

Management of pain due to excision of mass in the anterior abdominal wall:

A

A. Non-steroidal anti inflammatory agents (NSAIDs)

211
Q

Chronic use or prolonged intermittent administration of this opioids. Results in neurotoxicity due to its metabolite.

A

A. Meperidine

212
Q

Major toxicity of short term use of NSAIDs:

A

B. C. Gastro duodenal irritation

213
Q

Effective in neuropathic pains:

A

D. D. Anticonvulsants

214
Q

Acupuncture based on traditional Chinese medicine.

A

B. Solid needles inserted along meridians

215
Q

A focussed concentration used as a guide to patients to focuss away from their pain.

A

B. Hypnosis

216
Q

Which of the following NSAIDs act on the central cyclooxygenase?

A

B. Paracetamol

217
Q

The gold standard to which all of the other opioids are being compared to.

A

B. Morphine

218
Q

Which of the following opioids is an agonist-antagonist.

A

C. Nalbuphine

219
Q

Mechanism of action of ketamine.

A

C. Prevents the removal of magnesium from the NMDA receptor in the post-synaptic nerve

220
Q

Opioids receptor responsible for the respiratory depressant effect of opioids

A

B. Mu 2 receptor

221
Q

The following local anesthesic exhibit vasoconstricting effect at low and high doses.

A

D. Cocaine

222
Q

One of the following is on objective sign of CNS toxicity:

A

A.Convulsion

223
Q

Local anesthetic that belongs to amide group.

A

B. Lidocaine

224
Q

Local anesthetic that is converted to O-toluidine in the liver:

A

C. Prilocaine

225
Q

Local anesthetic with arrtiarrhythmic effect

A

C. Lidocaine

226
Q

Addition of vasoconstrictors to local anesthetics will:

A

B. Prolong the duration of action of local anesthetic

227
Q

Local anesthetic that causes unidirectional block and re-entry type of cardiac arrhythmia.

A

A. Bupivacaine

228
Q

The median nerve originates from the:

A

A. Lateral cord / B. Medial cord/ C. Both A & B

229
Q

The Dorsalis Pedis Artery is used as landmark to block the:

A

B. C. Deep Peroneal nerve

230
Q

The nerve blocked, when local anesthetic is injected between the palmaris longus and tendon longus and flexor carpi radialis at the wrist.

A

B. Median nerve

231
Q

Caudal anesthesia is a form of:

A

D. Epidural block

232
Q

Boundaries of the anatomic Snuff Box EXCEPT:

A

D. Abductor Pollicis Brevis

233
Q

The nerve blocked posterior to the lateral malleolus.

A

A. Sural nerve

234
Q

Complication of pudendal nerve block during vaginal delivery:

A

B. C. Puncture of fetal head

235
Q

Delayed complication of spinal anesthesia

A

B. Urinary retention

236
Q

The nerve found at the anatomic snuff box nerve

A

C. Radial nerve

237
Q

Nerve blocked in Retrobulbar nerve block

A

B. Ciliary Ganglion

238
Q

Branch of intercostals nerve often spared when injection of local anesthetic is done at the anterior axillary line:

A

D. D. Lateral cutaneous branch

239
Q

Landmark in doing superficial cervical plexus block.

A

C. Sternocleidonastoid muscle

240
Q

Approach in doing brachial plexus block that anesthetize the entire plexus:

A

C. Infraclavicular Approach

241
Q

Post spinal headache as a delayed complication of spinal anesthesia is due to:

A

C. CSF leakage

242
Q

T6 level of sensory blockade is at the level of :

A

D. Xiphoid process

243
Q

The line joining the highest points of iliac crest (ASIS) crosses:

A

C. L4 interspace

244
Q

In adult the spinal cord ends at the level of:

A

C. L1

245
Q

Drug administration that allows patient to titrate analgesics according to their needs:

A

A. Patient controlled analgesia (PCA)

246
Q

A patient can be discharged from the Postoperative care unit if he is:

A

D. Pulse oximeter reading is 97% at room air.

247
Q

CASE: LA, 35 years old female is schedule for appendectomy: BP=130/80 PR=88/min anesthesia given is subarachnoid block: What is the ideal level of the block?

A

B. Midspinal

248
Q

Upon doing the pinprick test, the sensory block is at the level of the nipple (T4). Give the level of motor block:

A

A. T6

249
Q

Five minutes after assuming the supine position; the BP because 90/60 PR=50/min. Give the reason for hypotension:

A

B. C. Sympathetic block

250
Q

What is the immediate management? Of hypotension

A

C. Increase IV fluid infusion

251
Q

What is the immediate management of the bradycardia?

A

C. Atropine sulfate

252
Q

Intake of an agent by the body and the uptake of the agent by the tissues is termed.

A

C. Absorption

253
Q

Distribution of general anesthetic drugs is influenced by:

A

C. Regional blood flow

254
Q

Discovered oxygen and nitrous oxide:

A

B. Joseph Priestly

255
Q

Muscle relaxation is the result of :

A

C. Motor block

256
Q

True of nondepolarizing muscle relaxant:

A

A. Competetive inhibition with acetylcholine

257
Q

Last CNS structure depressed by general anesthesia is:

A

C. Medullary center

258
Q

A 16 year old healthy patient with incarcerated inguinal hernia, for inguinal herviorhaphy the American Society of Anesthesiologists risks classification under:

A

A. Class I

259
Q

Cardiovascular intolerance to changes in position after anesthesia is a sign of:

A

B. C. Excessive depth of anesthesia

260
Q

Heat and cold sensations are transmitted through this type of nerve fibers:

A

B. C. A beta fibers

261
Q

Sharp cut on the skin are transmitted mostly through this type of nerve fibers:

A

A. C-fibers

262
Q

Referred pain occurs due to convergence of nerve fibers in this neurons:

A

C. Wide dynamic range neurons

263
Q

Which of the following is an excitatory nerve transmitter for the pain pathway:

A

A. Glutamate

264
Q

In the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, the opioid receptor are found in:

A

B. Lamina II

265
Q

First order neuron are found in:

A

D. D. Dorsal root ganglion

266
Q

Primary afferent fibers with fastest conduction velocity:

A

C. A beta fibers

267
Q

Known as carrier gas:

A

B. Oxygen

268
Q

True of ketamine HCL effect:

A

B. C. Increase intraocular pressure

269
Q

Which of the following is a belladona alkaloid?

A

C. Atropine sulfate

270
Q

An inherited abnormality resulting from exposure of patient to certain anesthesic:

A

C. Malignant hyperthermia

271
Q

One of the following is a weak anesthetic but a potent analgesic.

A

A. Nitrous oxide

272
Q

Local anesthetic with vasoconstriction effect:

A

D. Cocaine

273
Q

Systemic toxicity to local anesthesia is manisfested by:

A

A. Convulsions

274
Q

Causes methemoglobinemia because it is degraded in the liver to otoluidine w/c causes oxidation of hemoglobine.

A

C. Prilocaine

275
Q

Factors that affect absorption of local anesthetic.

A

C. pKA

276
Q

Duration of action of local anesthetic correlates with :

A

B. Protein buiding

277
Q

Potency of a local anesthetics correlates with.

A

A. Lipid solubility

278
Q

Onset of action of a local anesthetic correlates with.

A

C. pKA

279
Q

When asked about the pain he categorically says it is minimal. Numerical score is.

A

A. 1 to 3

280
Q

Tramadol and Meperidine should not be given in patients receiving.

A

D. D. Monoamineoxydase inhibitor

281
Q

Mechanism of action of tramadol.

A

A. A weak mu receptor agonist / B. Inhibits nor adrenalin receptor/ C. Inhibits serotonin receptor/ D. All of the above

282
Q

Mechanism of action of NSAIDs

A

A. Inhibition of lipooxygenase/ B. Inhibition of cyclioxygenase inhibitor/ C. Inhibition of phospholipase /D. All of the above

283
Q

Common complication of retrobulbar block in extremely myopic eye.

A

A. Globe perforation

284
Q

The landmark for doing deep peroneal nerve block.

A

C. Dorsalis pedis artery

285
Q

Most common complication of intercostals nerve block.

A

A. Pneumothorax

286
Q

Local anesthetic technique which uses lidocaine spray 10%.

A

D. Topical

287
Q

Needle puncture during spinal anesthesia can be made safely at the interspace.

A

C. L4 – L5

288
Q

Mechanism of chronic pain which is often referred to as “nociceptive pain”.

A

A. Peripheral

289
Q

Management for central type pf pain:

A

B. Opioids

290
Q

Nerve missed in doing the axillary approach in brachial plexus block

A

D. Musculo cutaneous nerve

291
Q

Nerve blocked posterior to the medial malleolus.

A

B. Tibial nerve

292
Q

The anesthetic potency of volatile liquid anesthetic is measured by:

A

B. Minimum alveolar concentration

293
Q

The most common cause of airway obstruction is general anesthesia is:

A

C. Falling back of the tongue

294
Q

Green is the standard color code for :

A

C. Oxygen

295
Q

Elimination of general inhalation anesthetics is mainly thru:

A

D. Lungs

296
Q

Part of the anesthesia machine that releases gas to the atmosphere.

A

B. C. Pop-off value

297
Q

A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life, will have a physical status classification.

A

D. ASA IV

298
Q

Lowest intensity at which a given stimulus is perceived as painful.

A

B. Pain threshold

299
Q

One of the following is an example of acute pain.

A

D. Post-operative pain

300
Q

This gas is known as a “Laughing Gas”

A

C. Nitrous oxide

301
Q

Type of ventilation used for apneic patient.

A

B. Controlled ventilation

302
Q

Transduction occurs in the :

A

A. Peripheral terminals of primary afferent neurons

303
Q

Characteristics of acute pain:

A

A. Generate reflexes

304
Q

The nerve fiber is freely permeable to:

A

C. Na + ions

305
Q

Which of the following layers of the retina does not terminate at the optic disc margin:

A

B. Nerve fiber layer

306
Q

The adult orbital measurement is attained at this age:

A

C. 9th year

307
Q

The orbital space formed by the recti muscles and their intermuscular membrane with the Tenon’s capsule:

A

A. Central surgical space

308
Q

The condensation of fibrous tissues that thickens to form a sling (hammock) upon 39 which the globe rests:

A

C. Ligament of Lockwood

309
Q

Which of the following does not pass thru the Superior orbital fissure:

A

D. Optic nerve

310
Q

The extrinsic muscle that is not inserted in front of the equator:

A

B. Superior rectus

311
Q

The adult size of the cornea is attained at:

A

A. 6th year of life

312
Q

Which of the following is not TRUE of the Meibomian gland:

A

C. Modified sweat gland

313
Q

True of the Optic nerve, except:

A

B. Emerges from the posterior aspect of the globe.

314
Q

True of Conjunctival injection:

A

B. Vessels constrict with a drop of 1:1,000 epinephrine

315
Q

Marked enlargement of the optic disk is rarely seen, but its occurrence suggests:

A

A. Myopia/ B. posterior staphyloma/ C. Both

316
Q

Any opacity in the lens is called:

A

A. Cataract

317
Q

The optic nerve is actually a collection of axons of the:

A

D. ganglion cells

318
Q

As it courses through the orbit, the optic nerve derives its blood supply from the:

A

D. d. central retinal artery

319
Q

The center of the visual field corresponds to visual perception from the following anatomic structure:

A

B. the fovea

320
Q

Mass lesions of the pituitary gland classically produce the following field pattern:

A

C. bitemporal hemianopsia

321
Q

To enable stereoscopic vision, the visual fibers are so arranged that fibers over the nasal retina decussate while temporal fibers continue ipsilaterally to their corresponding lateral geniculate body. The crossover of fibers occur at the:

A

A. optic chiasm

322
Q

Despite the seemingly horrendous appearance of the optic disc in acute papilledema, vision remains fairly good and the only deficit in the visual field is a:

A

B. enlarged blind spot

323
Q

The following is true of optic nerve meningiomas:

A

B. symptoms are different from that of sphenoid wing meningiomas

324
Q

Ischemic optic neuritis presents with this classical field defect:

A

B. cecocentral scotoma

325
Q

True of pinguecula:

A

A. benign degenerative tissue

326
Q

True of symblepharon:

A

A. chief cause is chemical burn/ B. keratitis occurs because of exposure / C. obliterate conjunctival cul-de-sac/ D. all of the above

327
Q

Middle coat of the eye is composed of the following, except:

A

C. Retina

328
Q

Structure that regulates the amount of light reaching the visual receptors of the eye:

A

D. Iris

329
Q

The embryologic tertiary vitreous is known as what structure in the adult eye:

A

B. Vitreous body

330
Q

Portion of the Tenon capsule that forma a sling upon which the globe rests:

A

A. ligament of lackwood

331
Q

The type of conjunctivitis characterized by a localized whitish nodule with a necrotic excavated center surrounded by conjunctival injection:

A

c. phlyctenular conjunctivitis (Espiritu etal, p. 54)

332
Q

The virus that can cause congenital cataract:

A

c. rubella (Newell, p. 377)

333
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are given as a treatment for glaucoma. Its mechanism of action is:

A

b. to decrease aqueous humor production (Espiritu, p. 101)

334
Q

While cutting grass in his garden, a 50-year old male felt a small piece enter his left eye. He experienced foreign body sensation and eye redness. No consult was done and no medications were instilled. A few days later, he noted a fluffy, grayish white e

A

c. corticosteroids (Newell, p. 249)

335
Q

Softening of the cornea associated with malnourishment:

A

b. keratomalacia (Espiritu etal, p. 60)

336
Q

An ophthalmic emergency characterized by sudden blurring or complete loss of vision with a characteristic cherry-red spot on funduscopy:

A

d. central retinal artery occlusion (Espiritu, p. 88)

337
Q

A 45-year old female suddenly experienced blurring of vision, with a sensation of a curtain in a part of the field of vision. The primary consideration in this patient is:

A

b. retinal detachment (Espiritu, p. 92)

338
Q

A 2-year-old boy was brought in for consultation because the mother noted a “white pupil”. Which of the following is NOT a differential diagnosis for this case?

A

a. congenital glaucoma (Newell, p. 326)

339
Q

Which of the following is responsible for scotopic vision or dim illumination:

A

a. rods only (Espiritu, p. 86)

340
Q

The ocular lesion in congenital toxoplasmosis is characterized as:

A

c. single choroidoretinal scar prominently in the posterior fundus (Espiritu, p.126)

341
Q

A 45-year-old male presents with a painless mass on the upper outer portion of his upper eyelid. There was moderate proptosis. Which is true of his condition?

A

c. It contains mesenchymal elements and double-layered tubular epithelial units (Newell, p. 263)

342
Q

A chronic inflammatory lipogranuloma of a meibomian gland, characterized by a gradual painless swelling of the gland without other external signs of inflammation:

A

b. chalazion (Newell, p. 204)

343
Q

The palpebral fissure among Filipinos measures:

A

d. 8-10 mm in height and 26-29 mm in length ( Espiritu, p. 9)

344
Q

Passive swelling of the optic nerve occurring secondary to increased pressure in the subarachnoid space of the meningeal coverings of the brain and optic nerves:

A

a. papilledema (Newell, p. 357)

Surgery Reviewer (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions